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  • Entering Content Into A MySQL Database Via A Form

    - by ThatMacLad
    I've been working on creating a form that submits content into my database but I decided that rather than using a drop down menu to select the date I'd rather use a textfield. I was wondering what changes I will need to make to my table creation file. <?php mysql_connect ('localhost', 'root', 'root') ; mysql_select_db ('tmlblog'); $sql = "CREATE TABLE php_blog ( id int(20) NOT NULL auto_increment, timestamp int(20) NOT NULL, title varchar(255) NOT NULL, entry longtext NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) )"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or print ("Can't create the table 'php_blog' in the database.<br />" . $sql . "<br />" . mysql_error()); mysql_close(); if ($result != false) { echo "Table 'php_blog' was successfully created."; } ?> It's the timestamp that I need to edit to enter in via a textfield. The Title and Entry are currently being entered via that method anyway.

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  • Blackberry - custom logic for checkboxes group

    - by SWATI
    if i click on any checkbox all previous checkboxes must get checked "my logic works" if i uncheck a checkbox then all checkboxes after it must get unchecked "how to do that" MyLogic works for storm but not for other models what to do //well what i want to do is i have 5 checkboxes class myscreen { chk_service = new CheckboxField[5]; chk_service[0]= new CheckboxField("1",true) chk_service[1]= new CheckboxField("2",false) chk_service[2]= new CheckboxField("3",false) chk_service[3]= new CheckboxField("4",false) chk_service[4]= new CheckboxField("5",false) CheckboxFieldChangeListener obj = new CheckboxFieldChangeListener(chk_service); chk_service[0].setChangeListener(obj); chk_service[1].setChangeListener(obj); chk_service[2].setChangeListener(obj); chk_service[3].setChangeListener(obj); chk_service[4].setChangeListener(obj); hm4 = new HorizontalFieldManager(); hm4.add(chk_service[0]); hm4.add(chk_service[1]); hm4.add(chk_service[2]); hm4.add(chk_service[3]); hm4.add(chk_service[4]); add(hm4); } public CheckboxFieldChangeListener (CheckboxField[] arrFields) { m_arrFields = arrFields; } public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if(true == ((CheckboxField) field).getChecked()) { for(int i = 0; i < m_arrFields.length; i++) { if(m_arrFields[i]==field) { //a[j]=i; j++; break; } else { CheckboxField oField = m_arrFields[i]; oField.setChecked(true); } } } a[k] = j; if(false == ((CheckboxField) field).getChecked()) { for(int i =field.getIndex(); i < m_arrFields.length; i++) { if(m_arrFields[i]==field) { //a[j]=i; j++; break; } else { CheckboxField oField = m_arrFields[i]; oField.setChecked(false); } } } } }

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  • Prototype: Form.serialize missing some inputs (due to table?)

    - by Chris
    I'm using JavaScript Prototype (through Ruby on Rails) to handle some Ajax calls; but in one particular case I'm missing a field from the form. I have a layout like this: +---------+---------+ | Thing 1 | Thing 2 | +---------+---------+-----------+ | o Opt 1 | o Opt 1 | <Confirm> | | o Opt 2 | o Opt 2 | | +---------+---------+-----------+ Opt 1 and 2 are Radio buttons, Confirm is a button. The entire table is wrapped in a form, with code like: <form action="javascript:void(0)"> <input type="hidden" name="context" value="foo" /> <input type="hidden" name="subcontext" value="bar" /> <table> <tr><td>Thing 1</td><td>Thing2</td></tr> <tr><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input name="choice_btn" type="button" value="Confirm" onclick="new AJAX.Updater('my_form', '/process_form', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this.form)}); return false;" /> </td></tr> </table> </form> But I can see that the POST generated by clicking the Confirm button contains the foo and bar values for the hidden fields, but not the choice of the radio buttons. Is this because I've got a table inside my form? How can I get around this?

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • Angularjs throws TypeError: Cannot read property 'indexOf' of undefined

    - by Ali
    I'm trying to debug the above code which I feel like this is very useful .< I can't even find what is wrong in my code and don't really know where to start since Angularjs still very new to me. I'm trying to localize Angularjs app. I know this is missing a lot of context in order to get a help, but I'm trying to see what information that I should give that would help on this debugging. I've gone through any indexOf in angularjs file and I can see few things is undefined but don't know if that would be helpful. So I've traced the problem here and this is what I have figured is the problem, but still counldn't figure out why... config(['$routeProvider', '$locationProvider', function ($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/:locale?/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/teaching-resources', { templateUrl: '_partials/teaching-resources.html', controller: 'teachingResources' }) .when('/:username/makes', { templateUrl: '_partials/makes.html', controller: 'makes' }) .when('/:username/likes', { templateUrl: '_partials/likes.html', controller: 'likes' }) .when('/:username/events', { templateUrl: '_partials/events.html', controller: 'events' }) .when('/:username', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/error/404' }); The URL that I'm visiting for default page is: This will fail and throw the error. http://localhost:1969/en-US/user/someUserName This will work fine http://localhost:1969/user/someUserName UPDATE I figured out! This is the problem: $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); But why!?

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  • Show iPad keyboard on select, focus or always (jQuery)

    - by Ryan
    I have a web app that is using jQuery to replace the RETURN key with TAB so that when I user presses return the form is not submitted but rather the cursor moves to the next text field. This works in all browsers but only 1/2 works on the iPad. On the iPad the next field is highlighted but the keyboard is hidden. How can I keep the keyboard visible or force it somehow? Here's my code (thanks to http://thinksimply.com/blog/jquery-enter-tab): function checkForEnter (event) { if (event.keyCode == 13) { currentBoxNumber = textboxes.index(this); if (textboxes[currentBoxNumber + 1] != null) { nextBox = textboxes[currentBoxNumber + 1] nextBox.focus(); nextBox.select(); event.preventDefault(); return false; } } } Drupal.behaviors.formFields = function(context) { $('input[type="text"]').focus(function() { $(this).removeClass("idleField").addClass("focusField"); }); $('input[type="text"]').blur(function() { $(this).removeClass("focusField").addClass("idleField"); }); // replaces the enter/return key function with tab textboxes = $("input.form-text"); if ($.browser.mozilla) { $(textboxes).keypress (checkForEnter); } else { $(textboxes).keydown (checkForEnter); } };

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • How should I organize my Java GUI?

    - by Spencer
    I'm creating a game in Java for fun and I'm trying to decide how to organize my classes for the GUI. So far, all the classes with only the swing components and layout (no logic) are in a package called "ui". I now need to add listeners (i.e. ActionListener) to components (i.e. button). The listeners need to communicate with the Game class. Currently I have: Game.java - creates the frame add panels to it import javax.swing.; import ui.; public class Game { private JFrame frame; Main main; Rules rules; Game() { rules = new Rules(); frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); main = new Main(); frame.setContentPane(main.getContentPane()); show(); } void show() { frame.pack(); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setVisible(true); } public static void main(String[] args) { new Game(); } } Rules.java - game logic ui package - all classes create new panels to be swapped out with the main frame's content pane Main.java (Main Menu) - creates a panel with components Where do I now place the functionality for the Main class? In the game class? Separate class? Or is the whole organization wrong? Thanks

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  • Pure CSS3 show/hide full height div with transition

    - by user1898838
    Dear Stackoverflow readers, I've been breaking my head over something I've seen at Tympanus, and I can't figure out how to properly do such a thing. In this link: http://tympanus.net/Tutorials/FullscreenBookBlock/ you can see that the menu is completely hidden, and only visible when you click on an icon. It has a lovely transition, and it basically roughly sums up what I'm trying to accomplish. The only difference with the above example is that I don't want to completely hide this full-height element, and I'd like to accomplish the above effect with a hover instead of having to click a button. So in an ideal world you'd see a vertical bar, and when you hover over that bar (or click on it with your finger if you're on a tablet), it "opens up" and shows you the full content inside the opened div. Now, I can make a decent bit in html5 and css3, but the above explained effect that I'm trying to accomplish has given me serious headaches, hehe. Does anyone happen to know a tutorial I might have missed that does this exact thing? p.s.: I have tried to take apart Tympanus' html/css, but with the page-fold effect that's also implemented in it I can't seem to figure it out, hence my hope for someone here to help me on my way :)

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  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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  • When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

    - by The Rook
    It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

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  • Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

    - by justSteve
    I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

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  • Etiquette: Version bump my fork of opensource project?

    - by Ross
    This question is about etiquette and open source projects. I have forked an application from github and added two new features. The first feature has been request frequently elsewhere. I have added it. Code & implementation are clean (I think). The second feature is more of a hack. It will be of use to others, but the implementation is a little dirty in useage and more so in code. I need the feature but I don't have the skills to fully implement it properly or to a level that could be considered a worth while contrabution to the main project. How should the versioning work? Do I just bump up my version numbers care-free and push to my master branch? It is annoying to know which version is running, modifed or original, as both have the same version number. But will it be confusing when, months later, my github page has a version number the same as the original but both are actually completely different. (I have made pull requests etc. but that is not the context of my question.) The project I have forked uses ruby jeweler so has a versioning format of: Jeweler tracks the version of your project. It assumes you will be using a version in the format x.y.z. x is the 'major' version, y is the 'minor' version, and z is the patch version. Is this standard for other projects/langauges too? Are my changes patches? Thanks

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  • how to get response from remote server

    - by ruhit
    I have made a desktop application in asp.net using c# that connecting with remote server.I am able to connect but how do i show that my login is successful or not. After that i want to retrieve data from the remote server..........so plz help me.I have written the below code..............is there any better way try { string strId = UserId_TextBox.Text; string strpasswrd = Password_TextBox.Text; ASCIIEncoding encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); string postData = "UM_email=" + strId; postData += ("&UM_password=" + strpasswrd); byte[] data = encoding.GetBytes(postData); MessageBox.Show(postData); // Prepare web request... //HttpWebRequest myRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost/ruhit/basic_framework/index.php?menu=login=" + postData); HttpWebRequest myRequest =(HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.facebook.com/login.php=" + postData); myRequest.Method = "POST"; myRequest.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; myRequest.ContentLength = data.Length; Stream newStream = myRequest.GetRequestStream(); // Send the data. newStream.Write(data, 0, data.Length); MessageBox.Show("u r now connected"); HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)myRequest.GetResponse(); // WebResponse response = myRequest.GetResponse(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string str = reader.ReadLine(); while (str != null) { str = reader.ReadLine(); MessageBox.Show(str); } reader.Close(); newStream.Close(); } catch { MessageBox.Show("error connecting"); }

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  • LicenseChecker checkAccess leaks ServiceConnection

    - by Bill The Ape
    I am receiving this exception in LogCat every time I press the Back button in my app: Activity has leaked ServiceConnection com.android.vending.licensing.LicenseChecker@471cc039 that was originally bound here The code responsible for this leak in onCreate() is: mLicenseCheckerCallback = new MyLicenseCheckerCallback(); mChecker.checkAccess(mLicenseCheckerCallback); How do I get rid of this leak? I tried not assigning MyLicenseCheckerCallback to a member, thinking perhaps when the activity goes onPause() the reference to the callback is responsible for the leak: mChecker.checkAccess(new MyLicenseCheckerCallback()); But that didn't get rid of the leak. Update: Thanks to @zapl's comment below, I looked at Google's LicenseChecker.java: /** Unbinds service if necessary and removes reference to it. */ private void cleanupService() { if (mService != null) { try { mContext.unbindService(this); } catch (IllegalArgumentException e) { // Somehow we've already been unbound. This is a non-fatal error. Log.e(TAG, "Unable to unbind from licensing service (already unbound)"); } mService = null; } } At first I thought that I may be neglecting to call it, but I double-checked and I am calling mChecker.onDestroy(); in my activity's onDestroy(). I also checked onDestroy() in LicenseChecker.java and it is calling unbindService: /** * Inform the library that the context is about to be destroyed, so that * any open connections can be cleaned up. * <p> * Failure to call this method can result in a crash under certain * circumstances, such as during screen rotation if an Activity requests * the license check or when the user exits the application. */ public synchronized void onDestroy() { cleanupService(); mHandler.getLooper().quit(); } So, what is really going on? Is this a bug in LVL?

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  • When using Direct3D, how much math is being done on the CPU?

    - by zirgen
    Context: I'm just starting out. I'm not even touching the Direct3D 11 API, and instead looking at understanding the pipeline, etc. From looking at documentation and information floating around the web, it seems like some calculations are being handled by the application. That, is, instead of simply presenting matrices to multiply to the GPU, the calculations are being done by a math library that operates on the CPU. I don't have any particular resources to point to, although I guess I can point to the XNA Math Library or the samples shipped in the February DX SDK. When you see code like mViewProj = mView * mProj;, that projection is being calculated on the CPU. Or am I wrong? If you were writing a program, where you can have 10 cubes on the screen, where you can move or rotate cubes, as well as viewpoint, what calculations would you do on the CPU? I think I would store the geometry for the a single cube, and then transform matrices representing the actual instances. And then it seems I would use the XNA math library, or another of my choosing, to transform each cube in model space. Then get the coordinates in world space. Then push the information to the GPU. That's quite a bit of calculation on the CPU. Am I wrong? Am I reaching conclusions based on too little information and understanding? What terms should I Google for, if the answer is STFW? Or if I am right, why aren't these calculations being pushed to the GPU as well?

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • Entity framework self referencing loop detected

    - by Lyd0n
    I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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  • How to use JSF h:messages better?

    - by gurupriyan.e
    My Objective is to use h:messages to convey user - error and confirmation messages.The CSS styles to show these two different messages are different, In fact I would like to use an image beside the confirmation message. for Eg: <tr> <td><img/></td><td><h:msg></td> </td>. So I tried to add messages to the Faces Context based on 2 different client ids <tr> <td height="5"> <h:messages style="color:darkred" id="error_message" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="89%" class="InfoMsg" align="center"> <h:messages id="confirm_message" /> </td> </tr> and in the java layer FacesMessage facesMessage = new FacesMessage(Constants.saveMessageConfirm); FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().addMessage(Constants.STATIC_CONFIRM_MSG_CLIENT_ID, facesMessage); But, even if i add messages to client Id confirm_message - and only to confirm_message - and not to error_message - The message is shown twice in 2 different styles (refer the HTML above) 2 Questions : 1) What is the problem here? 2) If I want to show the image inside a td in the second tr and conditionaly show that second tr when confirm messages are present - what is the best way? Thanks,

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  • How can I load an external jQuery gallery/slideshow into a div

    - by DanTransformer
    Ive got a jQuery navigation menu loading external content into my #main div, which works fine when the content is static, but the site im working on contains jQuery galleries/slideshows which id like to call into the div. The problem im having is when the gallery is loaded, the images all appear but the jQuery functionality does not work. Any help appreciated. here is the javascript im using... $(document).ready(function() { // Check for hash value in URL var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#accordion ul li a').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #main'; $('#main').load(toLoad) } }); $('#accordion ul li a').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #main'; $('#main').hide('fast',loadContent); $('#load').remove(); $('#wrapper').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadContent() { $('#main').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#main').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); });

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  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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  • OnClickListener on Tabs not working

    - by Aracos
    Greetings, I am trying to get the Click - event when clicking on the currently selected tab of my TabActivity. The onTabChangedHandler is only called whenever the tab is changed, not if the currently active Tab is clicked. The debugger tells me i have the onClickListener Registered for the TabWidget within my TabHost. Am i registering for the wrong View? Also, I am unable to create a Context Menu for the Tabs, only for its content, is this problem related? public class TestDroidViewTab extends TabActivity implements TabContentFactory , OnTabChangeListener, OnClickListener { private static final String LOG_KEY = "TEST"; ListView listView; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); final TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TabHost.TabSpec ts = tabHost.newTabSpec("ID_1"); ts.setIndicator("1"); ts.setContent(this); tabHost.addTab(ts); ts = tabHost.newTabSpec("ID_2"); ts.setIndicator("2"); ts.setContent(this); tabHost.addTab(ts); ts = tabHost.newTabSpec("ID_3"); ts.setIndicator("3"); ts.setContent(this); tabHost.addTab(ts); tabHost.setOnClickListener(this); tabHost.setOnTabChangedListener(this); } public void onClick(View v) { Log.d(LOG_KEY, "OnClick"); } public void onTabChanged(String tabId) { Log.d(LOG_KEY, "OnTabChanged"); }

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  • How to support comparisons for QVariant objects containing a custom type?

    - by Tyler McHenry
    According to the Qt documentation, QVariant::operator== does not work as one might expect if the variant contains a custom type: bool QVariant::operator== ( const QVariant & v ) const Compares this QVariant with v and returns true if they are equal; otherwise returns false. In the case of custom types, their equalness operators are not called. Instead the values' addresses are compared. How are you supposed to get this to behave meaningfully for your custom types? In my case, I'm storing an enumerated value in a QVariant, e.g. In a header: enum MyEnum { Foo, Bar }; Q_DECLARE_METATYPE(MyEnum); Somewhere in a function: QVariant var1 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); QVariant var2 = QVariant::fromValue<MyEnum>(Foo); assert(var1 == var2); // Fails! What do I need to do differently in order for this assertion to be true? I understand why it's not working -- each variant is storing a separate copy of the enumerated value, so they have different addresses. I want to know how I can change my approach to storing these values in variants so that either this is not an issue, or so that they do both reference the same underlying variable. It don't think it's possible for me to get around needing equality comparisons to work. The context is that I am using this enumeration as the UserData in items in a QComboBox and I want to be able to use QComboBox::findData to locate the item index corresponding to a particular enumerated value.

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  • SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

    - by Jordan
    I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

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  • Disabling Remote-Debugging Connection on Windows 2000

    - by Kim Leeper
    I have two machines one running Win 2000 and one running Win XP both with VSC++ 6. I created an application on the Win XP machine (local) and sucessfuly used the Win2000 machine (remote) as the target for debugging. The code was in a shared drive on the Win2000 machine. This setup worked well, just like in the movies! However, I now wish to use my Win2000 machine as a develpment machine again and I find I can not. When attempting to execute a natively compiled application on this machine, I get a dialog with the title of "Remote Execution Path And Filename" asking me for same. When dialog is cancelled as the program that is attemptng to execute is not remote, the program terminates without error. Extra info! On the WinXP machine, VSC++, under the Build menu-Debugger Remote Connection-Remote Connection Dialog-the "Connection:" list box has two entries 'Local' and 'Network', on the Win2000 machine the 'Local' entry is not present, only the entry for 'Network'. How do I get back my 'Local' entry on what used to be my target machine?

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