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• Maven best practice for generating multiple jars with different/filtered classes ?

  - by jaguard

  I developed a Java utility library (similarly to Apache Commons) that I use in various projects. Additionally to fat clients I also use it for mobile clients (PDA with J9 Foundation profile). In time the library that started as a single project spread over multiple packages. As a result I end up with a lot of functionality but not really needed in all the projects. Since this library is also used inside some mobile/PDA projects I need a way to collect just the used classes and generate the actual specialized jars Currently in the projects that area using this library, I have Ant jar tasks that generate (from the utility project) the specialized jar files (ex: my-util-1.0-pda.jar, my-util-1.0-rcp.jar) using include/exclude jar task features. This is mostly needed due to the generated jar size constraints for the mobile projects. Migrating now to Maven I just wonder if there are any best practices to arrive to something similar so I consider the following scenarios: [1] - additionally to the main jar artifact (my-lib-1.0.jar) also generating inside my-lib project the separate/specialized artifacts using classifiers (ex: my-lib-1.0-pda.jar) using Maven Jar Plugin or Maven Assembly Plugin filtering/includes ... I'm not very comfortable with this approach since it pollute the library with library consumers demands (filters) [2] - Create additional Maven projects for all the specialized clients/projects, that will "wrap" the "my-lib" and generate the filtered jar artifacts (ex: my-lib-wrapper-pda-1.0 ...etc). As a result, these wrapper projects will include the filtering (to generate the filtered artifact) and will depend just on the "my-lib" project and the client projects will depend on my-lib-wrapper-xxx-1.0 instead of my-lib-1.0. This approach my look problematic since even that will let "my-lib" project intact (with no additional classifiers & artifacts), basically will double the number of projects since for every client project I'll have one just to collect the needed classes from the "my-util" library ("my-pda-app" project will need a "my-lib-wrapper-for-my-pda-app" project/dependency) [3] - Into the every client project that use the library (ex: my-pda-app) add some specialized Maven plugins to trim - out (when generating the final artifact/package) the un-needed classes (ex: maven-assembly-plugin, maven-jar-plugin, proguard-maven-plugin) What is the best practice for solving this kind of problems in the "Maven way" ?!

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• ROW_NUMBER() VS. DISTINCT

  - by ramadan2050

  Dear All, I have a problem with ROW_NUMBER() , if i used it with DISTINCT in the following Query I have 2 scenarios: 1- run this query direct : give me for example 400 record as a result 2- uncomment a line which start with [--Uncomment1--] : give me 700 record as a result it duplicated some records not all the records what I want is to solve this problem or to find any way to show a row counter beside each row, to make a [where rownumber between 1 and 30] --Uncomment2-- if I put the whole query in a table, and then filter it , it is work but it still so slow waiting for any feedback and I will appreciate that Thanks in advance SELECT * FROM (SELECT Distinct CRSTask.ID AS TaskID, CRSTask.WFLTaskID, --Uncomment1-- ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER By CRSTask.CreateDate asc ) AS RowNum , CRSTask.WFLStatus AS Task_WFLStatus, CRSTask.Name AS StepName, CRSTask.ModifiedDate AS Task_ModifyDate, CRSTask.SendingDate AS Task_SendingDate, CRSTask.ReceiveDate AS Task_ReceiveDate, CRSTask.CreateDate AS Task_CreateDate, CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.Task_CurrentSenderName, CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.Task_SenderName, CRS_INFO.ID AS CRS_ID, CRS_INFO.ReferenceNumber, CRS_INFO.CRSBeneficiaries, CRS_INFO.BarCodeNumber, ISNULL(dbo.CRS_FNC_GetTaskReceiver(CRSTask.ID), '') + ' ' + ISNULL (CRS_Organization.ArName, '') AS OrgName, CRS_Info.IncidentID, COALESCE(CRS_Subject.ArSubject, '??? ????') AS ArSubject, COALESCE(CRS_INFO.Subject, 'Blank Subject') AS CRS_Subject, CRS_INFO.Mode, CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.ReceiverID, CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.ReceiverType, CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.CC, Temp_Portal_Users_View.ID AS CRS_LockedByID, Temp_Portal_Users_View.ArabicName AS CRS_LockedByName, CRSDraft.ID AS DraftID, CRSDraft.Type AS DraftType, CASE WHEN CRS_Folder = 1 THEN Task_SenderName WHEN CRS_Folder = 2 THEN Task_SenderName WHEN CRS_Folder = 3 THEN Task_CurrentSenderName END AS SenderName, CRS_Task_Folder_Vw.CRS_Folder, CRS_INFO.Status, CRS_INFO.CRS_Type, CRS_Type.arName AS CRS_Type_Name FROM CRS_Task_Folder_Vw LEFT OUTER JOIN CRSTask ON CRSTask.ID = CRS_Task_Folder_Vw.TaskID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_INFO ON CRS_INFO.ID = CRSTask.CRSID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_Subject ON COALESCE( SUBSTRING( CRS_INFO.Subject, CHARINDEX('_', CRS_INFO.Subject) + 1, LEN(CRS_INFO.Subject) ), 'Blank Subject' ) = CRS_Subject.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRSInfoAttribute ON CRS_INFO.ID = CRSInfoAttribute.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_Organization ON CRS_Organization.ID = CRSInfoAttribute.SourceID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_Type ON CRS_INFO.CRS_Type = CRS_Type.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_Way ON CRS_INFO.CRS_Send_Way = CRS_Way.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_Priority ON CRS_INFO.CRS_Priority_ID = CRS_Priority.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_SecurityLevel ON CRS_INFO.SecurityLevelID = CRS_SecurityLevel.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Portal_Users_View ON Portal_Users_View.ID = CRS_INFO.CRS_Initiator LEFT OUTER JOIN AD_DOC_TBL ON CRS_INFO.DocumentID = AD_DOC_TBL.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRSTask AS Temp_CRSTask ON CRSTask.ParentTask = Temp_CRSTask.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Portal_Users_View AS Temp_Portal_Users_View ON Temp_Portal_Users_View.ID = AD_DOC_TBL.Lock_User_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Portal_Users_View AS Temp1_Portal_Users_View ON Temp1_Portal_Users_View.ID = CRS_INFO.ClosedBy LEFT OUTER JOIN CRSDraft ON CRSTask.ID = CRSDraft.TaskID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw ON CRSTask.ID = CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.TaskID --LEFT OUTER JOIN CRSTaskReceiverUsers ON CRSTask.ID = CRSTaskReceiverUsers.CRSTaskID AND CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.ReceiverID = CRSTaskReceiverUsers.ReceiverID LEFT OUTER JOIN CRSTaskReceiverUserProfile ON CRSTask.ID = CRSTaskReceiverUserProfile.TaskID WHERE Crs_Info.SUBJECT <> 'Blank Subject' AND (CRS_INFO.Subject NOT LIKE '%null%') AND CRS_Info.IsDeleted <> 1 /* AND CRSTask.WFLStatus <> 6 AND CRSTask.WFLStatus <> 8 */ AND ( ( CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.ReceiverID IN (1, 29) AND CRS_Task_Recipient_Vw.ReceiverType IN (1, 3, 4) ) ) AND 1 = 1 )Codes --Uncomment2-- WHERE Codes.RowNum BETWEEN 1 AND 30 ORDER BY Codes.Task_CreateDate ASC

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• How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

  - by Jiho Han

  I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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• Unique element ID, even if element doesn't have one

  - by Robert J. Walker

  I'm writing a GreaseMonkey script where I'm iterating through a bunch of elements. For each element, I need a string ID that I can use to reference that element later. The element itself doesn't have an id attribute, and I can't modify the original document to give it one (although I can make DOM changes in my script). I can't store the references in my script because when I need them, the GreaseMonkey script itself will have gone out of scope. Is there some way to get at an "internal" ID that the browser uses, for example? A Firefox-only solution is fine; a cross-browser solution that could be applied in other scenarios would be awesome. Edit: If the GreaseMonkey script is out of scope, how are you referencing the elements later? They GreaseMonkey script is adding events to DOM objects. I can't store the references in an array or some other similar mechanism because when the event fires, the array will be gone because the GreaseMonkey script will have gone out of scope. So the event needs some way to know about the element reference that the script had when the event was attached. And the element in question is not the one to which it is attached. Can't you just use a custom property on the element? Yes, but the problem is on the lookup. I'd have to resort to iterating through all the elements looking for the one that has that custom property set to the desired id. That would work, sure, but in large documents it could be very time consuming. I'm looking for something where the browser can do the lookup grunt work. Wait, can you or can you not modify the document? I can't modify the source document, but I can make DOM changes in the script. I'll clarify in the question. Can you not use closures? Closuses did turn out to work, although I initially thought they wouldn't. See my later post. It sounds like the answer to the question: "Is there some internal browser ID I could use?" is "No."

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• Temporarily impersonate and enable privileges?

  - by Luke

  We maintain a DLL that does a lot of system-related things; traversing the file system, registry, etc. The callers of this DLL may or may not be using impersonation. In order to better support all possible scenarios I'm trying to modify it to be smarter. I'll use the example of deleting a file. Currently we just call DeleteFile(), and if that fails that's the end of that. I've come up with the following: BOOL TryReallyHardToDeleteFile(LPCTSTR lpFileName) { // 1. caller without privilege BOOL bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); DWORD dwError = GetLastError(); if(!bSuccess && dwError == ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) { // failed with access denied; try with privilege DWORD dwOldRestorePrivilege = 0; BOOL bHasRestorePrivilege = SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED, &dwOldRestorePrivilege); if(bHasRestorePrivilege) { // 2. caller with privilege bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); dwError = GetLastError(); SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, dwOldRestorePrivilege, NULL); } if(!bSuccess && dwError == ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) { // failed with access denied; if caller is impersonating then try as process HANDLE hToken = NULL; if(OpenThreadToken(GetCurrentThread(), TOKEN_QUERY | TOKEN_IMPERSONATE, TRUE, &hToken)) { if(RevertToSelf()) { // 3. process without privilege bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); dwError = GetLastError(); if(!bSuccess && dwError == ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) { // failed with access denied; try with privilege bHasRestorePrivilege = SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED, &dwOldRestorePrivilege); if(bHasRestorePrivilege) { // 4. process with privilege bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); dwError = GetLastError(); SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, dwOldRestorePrivilege, NULL); } } SetThreadToken(NULL, hToken); } CloseHandle(hToken); hToken = NULL; } } } if(!bSuccess) { SetLastError(dwError); } return bSuccess; } So first it tries as the caller. If that fails with access denied, it temporarily enables privileges in the caller's token and tries again. If that fails with access denied and the caller is impersonating, it temporarily unimpersonates and tries again. If that fails with access denied, it temporarily enables privileges in the process token and tries again. I think this should handle pretty much any situation, but I was wondering if there was a better way to achieve this? There are a lot of operations that we would potentially want to use this method (i.e. pretty much any operation that accesses securable objects).

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• Optimizing spacing of mesh containing a given set of points

  - by Feynman

  I tried to summarize the this as best as possible in the title. I am writing an initial value problem solver in the most general way possible. I start with an arbitrary number of initial values at arbitrary locations (inside a boundary.) The first part of my program creates a mesh/grid (I am not sure which is the correct nuance), with N points total, that contains all the initial values. My goal is to optimize the mesh such that the spacing is as uniform as possible. My solver seems to work half decently (it needs some more obscure debugging that is not relevant here.) I am starting with one dimension. I intend to generalize the algorithm to an arbitrary number of dimensions once I get it working consistently. I am writing my code in fortran, but feel free to reply with pseudocode or the language of your choice. Allow me to elaborate with an example: Say I am working on a closed interval [1,10] xmin=1 xmax=10 Say I have 3 initial points: xmin, 5 and xmax num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5,xmax] //my arrays start at 1. Assume "known" starts sorted I store my mesh/grid points in an array called coord. Say I want 10 points total in my mesh/grid. N=10 coord(10) Remember, all this is arbitrary--except the variable names of course. The algorithm should set coord to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} Now for a less trivial example: num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5.5,xmax or just num_ivc=1 known(num_ivc)=[5.5] Now, would you have 5 evenly spaced points on the interval [1, 5.5] and 5 evenly spaced points on the interval (5.5, 10]? But there is more space between 1 and 5.5 than between 5.5 and 10. So would you have 6 points on [1, 5.5] followed by 4 on (5.5 to 10]. The key is to minimize the difference in spacing. I have been working on this for 2 days straight and I can assure you it is a lot trickier than it sounds. I have written code that only works if N is large only works if N is small only works if it the known points are close together only works if it the known points are far apart only works if at least one of the known points is near a boundary only works if none of the known points are near a boundary So as you can see, I have coded the gamut of almost-solutions. I cannot figure out a way to get it to perform equally well in all possible scenarios (that is, create the optimum spacing.)

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• Inference engine to calculate matching set according to internal rules

  - by Zecrates

  I have a set of objects with attributes and a bunch of rules that, when applied to the set of objects, provides a subset of those objects. To make this easier to understand I'll provide a concrete example. My objects are persons and each has three attributes: country of origin, gender and age group (all attributes are discrete). I have a bunch of rules, like "all males from the US", which correspond with subsets of this larger set of objects. I'm looking for either an existing Java "inference engine" or something similar, which will be able to map from the rules to a subset of persons, or advice on how to go about creating my own. I have read up on rule engines, but that term seems to be exclusively used for expert systems that externalize the business rules, and usually doesn't include any advanced form of inferencing. Here are some examples of the more complex scenarios I have to deal with: I need the conjunction of rules. So when presented with both "include all males" and "exclude all US persons in the 10 - 20 age group," I'm only interested in the males outside of the US, and the males within the US that are outside the 10 - 20 age group. Rules may have different priorities (explicitly defined). So a rule saying "exclude all males" will override a rule saying "include all US males." Rules may be conflicting. So I could have both an "include all males" and an "exclude all males" in which case the priorities will have to settle the issue. Rules are symmetric. So "include all males" is equivalent to "exclude all females." Rules (or rather subsets) may have meta rules (explicitly defined) associated with them. These meta rules will have to be applied in any case that the original rule is applied, or if the subset is reached via inferencing. So if a meta rule of "exclude the US" is attached to the rule "include all males", and I provide the engine with the rule "exclude all females," it should be able to inference that the "exclude all females" subset is equivalent to the "include all males" subset and as such apply the "exclude the US" rule additionally. I can in all likelihood live without item 5, but I do need all the other properties mentioned. Both my rules and objects are stored in a database and may be updated at any stage, so I'd need to instantiate the 'inference engine' when needed and destroy it afterward.

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• Impersonation on Windows 2000 to Windows XP Leaves Connections Open

  - by Tallek

  I'm running on a Windows 2000 Pro SP4 box (off domain) and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box (on domain). I'm using code very similar to the WindowsImpersonationContextFacade in the question posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/879704/how-can-i-temporarily-impersonate-a-user-to-open-a-file. I am using impersonation to remotely start and stop windows services as well as access network shares (for some automated integration tests). To get this working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. Everything worked beautifully ( Windows XP on domain to Windows XP on domain, Windows XP on domain to Windows Server 2003 off domain, and even Windows XP on domain to Windows 2000 off domain). The one issue was running on Windows 2000 Pro SP4 off the domain and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box running on the domain. To get the Windows 2000 piece working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50 and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. This seemed to get me 95% of the way there, i could now impersonate the local user on the XP box and start/stop services as well as access a network share using the impersonated credentials. I'm running in to one problem though, calling Undo impersonation and closing the token handle seems to leave the connection to the remote box open. After about 10 or so impersonation calls, further impersonation attempts will fail with an error saying something about too many connections are currently open. If i look at the Computer Management - System Tools - Shared Folders - Sessions on my remote Windows XP box, i can see about 10 sessions open to the Windows 2000 box. I can manually close these (i think they may eventually close themselves, but not very quickly) and then impersonation begins working again few more times. This open session issue doesn't seem to be a problem in any of my other test scenarios, just when running locally on a Windows 2000 box. Any ideas? Edit 1: After some more testing and trying out many different things, this seems to be an issue with open sessions not being reused. On Windows 2000 only, every call to LogonUser to get a token and then using that token to impersonate seems to result in a new session being created. I'm guessing Windows XP & Windows Server 2003 are reusing open sessions since i don't seem to be having any issues with them. If I call LogonUser once, then cache the token, I seem to be able to make as many calls to impersonate as I need using the cached token without running in to the "too many connections" issue. This seems like an ugly work around though since i can't call CloseHandle() on my token every time i perform impersonation. Anybody have any thoughts or ideas, or am i stuck with this ugly hack? Thanks

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• How to catch 'exceptions' for out of order execution in Workflow Foundation 4?

  - by Alex Key

  Hi, I am attempting to model a worklfow using a "WCF Workflow Service" in .net / vs 2010 that needs to handle out of order execution gracefully (but not allow it - if thath makes sense!?) For example I have 2 receive activities one called Initialize and the other called GetValue inside a FlowChart. In most cases Initialize should be called first and GetValue after (as modled in the flow chart). However if GetValue is executed before Initialize I do not want to return an "out of order" exception (although when I look at the WCF test client, I can't actually see an exception). But instead a custom exception saying something like "you must initialize first". In theory I could model this with lots of parallel activities and conditions to check if Initialized / Running / Terminated etc. But the business process I am modelling if very very similar to a state machine... except it must handle people executing things in the wrong order. Ideally I would like to catch the "out of order" exception (thought I don't think it's really an exception as such), check the 'exception' to see which function was attempted to run and then handle it. I have done some research around enabling AllowBufferedReceive. However I don't want to be able to execute out of order (I don't think), but instead give a detailed response if it does happen. I've looked at the new beta state machine template for WF 4 - but i'm not sure if it does what i'm after? I'm not sure if I have the wrong end of the stick, so any help would be greatly appreciated. [EDIT] To help clarify... Sorry it's a tricky one to explain. The standard I am trying to implement (the e-learning standard SCORM RTE) is structured like a state machine i.e. certain functions can only be executed in certain states. However the standard specifies that if the calling clients tries to execute a function that it is not meant to, then a warning should be issued... for example "you cannot use GetValue(), because you have not yet Initialized". Ideally I'd like to structure the workflow as the theoretical state machine and not need to have to use multiple if/else's to handle all the scenarios where something could be executed out-of-order. I'd like to catch a out-of-order exception (but I don't think there is such an exception - as it's not in the debugger) and rethrow it.

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• IF Statement has strange behavior

  - by BSchlinker

  I've developed a 'custom' cout, so that I can display text to console and also print it to a log file. This cout class is passed a different integer on initialization, with the integer representing the verbosity level of the message. If the current verbosity level is greater then or equal to the verbosity level of the message, the message should print. The problem is, I have messages printing even when the current verbosity level is too low. I went ahead and debugged it, expecting to find the problem. Instead, I found multiple scenarios where my if statements are not working as expected. The statement if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) will sometimes proceed even if ilralevel_set is LESS then ilralevel_passed. You can see this behavior in the following picture (my apologizes for using Twitpic) http://twitpic.com/1xtx4g/full. Notice how ilralevel_set is equal to zero, and ilralevel_passed is equal to one. Yet, the if statement has returned true and is now moving forward to pass the line to cout. I've never seen this type of behavior before and I'm not exactly sure how to proceed debugging it. I'm not able to isolate the behavior either -- it only occurs in certain parts of my program. Any suggestions are appreciated as always. // Here is an example use of the function: // ilra_status << setfill('0') << setw(2) << dispatchtime.tm_sec << endl; // ilra_warning << "Dispatch time (seconds): " << mktime(&dispatchtime) << endl; // Here is the 'custom' cout function: #ifndef ILRA_H_ #define ILRA_H_ // System libraries #include <iostream> #include <ostream> #include <sstream> #include <iomanip> // Definitions #define ilra_talk ilra(__FUNCTION__,0) #define ilra_update ilra(__FUNCTION__,0) #define ilra_error ilra(__FUNCTION__,1) #define ilra_warning ilra(__FUNCTION__,2) #define ilra_status ilra(__FUNCTION__,3) // Statics static int ilralevel_set = 0; static int ilralevel_passed; // Classes class ilra { public: // constructor / destructor ilra(const std::string &funcName, int toset) { ilralevel_passed = toset; } ~ilra(){}; // enable / disable irla functions static void ilra_verbose_level(int toset){ ilralevel_set = toset; } // output template <class T> ilra &operator<<(const T &v) { if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) std::cout << v; return *this; } ilra &operator<<(std::ostream&(*f)(std::ostream&)) { if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) std::cout << *f; return *this; } }; // end of the class #endif /* ILRA_H_ */

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• IQueryable and lazy loading

  - by Nelson

  I'm having a hard time determining the best way to handle this... With Entity Framework (and L2S), LINQ queries return IQueryable. I have read various opinions on whether the DAL/BLL should return IQueryable, IEnumerable or IList. Assuming we go with IList, then the query is run immediately and that control is not passed on to the next layer. This makes it easier to unit test, etc. You lose the ability to refine the query at higher levels, but you could simply create another method that allows you to refine the query and still return IList. And there are many more pros/cons. So far so good. Now comes Entity Framework and lazy loading. I am using POCO objects with proxies in .NET 4/VS 2010. In the presentation layer I do: foreach (Order order in bll.GetOrders()) { foreach (OrderLine orderLine in order.OrderLines) { // Do something } } In this case, GetOrders() returns IList so it executes immediately before returning to the PL. But in the next foreach, you have lazy loading which executes multiple SQL queries as it gets all the OrderLines. So basically, the PL is running SQL queries "on demand" in the wrong layer. Is there any sensible way to avoid this? I could turn lazy loading off, but then what's the point of having this "feature" that everyone was complaining EF1 didn't have? And I'll admit it is very useful in many scenarios. So I see several options: Somehow remove all associations in the entities and add methods to return them. This goes against the default EF behavior/code generation and makes it harder to do some composite (multiple entity) LINQ queries. It seems like a step backwards. I vote no. If we have lazy loading anyway which makes it hard to unit test, then go all the way and return IQueryable. You'll have more control farther up the layers. I still don't think this is a good option because IQueryable ties you to L2S, L2E, or your own full implementation of IQueryable. Lazy loading may run queries "on demand", but doesn't tie you to any specific interface. I vote no. Turn off lazy loading. You'll have to handle your associations manually. This could be with eager loading's .Include(). I vote yes in some specific cases. Keep IList and lazy loading. I vote yes in many cases, only due to the troubles with the others. Any other options or suggestions? I haven't found an option that really convinces me.

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• LINQ Query returns false when it should be true.

  - by deliriousDev

  I have the following LINQ query written by a former developer and it isn't working when it should. public bool IsAvailable(Appointment appointment) { var appointments = _appointmentRepository.Get; var shifts = _scheduleRepository.Get; var city = _customerRepository.Find(appointment.CustomerId).City ?? appointment.Customer.City; const int durationHour = 1; DateTime scheduledEndDate = appointment.ScheduledTime.Add(new TimeSpan(durationHour, 0, 0)); var inWorkingHours = shifts .Where(x => //Check if any available working hours x.Employee.City == city && x.ShiftStart <= appointment.ScheduledTime && x.ShiftEnd >= scheduledEndDate && //check if not booked yet !appointments .Where(a => (appointment.Id == 0 || a.Id != appointment.Id) && a.Employee.Id == x.Employee.Id && ( (a.ScheduledTime <= appointment.ScheduledTime && appointment.ScheduledTime <= EntityFunctions.AddHours(a.ScheduledTime, durationHour)) || (a.ScheduledTime <= scheduledEndDate && scheduledEndDate <= EntityFunctions.AddHours(a.ScheduledTime, durationHour)) )) .Select(a => a.Employee.Id) .Contains(x.Employee.Id) ); if (inWorkingHours.Any()) { var assignedEmployee = inWorkingHours.FirstOrDefault().Employee; appointment.EmployeeId = assignedEmployee.Id; appointment.Employee = assignedEmployee; return true; } return false; } The query is suppose to handle the following scenarios Given An Appointment With A ScheduledTime Between A ShiftStart and ShiftEnd time But Does not match any employees in same city - (Return true, Assign as "Unassigned") Given An Appointment With A ScheduledTime Between A ShiftStart and ShiftEnd time AND Employee for that shift is in the same city as the customer (Return True AND Assign to the employee) If the customer is NOT in the same city as an employee we assign the appointment as "Unassigned" as along as the scheduledTime is within an of the employees shift start/end times If the customer is in the same city as an employee we assign the appointment to one of the employees (firstOrdefault) and occupy that timeslot. Appointments CAN NOT overlap (Assigned Ones). Unassigned can't overlap each other. This query use to work (I've been told). But now it doesn't and I have tried refactoring it and various other paths with no luck. I am now on week two and just don't know where the issue in the query is or how to write it. Let me know if I need to post anything further. I have verified appointments, shifts, city all populate with valid data so the issue doesn't appear to be with null or missing data.

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• Reducer getting fewer records than expected

  - by sathishs

  We have a scenario of generating unique key for every single row in a file. we have a timestamp column but the are multiple rows available for a same timestamp in few scenarios. We decided unique values to be timestamp appended with their respective count as mentioned in the below program. Mapper will just emit the timestamp as key and the entire row as its value, and in reducer the key is generated. Problem is Map outputs about 236 rows, of which only 230 records are fed as an input for reducer which outputs the same 230 records. public class UniqueKeyGenerator extends Configured implements Tool { private static final String SEPERATOR = "\t"; private static final int TIME_INDEX = 10; private static final String COUNT_FORMAT_DIGITS = "%010d"; public static class Map extends Mapper<LongWritable, Text, Text, Text> { @Override protected void map(LongWritable key, Text row, Context context) throws IOException, InterruptedException { String input = row.toString(); String[] vals = input.split(SEPERATOR); if (vals != null && vals.length >= TIME_INDEX) { context.write(new Text(vals[TIME_INDEX - 1]), row); } } } public static class Reduce extends Reducer<Text, Text, NullWritable, Text> { @Override protected void reduce(Text eventTimeKey, Iterable<Text> timeGroupedRows, Context context) throws IOException, InterruptedException { int cnt = 1; final String eventTime = eventTimeKey.toString(); for (Text val : timeGroupedRows) { final String res = SEPERATOR.concat(getDate( Long.valueOf(eventTime)).concat( String.format(COUNT_FORMAT_DIGITS, cnt))); val.append(res.getBytes(), 0, res.length()); cnt++; context.write(NullWritable.get(), val); } } } public static String getDate(long time) { SimpleDateFormat utcSdf = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyyMMddhhmmss"); utcSdf.setTimeZone(TimeZone.getTimeZone("America/Los_Angeles")); return utcSdf.format(new Date(time)); } public int run(String[] args) throws Exception { conf(args); return 0; } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { conf(args); } private static void conf(String[] args) throws IOException, InterruptedException, ClassNotFoundException { Configuration conf = new Configuration(); Job job = new Job(conf, "uniquekeygen"); job.setJarByClass(UniqueKeyGenerator.class); job.setOutputKeyClass(Text.class); job.setOutputValueClass(Text.class); job.setMapperClass(Map.class); job.setReducerClass(Reduce.class); job.setInputFormatClass(TextInputFormat.class); job.setOutputFormatClass(TextOutputFormat.class); // job.setNumReduceTasks(400); FileInputFormat.addInputPath(job, new Path(args[0])); FileOutputFormat.setOutputPath(job, new Path(args[1])); job.waitForCompletion(true); } } It is consistent for higher no of lines and the difference is as huge as 208969 records for an input of 20855982 lines. what might be the reason for reduced inputs to reducer?

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• Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

  - by tbehunin

  When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

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• How to perform add/update of a model object that contains EntitySet

  - by David Liddle

  I have a similar concept to the SO questions/tags scenario however am trying to decide the best way of implementation. Tables Questions, QuestionTags and Tags Questions QuestionTags Tags --------- ------------ ---- QID QID TID QName TID TName When adding/updating a question I have 2 textboxes. The important part is a single textbox that allows users to enter in multiple Tags separated by spaces. I am using Linq2Sql so the Questions model has an EntitySet of QuestionTags with then link to Tags. My question is regarding the adding/updating of Questions (part 1), and also how to best show QuestionTags for a Question (part 2). Part 1 Before performing an add/update, my service layer needs to deal with 3 scenarios before passing to their respective repositories. Insert Tags that do not already exist Insert/Update Question Insert QuestionTags - when updating need to remove existing QuestionTags Here is my code below however started to get into a bit of a muddle. I've created extension methods on my repositories to get Tags WithNames etc. public void Add(Question q, string tags) { var tagList = tags.Split(new string[] { " " }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries).ToList(); using (DB.TransactionScope ts = new DB.TransactionScope()) { var existingTags = TagsRepository.Get() .WithName(tagList) .ToList(); var newTags = (from t in tagList select new Tag { TName = t }).Except(existingTags, new TagsComparer()).ToList(); TagsRepository.Add(newTags); //need to insert QuestionTags QuestionsRepository.Add(q); ts.Complete(); } } Part 2 My second question is, when displaying a list of Questions how is it best to show their QuestionTags? For example, I have an Index view that shows a list of Questions in a table. One of the columns shows an image and when the user hovers over it shows the list of Tags. My current implementation is to create a custom ViewModel and show a List of QuestionIndexViewModel in the View. QuestionIndexViewModel { Question Question { get; set; } string Tags { get; set; } } However, this seems a bit clumsy and quite a few DB calls. public ViewResult Index() { var model= new List<QuestionIndexViewModel>(); //make a call to get a list of questions //foreach question make a call to get their QuestionTags, //to be able to get their Tag names and then join them //to form a single string. return View(model); } Also, just for test purposes using SQL Profiler, I decided to iterate through the QuestionTags entity set of a Question in my ViewModel however nothing was picked up in Profiler? What would be the reason for this?

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• apply style to range of text with javascript in uiwebview

  - by drawnonward

  I am displaying some simple styled text as html in a UIWebView on iPhone. It is basically a series of paragraphs with the occasional strong or emphasized phrase. At runtime I need to apply styles to ranges of text. There are a few similar scenarios, one of which is highlighting search results. If the user has searched for "something" I would like to change the background color behind occurrences of the word, then later restore the original background. Is it possible to apply styles to ranges of text using javascript? A key part of this is also being able to unset the styles. There seem to be two likely paths to follow. One would be modifying some html in Objective-C and passing it through javascript as the new innerHTML of some container. The other would be to use javascript to directly manipulate DOM nodes. I could manipulate html, but that sounds tedious in Objective-C so I would rather manipulate the DOM if that is a reasonable approach. I am not that familiar with javascript and DOM so I do not know if it is a reasonable approach. I wrote some routines to translate between text ranges and node ranges with offsets. So if I start with text range 100-200 and that starts in one paragraph and ends in a third, I can get the text nodes and the offsets within the nodes that represent the given text range. I just need a way to split a text node at an offset in the text. Currently I just apply styles to the paragraphs containing the text range. A few notes: straight javascript please, no external frameworks like jquery. the changes never need to be written to disk. the changes should be undoable or at least removable. the styles to apply already exist in a css file. it needs to work in iPhone 3.0 and forward. all the source files are shipped with the app. please be verbose. Thanks for any suggestions.

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• MySQL - Calculating fields on the fly vs storing calculated data

  - by Christian Varga

  Hi Everyone, I apologise if this has been asked before, but I can't seem to find an answer to a question that I have about calculating on the fly vs storing fields in a database. I read a few articles that suggested it was preferable to calculate when you can, but I would just like to know if that still applies to the following 2 examples. Example 1. Say you are storing data relating to a car. You store the fuel tank size in litres, and how many litres it uses per 100km. You also want to know how many KMs it can travel, which can be calculated from the tank size and economy. I see 2 ways of doing this: When a car is added or updated, calculate the amount of KMs and store this as a static field in the database. Every time a car is accessed, calculate the amount of KMs on the fly. Because the cars economy/tank size doesn't change (although it could be edited), the KMs is a pretty static value. I don't see why we would calculate it every single time the car is accessed. Wouldn't this waste cpu time as opposed to simply storing it in a separate field in the database and calculating only when a car is added or updated? My next example, which is almost an entirely different question (but on the same topic), relates to counting children. Let's say we have a app which has categories and items. We have a view where we display all the categories, and a count of all the items inside each category. Again, I'm wondering what's better. To perform a MySQL query to count all the items in each category every single time the page is accessed? Or store the count in a field in the categories table and update when an item is added / deleted? I know it is redundant to store anything that can be calculated, but I worry that calculating fields or counting records might be slow as opposed to storing the data in a field. If it's not then please let me know, I just want to learn about when to use either method. On a small scale I guess it wouldn't matter either way, but apps like Facebook, would they really count the amount of friends you have every time someone views your profile or would they just store it as a field? I'd appreciate any responses to both of these scenarios, and any resource that might explain the benefits of calculating vs storing. Thanks in advance, Christian

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• Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

  - by Guillaume Schuermans

  Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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• Representing xml through a single class

  - by Charles

  I am trying to abstract away the difficulties of configuring an application that we use. This application takes a xml configuration file and it can be a bit bothersome to manually edit this file, especially when we are trying to setup some automatic testing scenarios. I am finding that reading xml is nice, pretty easy, you get a network of element nodes that you can just go through and build your structures quite nicely. However I am slowly finding that the reverse is not quite so nice. I want to be able to build a xml configuration file through a single easy to use interface and because xml is composed of a system of nodes I am having a lot of struggle trying to maintain the 'easy' part. Does anyone know of any examples or samples that easily and intuitively build xml files without declaring a bunch of element type classes and expect the user to build the network themselves? For example if my desired xml output is like so <cook version="1.1"> <recipe name="chocolate chip cookie"> <ingredients> <ingredient name="flour" amount="2" units="cups"/> <ingredient name="eggs" amount="2" units="" /> <ingredient name="cooking chocolate" amount="5" units="cups" /> </ingredients> <directions> <direction name="step 1">Preheat oven</direction> <direction name="step 2">Mix flour, egg, and chocolate</direction> <direction name="step 2">bake</direction> </directions> </recipe> <recipe name="hot dog"> ... How would I go about designing a class to build that network of elements and make one easy to use interface for creating recipes? Right now I have a recipe object, an ingredient object, and a direction object. The user must make each one, set the attributes in the class and attach them to the root object which assembles the xml elements and outputs the formatted xml. Its not very pretty and I just know there has to be a better way. I am using python so bonus points for pythonic solutions

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• Effective Data Validation

  - by John Conde

  What's an effective way to handle data validation, say, from a form submission? Originally I had a bunch of if statements that checked each value and collected invalid values in an array for later retrieval (and listing). // Store errors here $errors = array(); // Hypothetical check if a string is alphanumeric if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $fieldvalue)) { $errors[$fieldname] = 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'; } // etc... What I did next was create a class that handles various data validation scenarios and store the results in an internal array. After data validation was complete I would check to see if any errors occurred and handle accordingly: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more methods here public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Validate credit card number } // more methods here public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue1, $fieldname1, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validate->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Naturally it didn't take long before this class became bloated with the virtually unlimited types of data to be validated. What I'm doing now is using decorators to separate the different types of data into their own classes and call them only when needed leaving generic validations (i.e. isAlphaNumeric()) in the base class: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more generic methods here public function setError($field, $msg = '') { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } class ValidationCreditCard { protected $validate; public function __construct(Validation $validate) { $this->validate = $validate; } public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Do validation // ... // if there is an error $this->validate->setError($field, $msg); } // more methods here } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue, $fieldname, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validateCC = new ValidationCreditCard($validate); $validateCC->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Am I on the right track? Or did I just complicate data validation more then I needed to?

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• Hibernate - EhCache - Which region to Cache associations/sets/collections ??

  - by lifeisnotfair

  Hi all, I am a newcomer to hibernate. It would be great if someone could comment over the following query that i have: Say i have a parent class and each parent has multiple children. So the mapping file of parent class would be something like: parent.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.parent" table="parent" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <set name="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent.children" /> <key column="parent_id"/> <one-to-many class="org.demo.children"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> children.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.children" table="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.children"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <many-to-one name="parent_id" column="parent_id" type="integer" length="10" not-null="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So for the set children, should we specify the region org.demo.parent.children where it should cache the association or should we use the cache region of org.demo.children where the children would be getting cached. I am using EHCache as the 2nd level cache provider. I tried to search for the answer to this question but couldnt find any answer in this direction. It makes more sense to use org.demo.children but I dont know in which scenarios one should use a separate cache region for associations/sets/collections as in the above case. Kindly provide your inputs also let me know if I am not clear in my question. Thanks all.

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• How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

  - by Nathan Ridley

  I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

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• Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

  - by MJB

  I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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• Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

  - by J M 4

  I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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• Can I use the [] operator in C++ to create virtual arrays

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a large code base, originally C ported to C++ many years ago, that is operating on a number of large arrays of spatial data. These arrays contain structs representing point and triangle entities that represent surface models. I need to refactor the code such that the specific way these entities are stored internally varies for specific scenarios. For example if the points lie on a regular flat grid, I don't need to store the X and Y coordinates, as they can be calculated on the fly, as can the triangles. Similarly, I want to take advantage of out of core tools such as STXXL for storage. The simplest way of doing this is replacing array access with put and get type functions, e.g. point[i].x = XV; becomes Point p = GetPoint(i); p.x = XV; PutPoint(i,p); As you can imagine, this is a very tedious refactor on a large code base, prone to all sorts of errors en route. What I'd like to do is write a class that mimics the array by overloading the [] operator. As the arrays already live on the heap, and move around with reallocs, the code already assumes that references into the array such as point *p = point + i; may not be used. Is this class feasible to write? For example writing the methods below in terms of the [] operator; void MyClass::PutPoint(int Index, Point p) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); StoreGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs,p.z); } else m_PointArray[Index] = p; } } Point MyClass::GetPoint(int Index) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); return GetGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs); // GetGridPoint returns Point } else return m_PointArray[Index]; } } My concern is that all the array classes I've seen tend to pass by reference, whereas I think I'll have to pass structs by value. I think it should work put other than performance, can anyone see any major pitfalls with this approach. n.b. the reason I have to pass by value is to get point[a].z = point[b].z + point[c].z to work correctly where the underlying storage type varies.

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