Search Results

Search found 2592 results on 104 pages for 'backbone routing'.

Page 54/104 | < Previous Page | 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61  | Next Page >

  • URL structure preference - to slash or not to slash?

    - by TheDeadMedic
    I'm using custom post types in WordPress 3.0 to manage 'courses' (or seminars, lectures, whatever term you'd prefer to have in mind). Now for viewing a single 'course', the url structure is; /course/course-name/ But for multiple courses? /courses/category/category-name/ Or... /course-category/category-name/ Or something entirely different?

    Read the article

  • rewrite routes for URl

    - by user348173
    I have the following URl: http://localhost:12981/BaseEvent/EventOverview/12?type=Film This is route: routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); I want that in a browser the url looks like: http://localhost:12981/Film/Overview/12 How can I do this? One more example: http://localhost:12981/BaseEvent/EventOverview/15?type=Sport should be http://localhost:12981/Sport/Overview/15 Thanks.

    Read the article

  • can i have a date in the url of a route in asp.net ?

    - by oo
    This code below doesn't seem to work but i can't figure out why. If i have a user entered textbox that is a datepicker and the results are displayed as: 21-May-2010 , can i take this value and stick it into a URL to send over to a controller action so instead of an id (which is an int), i want a id which is a date value View / Javascript Code: $.get('/Tracker/DailyBlog/' + this.val(), function(data) { $('#dailyblog').html(data); }); ControllAction Code: public ActionResult DailyBlog(DateTime blogDate) { //go do something } any idea why this is not working ?

    Read the article

  • How to use RedirectToAction to redirect to the default action of different controller?

    - by atbebtg
    I am trying to do a RedirectToAction from http://mywebsite/Home/ using the following code: return RedirectToAction("Index","Profile", new { id = formValues["id"] }); The above code will succesfully take me to http://mywebsite/Profile/Index/223224 What do I have to do to make it redirect to http://mywebsite/Profile/223224 Thank you. I figured out how to do this. First I have to add custom route rule: routes.MapRoute("Profile", "Profile/{id}", new { controller = "Profile", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); Then I can do the following: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public RedirectResult Index(FormCollection formValues) { return Redirect("~/Survey/" + formValues["Id"]); }

    Read the article

  • Create Rails model with argument of associated model?

    - by Kyle Carlson
    I have two models, User and PushupReminder, and a method create_a_reminder in my PushupReminder controller (is that the best place to put it?) that I want to have create a new instance of a PushupReminder for a given user when I pass it a user ID. I have the association via the user_id column working correctly in my PushupReminder table and I've tested that I can both create reminders & send the reminder email correctly via the Rails console. Here is a snippet of the model code: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pushup_reminders end class PushupReminder < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end And the create_a_reminder method: def create_a_reminder(user) @user = User.find(user) @reminder = PushupReminder.create(:user_id => @user.id, :completed => false, :num_pushups => @user.pushups_per_reminder, :when_sent => Time.now) PushupReminderMailer.reminder_email(@user).deliver end I'm at a loss for how to run that create_a_reminder method in my code for a given user (eventually will be in a cron job for all my users). If someone could help me get my thinking on the right track, I'd really appreciate it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite - strange [R] behavior

    - by Tal
    Hello! I'm doing something very simple with mod_rewrite and it's behaving strange. It's behaving as if I'm using the [R] option, but I'm not. Here's a simple test for a .htaccess file: RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^page1$ page2 This should redirect a request for page1 to page2, but leave the URL in the web browser still pointing to page1. That doesn't happen though. It actually switches the URL to page2, as if I were using this code: RewriteRule ^page1$ page2 [R] Why's it doing that? That's not the default behavior. I'm using a pre-configured machine I got for EC2, so it's probably something in the apache configuration I'm not aware of. Googling has been futile. Help? This is Apache 2.12 btw.

    Read the article

  • I can't find the homepage for my ASP.NET MVC site :(

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, really simple question here. when I remove the default route, I returns an empty page to the browser :- routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); Now before everyone starts shouting "that's because that's the default route to access all action methods, etc.." .. i know that. My question is - what code / routes does the default framework try and call .. which makes that Default Route get used/kick in? Why? I don't wish to make that my default route regex (don't ask why - this is some R&D) but I still need the main home page .. ie. Home/Index . If i try and just add that route, it doesn't get called and an empty page is returned. So -- what does the framework try and call when a user doesn't provide any urls? It's like there's some secret default document stuff set up? Cheers :)

    Read the article

  • Custom route does not work in ASP.net MVC 3

    - by user603007
    I am trying to implement my custom route in ASP.net MVC 3 but I get this error: The resource cannot be found. global.asax public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "mycontroller", // Route name "{controller}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "MyController", action = "Search" } // Parameter defaults ); } MyController.cs public class MyController : Controller { public ActionResult Search(string name) { return Content(name); } }

    Read the article

  • No route matches - after login attempt - even though the route exists?

    - by datorum
    I am working on a rails application and added a simple login system according to a book. I created the controller admin: rails generate controller admin login logout index It added the following routes to routes.db get "admin/login" get "admin/logout" get "admin/index" I can got to http://localhost:3000/admin/login there is no problem at all. But when I try to login I get: No route matches "/admin/login"! Now, the first confusing part is that the "login" method of my AdminController is not executed at all. The second confusing part is that this code works like a charm - redirects everything to /admin/login: def authorize unless User.find_by_id(session[:user_id]) flash[:notice] = "you need to login" redirect_to :controller => 'admin', :action => 'login' end end Sidenotes: I restarted the server several times. I tried a different browser - to be sure there is no caching problem.

    Read the article

  • No route matches [PUT] error in active_admin

    - by Alex
    in active_admin partials created a form input: <%= semantic_nested_form_for @item, :url => admin_items_path(@item) do |f| %> <fieldset class="inputs"> <ol> <%= f.input :category %></br> <%= f.input :title %> <%= f.input :photo1 %> <%= f.input :photo2 %> </ol> </fieldset> <%= f.fields_for :ItemColors do |i| %> <fieldset class="inputs"> <ol> <%= i.input :DetailColor %> <%= i.input :size, :input_html => { :size => "10" } %> <%= i.link_to_remove "remove" %> </ol> </fieldset> <% end %> <%= f.link_to_add "add", :ItemColors %> <%= f.actions %> <% end %> to create a new Item okay creates and throws On the New Item, but if I do update an existing item is routed to an error occurs while such a path exists: No route matches [PUT] "/admin/items.150" #150 is item_id rake routes: batch_action_admin_items POST /admin/items/batch_action(.:format) admin/items#batch_action admin_items GET /admin/items(.:format) admin/items#index POST /admin/items(.:format) admin/items#create new_admin_item GET /admin/items/new(.:format) admin/items#new edit_admin_item GET /admin/items/:id/edit(.:format) admin/items#edit admin_item GET /admin/items/:id(.:format) admin/items#show PUT /admin/items/:id(.:format) admin/items#update DELETE /admin/items/:id(.:format) admin/items#destroy help to solve this problem UPD I found the error, but not yet understood how to fix it the upgrade is a request: PUT "/admin/items" but should: PUT "/admin/items/some_id" any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Is it justified to use project-wide unique function and variable names to help future refactoring?

    - by kahoon
    Refactoring tools (like ReSharper) often can't be sure whether to rename a given identifier when, for example refactoring a JavaScript function. I guess this is a consequence of JavaScript's dynamic nature. ReSharper solves this problem by offering to rename reasonable lexical matches too. The developer can opt out of renaming certain functions, if he finds that the lexical match is purely accidental. This means that the developer has to approve every instance that will be affected by the renaming. For example let's consider we have two Backbone classes which are used completely independently from each other in our application: var Header = Backbone.View.extend({ close: function() {...} }) var Dialog = Backbone.View.extend({ close: function() {...} }) If you try to rename Dialog's close method to for example closeAndNotify, then ReSharper will offer to rename all occurences of Header's close method just because they are the same lexically prior to the renaming. To avoid this problem, please consider this: var Header = Backbone.View.extend({ closeHeader: function() {...} }) var Dialog = Backbone.View.extend({ closeDialog: function() {...} }) Now you can rename closeDialog unambiguously - given that you have no other classes having a method with the same name. Is it worth it to name my functions this way to help future refactoring?

    Read the article

  • Why am I getting "ArgumentError: wrong number of arguments (1 for 0)" when running my rails function

    - by Hisham
    I'm stumped on what's causing this. I get this error and stack trace in all my functional tests where I call 'post'. Here is the full stack trace: 7) Error: test_should_validate(UsersControllerTest): ArgumentError: wrong number of arguments (1 for 0) /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:48:in `to_query' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:48:in `build_query_string' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:46:in `each' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:46:in `build_query_string' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:233:in `append_query_string' generated code (/Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:154):3:in `generate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:365:in `__send__' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:365:in `generate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:364:in `each' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:364:in `generate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/url_rewriter.rb:208:in `rewrite_path' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/url_rewriter.rb:187:in `rewrite_url' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/url_rewriter.rb:165:in `rewrite' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/test_process.rb:450:in `build_request_uri' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/test_process.rb:406:in `process' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/test_process.rb:376:in `post' functional/users_controller_test.rb:57:in `test_should_validate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/activesupport/lib/active_support/testing/setup_and_teardown.rb:60:in `__send__' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/activesupport/lib/active_support/testing/setup_and_teardown.rb:60:in `run' This is the test I'm running: def test_should_validate post :validate, :user => { :email => '[email protected]', :password => 'quire', :password_confirmation => 'quire', :agreed_to_terms => "true" } assert assigns(:user).errors.empty? assert_response :success end

    Read the article

  • Huawei E3276 LTE uplink slow in the routing Ubuntu, but not with other devices in the LAN

    - by Mytomi
    I have a Huawei E3276 LTE dongle (12d1:14fe - 12d1:1506) and a problem with the upstream speed. The problem is not only present with Ubuntu 14.04 LTS (64 bit workstation, kernel 3.16), but also with Raspbian Jessie for Raspberry PI (kernel 3.14). Upstream seems to be always limited to 5 Mbit/s whenever I check the speed from the Linux computer that I use as a LTE router. The other computers in the LAN always get about 10-15 Mbit/s upstream, even though the traffic is routed through the same Linux computer suffering from seemingly capped uplink. Downstream speed is always fine, 25 Mbit/s. I even installed Windows 7 in the same computer as Ubuntu and the speeds are 25 Mbit/s down, 15 Mbit/s up. So the problem is not with E3276 device itself or in the mobile subscription, but in the Huawei E3276 Linux compatibility. Maybe something in the kernel? I have made sure that the matter is not with iptables rules: the speed does not noticeably increase when iptables is disabled. Turning off IPv4 forwarding does not improve speed either. I'm not sure what settings and logs do help in debugging the situation. Please ask for more details, if you have a clue what might be wrong. Thanks, Mytomi

    Read the article

  • Mac OS X 10.8 VPN Server: Bypass VPN for LAN traffic (routing LAN traffic to secondary connection)

    - by Dan Robson
    I have somewhat of an odd setup for a VPN server with OS X Mountain Lion. It's essentially being used as a bridge to bypass my company's firewall to our extranet connection - certain things our team needs to do require unfettered access to the outside, and changing IT policies to allow traffic through the main firewall is just not an option. The extranet connection is provided through a Wireless-N router (let's call it Wi-Fi X). My Mac Mini server is configured with the connection to this router as the primary connection, thus unfettered access to the internet via the router. Connections to this device on the immediate subnet are possible through the LAN port, but outside the subnet things are less reliable. I was able to configure the VPN server to provide IP addresses to clients in the 192.168.11.150-192.168.11.200 range using both PPTP and L2TP, and I'm able to connect to the extranet through the VPN using the standard Mac OS X VPN client in System Preferences, however unsurprisingly, a local address (let's call it internal.company.com) returns nothing. I tried to bypass the limitation of the VPN Server by setting up Routes in the VPN settings. Our company uses 13.x.x.x for all internal traffic, instead of 10.x.x.x, so the routing table looked something like this: IP Address ---------- Subnet Mask ---------- Configuration 0.0.0.0 248.0.0.0 Private 8.0.0.0 252.0.0.0 Private 12.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Private 13.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Public 14.0.0.0 254.0.0.0 Private 16.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 Private 32.0.0.0 224.0.0.0 Private 64.0.0.0 192.0.0.0 Private 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 Private I was under the impression that if nothing was entered here, all traffic was routed through the VPN. With something entered, only traffic specifically marked to go through the VPN would go through the VPN, and all other traffic would be up to the client to access using its own default connection. This is why I had to specifically mark every subnet except 13.x.x.x as Private. My suspicion is that since I can't reach the VPN server from outside the local subnet, it's not making a connection to the main DNS server and thus can't be reached on the larger network. I'm thinking that entering hostnames like internal.company.com aren't kicked back to the client to resolve, because the server has no idea that the IP address falls in the public range, since I suspect (probably should ping test it but don't have access to it right now) that it can't reach the DNS server to find out anything about that hostname. It seems to me that all my options for resolving this all boil down to the same type of solution: Figure out how to reach the DNS with the secondary connection on the server. I'm thinking that if I'm able to do [something] to get my server to recognize that it should also check my local gateway (let's say Server IP == 13.100.100.50 and Gateway IP == 13.100.100.1). From there Gateway IP can tell me to go find DNS Server at 13.1.1.1 and give me information about my internal network. I'm very confused about this path -- really not sure if I'm even making sense. I thought about trying to do this client side, but that doesn't make sense either, since that would add time to each and every client side setup. Plus, it just seems more logical to solve it on the server - I could either get rid of my routing table altogether or keep it - I think the only difference would be that internal traffic would also go through the server - probably an unnecessary burden on it. Any help out there? Or am I in over my head? Forward proxy or transparent proxy is also an option for me, although I have no idea how to set either of those up. (I know, Google is my friend.)

    Read the article

  • XAMPP pointing a file outside root folder

    - by Ravi
    I am using XAMPP for first time in Mac. Running out problems accessing other than root folder(htdocs).when I am placing my web application inside htdocs with default httpd.conf file it works when I try to point my web application url in httpd.conf it throws error I am aware that to modify the root folder I need to do changes to my XAMPP/etc/httpd.conf file With Default XAMPP MAC Settings, I am trying to change Server root,Document root and Directory in XAMPP/etc/httpd.conf file the following ServerRoot "/Users/ravi/Documents/Development/Backbone/backboneboilerplate" DocumentRoot "/Users/ravi/Documents/Development/Backbone/backboneboilerplate" <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/ravi/Documents/Development/Backbone/backboneboilerplate"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> its throwing error when trying to start XAMPP httpd: Syntax error on line 54 of /Applications/XAMPP/xamppfiles/etc/httpd.conf: Cannot load /Users/ravi/Documents/Development/Backbone/backboneboilerplate/modules/mod_authn_file.so into server: cannot create object file image or add library

    Read the article

  • Cisco 877 as PPPoA/PPPoE bridge (no routing) - how to make it listen to IP for management?

    - by Ingmar Hupp
    I have a Cisco 877 configured to bridge ADSL with PPPoA to PPPoE on Vlan1. This works fine, but in this mode the only way I can configure the Cisco is via the serial console. I'd like to have the Cisco also listen on an IP address so I can telnet/ssh into it. I think the right way to go about this would be via bridge irb, but I'm not sure exactly how (or if that's even the right direction). IOS is 12.4T and my current config (cut down to essentials) is: no ip routing no ip cef ! ! interface ATM0 no ip address no ip route-cache no atm ilmi-keepalive pvc 0/38 encapsulation aal5snap ! dsl operating-mode auto bridge-group 1 ! ! interface Vlan1 no ip address no ip route-cache bridge-group 1 Just setting an IP address on Vlan1 didn't have the desired effect, but surely this must be possible somehow (the Draytek Vigor 120 even does it by default).

    Read the article

  • How to configure ARR - Application Request Routing - to run both as web server and as as a gateway or proxy?

    - by Different111222
    I have this IIS7.5 with ARR installed and configured to reverse proxy to another server which is running IIS7. On that IIS7.5 I have applications and simple websites installed. Since configuring a farm, the local application doesn't run with this error message: 502 - Web server received an invalid response while acting as a gateway or proxy server. There is a problem with the page you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. When the Web server (while acting as a gateway or proxy) contacted the upstream content server, it received an invalid response from the content server. Is it even possible to run both application and routing (reverse proxy) at the same time?

    Read the article

  • Can I use static routing to allow me to use my public IP from my LAN?

    - by jnm2
    I would like to be able to use the same hostname to connect to my computer from my phone whether I'm at home or away. Currently I have to maintain duplicate entries for remote desktop, for instance. My router doesn't seem to have a NAT loopback option. I have two routers in fact, a cable modem which goes straight to my main router which does wireless. I can add to the static routing tables on each. Can I use this to loopback the public IP or do I need different routers?

    Read the article

  • How failover should work in IIS cluster with Application Request Routing?

    - by username
    I have set up several servers with IIS and connected them to the load balancer - server with installed IIS Application Request Routing. I have created a server farm and added two servers. Then I stopped IIS on the first server and tried to open my web site. It returned me an error: 502 - Web server received an invalid response while acting as a gateway or proxy server. But if instead of stopping IIS I shut down the first server, I'm getting a response from the next server which is online. The question is, what the expected behaviour should be for failover with ARR, should it switch me to the next server if IIS is stopped and server is online?

    Read the article

  • Which server software and configuration to retrieve from multiple POP servers, routing by address to correct user

    - by rolinger
    I am setting up a small email server on a Debian machine, which needs to pick up mail from a variety of POP servers and figure out who to send it to from the address, but I'm not clear what software will do what I need, although it seems like a very simple question! For example, I have 2 users, Alice and Bob. Any email to [email protected] ([email protected] etc) should go to Alice, all other mail to domain.example.com should go to Bob. Any email to [email protected] should go to Bob, and [email protected] should go to Alice Anything to *@bobs.place.com should go to Bob And so on... The idea is to pull together a load of mail addresses that have built up over the years and present them all as a single mailbox for Bob and another one for Alice. I'm expecting something like Postfix + Dovecot + Amavis + Spamassassin + Squirrelmail to fit the bill, but I'm not sure where the above comes in, can Postfix deal with it as a set of defined regular expressions, or is it a job for Amavis, or something else entirely? Do I need fetchmail in this mix, or is its role now included in one of the other components above. I think of it as content-filtering, but everything I read about content-filtering is focussed on detecting spam rather than routing email.

    Read the article

  • RRAS Problem routing to central site from RRAS server only?

    - by TomTom
    Given is an office connected to headquarters using a RRAS bridge (2 virtual machines using RRAS to route between the two networks). Naming: The office is A, the RRAS on A is a-lnk. THe headquartters is B, b-lnk the RRAS machine there. The VPN works perfectly - machines can ping and work between the sites. Domain controllers on both ends replicating, DFS working, remote desktop working. All in all... everything is fine. EXCEPT: a-lnk itself can not reach any machine in B. This would normally not be troublesome (noone ever does anything on a-lnk), but there are two exceptions: * a-lnk is supposed to get it's license from a KMS in B, so not being able to reach B means it is not prolonging. * a-lnk is supposed to pull updates from a WSUS in B - and not being able to reach B means - no updates. Given that thigns work (and security is a minor issue - A-lnk is not reachable from the internet as it is behing a NAT hardware anyway) this got not handled for months. I just wan to get this item ticked off now. Anyone an idea what this is? It definitely is not a "dns does not work" or "routing in general is bad" item, as any computer in A can connect to any computer in B, and the other way arount - only the RRAS computer itself seems to do something really awkward. Platform for both: 2008 R2 standard.

    Read the article

  • How to configure DD-WRT routing table when creating an isolated network segment for PCI C VT compliance

    - by tetranz
    I'm the volunteer support and system admin person at a small private school. We need to setup a PCI compliant Windows PC as a virtual terminal for credit card processing. I've read questionnaire SAQ C-VT and, to quote, this computer needs to be accessed: "via a computer that is isolated in a single location, and is not connected to other locations or systems within your environment (this can be achieved via a firewall or network segmentation to isolate the computer from other systems)" Our setup is as follows: DSL modem from ISP is setup to be a "transparent pipe" with no extra services. That goes into the WAN port of Linksys WRT54-GL running a DD-WRT. The LAN is 192.168.1.x. There are a couple of other WRT54-GL / DD-WRT devices. One is used as a wireless AP and another is a client bridge. To isolate the VT (virtual terminal) machine, I have another DD-WRT device. Its WAN is connected to a port on the 192.168.1.x LAN. The virtual terminal machine is connected to its LAN which is at 192.168.10.x. The SPI Firewall etc is turned on. It's basically the default DD-WRT gateway setup where the "ISP" is our own LAN. That's working. All incoming traffic to the VT machine is blocked, including from our own LAN. The VT can access the internet BUT, and here's the problem, it can also ping any of the computers on the 192.168.1.x LAN. I think I need to stop that. I'm guessing that I could do something with the Static Routing table in the VT machine's DD-WRT device. I need to route anything going to 192.168.1.x other than the gateway which is 192.168.1.1 to 0.0.0.0 or something like that. That's where I'm stuck at the end of my knowledge. Or ... do I need to get yet another DD-WRT so the network is "balanced". Maybe I need to have the internet from the DSL going into a DD-WRT which has only two devices on its LAN i.e., two other DD-WRTs, one for the main LAN and one for the VT. I think that would do but I'd like to avoid the extra cost and complexity if I don't need it. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Event Aggregator.. not getting a response, how to determine completion?

    - by Duncan_m
    I'm rewriting a vehicle tracking application, a google maps based thing.. The users are able to search for a vehicle by typing a few characters of the vehicles "callsign". My application is based around a sort of "event bus" within Backbone.. when a search occurs I send a message on the bus saying something like "does anyone match this?".. If a marker matches the search term it responds with a sort of "yes, I match!".. My challenge arises when no-one matches, I get no response.. it feels a little hacky to "wait a little while" and check if a response has been recieved.. The application is based around Backbone.js and using the Event Aggregator pattern described in the answer to this question on Stack Overflow: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/7708195/access-function-in-one-view-from-another-in-backbone-js Is there a well defined design pattern that might assist me here? Sending a request for a response and not getting any responses?

    Read the article

  • How do I correctly set up Application Request Routing in IIS7 to route SSL requests?

    - by Matthew Belk
    I have a 3-node web farm being managed by IIS7 and Application Request Routing. I have a folder hierarchy in my web app that needs to be secured via SSL. What is the best practice for getting ARR to correctly route these SSL requests? I have installed the same certificate on all web farm servers and the server running ARR. I have tried enabling and disabling the SSL Off-loading feature Thanks, Matthew

    Read the article

  • Hi, i want to implement a small routing table for my learning? I know it is implemented using radix/

    - by aks
    Hi, i want to implement a small routing table for my learning? I know it is implemented using radix/patricia tree in routers? Can someone give me an idea on how to go about implementing the same? The major issue i feel is storing IP ADDRESS. For example : 10.1.1.0 network next hop 20.1.1.1 10.1.0.0 network next hop 40.1.1.1 Can someone give me a declaration of the struct from which i can have an idea?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61  | Next Page >