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  • How do I MVVM-ize this MouseDown code in my WPF 3D app?

    - by DanM
    In my view, I have: <UserControl x:Class ... MouseDown="UserControl_MouseDown"> <Viewport3D Name="Viewport" Grid.Column="0"> ... </Viewport3D > </UserControl> In my code-behind, I have: private void UserControl_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ((MapPanelViewModel)DataContext).OnMouseDown(e, Viewport); } And in my view-model, I have: public void OnMouseDown(MouseEventArgs e, Viewport3D viewport) { var range = new LineRange(); var isValid = ViewportInfo.Point2DtoPoint3D(viewport, e.GetPosition(viewport), out range); if (!isValid) MouseCoordinates = "(no data)"; else { var point3D = range.PointFromZ(0); var point = ViewportInfo.Point3DtoPoint2D(viewport, point3D); MouseCoordinates = e.GetPosition(viewport).ToString() + "\n" + point3D + "\n" + point; } } I really don't have a good sense of how to handle mouse events with MVVM. I always just end up putting them in the code-behind and casting the DataContext as SomeViewModel, then passing the MouseEventArgs on to a handler in my view-model. That's bad enough already, but in this case, I'm actually passing in a control (a Viewport3D), which is necessary for translating coordinates between 2D and 3D. Any suggestions on how to make this more in tune with MVVM?

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  • Adding visible "Markers" to represent Geopoints to a MapView using ItemizedOverlay in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hello, I am building an application which stores GPS locations in a SQLite database and then outputs the data onto a MapView using an Overlay by drawing a red line between the points. I want to be able to show graphical markers (images) for each of these points as well as the red line. My code is as follows: public class MyOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay { // private Projection projection; private Paint linePaint; private Vector points; public MyOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker) { super(defaultMarker); points = new Vector<GeoPoint>(); //set colour, stroke width etc. linePaint = new Paint(); linePaint.setARGB(255, 255, 0, 0); linePaint.setStrokeWidth(3); linePaint.setDither(true); linePaint.setStyle(Style.FILL); linePaint.setAntiAlias(true); linePaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); linePaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); } public void addPoint(GeoPoint point) { populate(); points.addElement(point); } //public void setProjection(Projection projection) { // this.projection = projection; // } public void draw(Canvas canvas, MapView view, boolean shadow) { populate(); int size = points.size(); Point lastPoint = new Point(); if(size == 0) return; view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(0), lastPoint); Point point = new Point(); for(int i = 1; i<size; i++){ view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(i), point); canvas.drawLine(lastPoint.x, lastPoint.y, point.x, point.y, linePaint); lastPoint = point; } } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 0; } } What would be the easiest way to implement adding markers for each GeoPoint? Thanks

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  • Overlay only draws line between first 2 GPS points in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hi, I am experiencing an unusual error using ItemizedOverlay in Android. I am creating a GPS tracking device that plots a route between waypoints stored in a database. When I provide the first two sets of longitude and latitude points through the emulator in Eclipse, it draws a red line just how I want it, but if I send another GPS point, it animates to the point, but does not draw a line from the last point. public class MyOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay { // private Projection projection; private Paint linePaint; private Vector points; public MyOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker) { super(defaultMarker); points = new Vector<GeoPoint>(); //set colour, stroke width etc. linePaint = new Paint(); linePaint.setARGB(255, 255, 0, 0); linePaint.setStrokeWidth(3); linePaint.setDither(true); linePaint.setStyle(Style.FILL); linePaint.setAntiAlias(true); linePaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); linePaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); } public void addPoint(GeoPoint point) { points.addElement(point); } public void draw(Canvas canvas, MapView view, boolean shadow) { int size = points.size(); Point lastPoint = new Point(); if(size == 0) return; view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(0), lastPoint); Point point = new Point(); for(int i = 1; i<size; i++){ view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(i), point); canvas.drawLine(lastPoint.x, lastPoint.y, point.x, point.y, linePaint); lastPoint = point; } } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 0; } }

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  • malloc: error checking and freeing memory

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I'm using malloc to make an error check of whether memory can be allocated or not for the particular array z1. ARRAY_SIZE is a predefined with a numerical value. I use casting as I've read it's safe to do so. long double *z1 = (long double *)malloc(sizeof (long double) * ARRAY_SIZE); if(z1 == NULL){ printf("Out of memory\n"); exit(-1); } The above is just a snippet of my code, but when I add the error checking part (contained in the if statement above), I get a lot of compile time errors with visual studio 2008. It is this error checking part that's generating all the errors. What am I doing wrong? On a related issue with malloc, I understand that the memory needs to be deallocated/freed after the variable/array z1 has been used. For the array z1, I use: free(z1); z1 = NULL; Is the second line z1 = NULL necessary? Thanks a lot...

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  • java converting int to short

    - by changed
    Hi I am calculating 16 bit checksum on my data which i need to send to server where it has to recalculate and match with the provided checksum. Checksum value that i am getting is in int but i have only 2 bytes for sending the value.So i am casting int to short while calling shortToBytes method. This works fine till checksum value is less than 32767 thereafter i am getting negative values. Thing is java does not have unsigned primitives, so i am not able to send values greater than max value of signed short allowed. How can i do this, converting int to short and send over the network without worrying about truncation and signed & unsigned int. Also on both the side i have java program running. private byte[] shortToBytes(short sh) { byte[] baValue = new byte[2]; ByteBuffer buf = ByteBuffer.wrap(baValue); return buf.putShort(sh).array(); } private short bytesToShort(byte[] buf, int offset) { byte[] baValue = new byte[2]; System.arraycopy(buf, offset, baValue, 0, 2); return ByteBuffer.wrap(baValue).getShort(); }

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  • Character set issues with Oracle Gateways, SQL Server, and Application Express

    - by Brian Deterling
    I am migrating data from a Oracle on VMS that accesses data on SQL Server using heterogeneous services (over ODBC) to Oracle on AIX accessing the SQL Server via Oracle Gateways (dg4msql). The Oracle VMS database used the WE8ISO8859P1 character set. The AIX database uses WE8MSWIN1252. The SQL Server database uses "Latin1-General, case-insensitive, accent-sensitive, kanatype-insensitive, width-insensitive for Unicode Data, SQL Server Sort Order 52 on Code Page 1252 for non-Unicode Data" according to sp_helpsort. The SQL Server databases uses nchar/nvarchar or all string columns. In Application Express, extra characters are appearing in some cases, for example 123 shows up as %001%002%003. In sqlplus, things look ok but if I use Oracle functions like initcap, I see what appear as spaces between each letter of a string when I query the sql server database (using a database link). This did not occur under the old configuration. I'm assuming the issue is that an nchar has extra bytes in it and the character set in Oracle can't convert it. It appears that the ODBC solution didn't support nchars so must have just cast them back to char and they showed up ok. I only need to view the sql server data so I'm open to any solution such as casting, but I haven't found anything that works. Any ideas on how to deal with this? Should I be using a different character set in Oracle and if so, does that apply to all schemas since I only care about one of them.

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  • TypeConverter prevents ApplyPropertyChanges in EntityFramework

    - by Felix
    I ran into an interesting problem (hopefully, interesting not just for me :) I am running Entity Framework 1 (.NET 3.5) and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have a Customer class that has many-to-one relationship with Country class (in other words, Country is a lookup table for customers - I described more in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2404801/explicit-casting-doesnt-work-in-default-model-binding ) I got TypeConverter to work; so I am getting a perfect object into controller's Post method. Create works fine; however, in Edit I am getting the following error when I call ApplyPropertyChanges: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. The controller code is fairly trivial: public ActionResult Edit(Customer customerToEdit) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Customer cust = (Customer)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Customers", "CustomerID", customerToEdit.CustomerID)); context.ApplyPropertyChanges(cust.EntityKey.EntitySetName, customerToEdit); context.SaveChanges(); } return View(...); } If I remove country from the form, it works fine; and if I assign dropdown value to EntityReference "manually" - it works as well. TypeConverter code is also fairly simple, but I've never used TypeConverter before, so I may be missing something here: public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext typeContext, CultureInfo culture, object value) { if (value is string) { int countryID = Int16.Parse((string)value); Country country = (Country)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } return base.ConvertFrom(typeContext, culture, value); }

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  • MATLAB Builder NE (.NET Assembly) Data type question

    - by Brett
    Hi coders, I am using MATLAB Builder NE (MATLAB's integrated .NET assmebly builder), but I am having an issue with data types. I have compiled a small, very simple, function in matlab and build it for .NET. I am able to call the namespace and even the function just fine. However, my function returns a value, and MATLAB defaults to returning it as an "object[]" data type. However, I know that the value is an integer, but I can't figure out how to cast it. My MATLAB function looks like this: function addValue = Myfunction(value1, value2) addValue=value1+value2; end Pretty simple right? And then in .NET I can call it as: xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); where xClass is the name of the MATLAB built class but when I try: int x = xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); C# errors out. Typical .NET casting (int) doesn't work. The compiler states it cannot convert object[] to int. Does anyone have experience with the .NET builder in MATLAB that can help me with this? It is really throwing me for a loop. I have scanned through most of the MATLAB BUILDER doc (484 pages!) with zero help. Thank you, Brett

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  • Custom IIdentity and passing data from an attribute to a controller

    - by DM
    Here's my scenario: I've successfully created a custom IIdentity that I pass to a GenericPrincipal. When I access that IIdentity in my controller I have to cast the IIdentity in order to use the custom properties. example: public ActionResult Test() { MyCustomIdentity identity = (MyCustomIdentity)User.Identity; int userID = identity.UserID; ...etc... } Since I need to do this casting for nearly every action I would like to wrap this functionality in an ActionFilterAttribute. I can't do it in the controller's constructor because the context isn't initialized yet. My thought would be to have the ActionFilterAttribute populate a private property on the controller that I can use in each action method. example: public class TestController : Controller { private MyCustomIdentity identity; [CastCustomIdentity] public ActionResult() { int userID = identity.UserID; ...etc... } } Question: Is this possible and how? Is there a better solution? I've racked my brain trying to figure out how to pass public properties that are populated in an attribute to the controller and I can't get it.

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  • Correctly assigning value to a Core Data attribute with an integer data-type

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --Edit 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the warning by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber? --Edit 2-- Ok, so I'm realizing that there is some fundamental idea that I don't understand. I now understand that the 60 million + number can be cast back to the correct 0-5 number by using integerValue. So, it seems my question is how can I save an integer between 0-5 to the attribute if the NSNumber that is returned is over 60 million? Do I need to be using a different data type?

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  • Delegates in .NET: how are they constructed ?

    - by Saulius
    While inspecting delegates in C# and .NET in general, I noticed some interesting facts: Creating a delegate in C# creates a class derived from MulticastDelegate with a constructor: .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(object 'object', native int 'method') runtime managed { } Meaning that it expects the instance and a pointer to the method. Yet the syntax of constructing a delegate in C# suggests that it has a constructor new MyDelegate(int () target) where I can recognise int () as a function instance (int *target() would be a function pointer in C++). So obviously the C# compiler picks out the correct method from the method group defined by the function name and constructs the delegate. So the first question would be, where does the C# compiler (or Visual Studio, to be precise) pick this constructor signature from ? I did not notice any special attributes or something that would make a distinction. Is this some sort of compiler/visualstudio magic ? If not, is the T (args) target construction valid in C# ? I did not manage to get anything with it to compile, e.g.: int () target = MyMethod; is invalid, so is doing anything with MyMetod, e.g. calling .ToString() on it (well this does make some sense, since that is technically a method group, but I imagine it should be possible to explicitly pick out a method by casting, e.g. (int())MyFunction. So is all of this purely compiler magic ? Looking at the construction through reflector reveals yet another syntax: Func CS$1$0000 = new Func(null, (IntPtr) Foo); This is consistent with the disassembled constructor signature, yet this does not compile! One final interesting note is that the classes Delegate and MulticastDelegate have yet another sets of constructors: .method family hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(class System.Type target, string 'method') cil managed Where does the transition from an instance and method pointer to a type and a string method name occur ? Can this be explained by the runtime managed keywords in the custom delegate constructor signature, i.e. does the runtime do it's job here ?

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  • How to provide stl like container with public const iterator and private non-const iterator?

    - by WilliamKF
    Hello, I am deriving a class privately from std::list and wish to provide public begin() and end() for const_iterator and private begin() and end() for just plain iterator. However, the compiler is seeing the private version and complaining that it is private instead of using the public const version. I understand that C++ will not overload on return type (in this case const_iterator and iterator) and thus it is choosing the non-const version since my object is not const. Short of casting my object to const before calling begin() or not overloading the name begin is there a way to accomplish this? I would think this is a known pattern that folks have solved before and would like to follow suit as to how this is typically solved. class myObject; class myContainer : private std::list<myObject> { public: typedef std::list<myObject>::const_iterator myContainer::const_iterator; private: typedef std::list<myObject>::iterator myContainer::iterator; public: myContainer::const_iterator begin() const { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::const_iterator end() const { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } private: myContainer::iterator begin() { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::iterator end() { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } }; void myFunction(myContainer &container) { myContainer::const_iterator aItr = container.begin(); myContainer::const_iterator aEndItr = container.end(); for (; aItr != aEndItr; ++aItr) { const myObject &item = *aItr; // Do something const on container's contents. } } The error from the compiler is something like this: ../../src/example.h:447: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::begin()' is private caller.cpp:2393: error: within this context ../../src/example.h:450: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::end()' is private caller.cpp:2394: error: within this context Thanks. -William

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  • scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

    - by user175528
    With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

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  • highcharts correct json input

    - by Linus
    i am trying to do a basic column chart. i have looked the examples but not sure why i do not see any graph (lines). I can see the title and subtitle appear an no javascript errors in firebug. any help please $(function () { var chart; $(document).ready(function() { chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', type: 'column', events: { load: requestData } }, title: { text: 'Some title' }, subtitle: { text: 'subtitle' }, xAxis: { categories: [], title: { text: null } }, yAxis: { min: 0, title: { text: 'y-Axis', align: 'high' } }, tooltip: { formatter: function() { return ''+ this.series.name +': '+ this.y +' '; } }, plotOptions: { bar: { dataLabels: { enabled: true } } }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', align: 'right', verticalAlign: 'top', x: -100, y: 100, floating: true, borderWidth: 1, backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', shadow: true }, credits: { enabled: false }, series:[] }); }); function requestData() { $.ajax({ url: 'test.json', success: function(data) { options.series[0].push(data); chart.redraw(); }, cache: false }); } }); my json input file is below [ { name: 'name1', y: [32.6,16.6,1.5] }, { name: 'name2', y: [6.7,0.2,0.6] }, { name: 'name3', y: [1,3.7,0.7] }, { name: 'name4', y: [20.3,8.8,9.5] },{ name: 'name5', y: [21.5,10,7.2] }, { name: 'name6', y: [1.4,1.8,3.7] }, { name: 'name7', y: [8.1,0,0] }, { name: 'name8', y: [28.9,8.9,6.6] } ]

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  • SQL - Converting 24-hour ("military") time (2145) to "AM/PM time" (9:45 pm)

    - by CheeseConQueso
    I have 2 fields I'm working with that are stored as smallint military structured times. Edit I'm running on IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 10.00.FC9 beg_tm and end_tm Sample values beg_tm 545 end_tm 815 beg_tm 1245 end_tm 1330 Sample output beg_tm 5:45 am end_tm 8:15 am beg_tm 12:45 pm end_tm 1:30 pm I had this working in Perl, but I'm looking for a way to do it with SQL and case statements. Is this even possible? EDIT Essentially, this formatting has to be used in an ACE report. I couldn't find a way to format it within the output section using simple blocks of if(beg_tm>=1300) then beg_tm = vbeg_tm - 1200 Where vbeg_tm is a declared char(4) variable EDIT This works for hours =1300 (EXCEPT FOR 2230 !!) select substr((beg_tm-1200),0,1)||":"||substr((beg_tm-1200),2,2) from mtg_rec where beg_tm>=1300; This works for hours < 1200 (sometimes.... 10:40 is failing) select substr((mtg_rec.beg_tm),0,(length(cast(beg_tm as varchar(4)))-2))||":"||(substr((mtg_rec.beg_tm),2,2))||" am" beg_tm from mtg_rec where mtg_no = 1; EDIT Variation of casting syntax used in Jonathan Leffler's expression approach SELECT beg_tm, cast((MOD(beg_tm/100 + 11, 12) + 1) as VARCHAR(2)) || ':' || SUBSTRING(cast((MOD(beg_tm, 100) + 100) as CHAR(3)) FROM 2) || SUBSTRING(' am pm' FROM (MOD(cast((beg_tm/1200) as INT), 2) * 3) + 1 FOR 3), end_tm, cast((MOD(end_tm/100 + 11, 12) + 1) as VARCHAR(2)) || ':' || SUBSTRING(cast((MOD(end_tm, 100) + 100) as CHAR(3)) FROM 2) || SUBSTRING(' am pm' FROM (MOD(cast((end_tm/1200) as INT), 2) * 3) + 1 FOR 3) FROM mtg_rec where mtg_no = 39;

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  • Error CS0117: Namespace.A does not contain definition for Interface..

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm getting the error: 'Namespace.A' does not contain a definition for 'MyObjectInterface' and no extension method 'MyObjectInterface' accepting a first argument of type ... I've looked at this and this and neither seems to apply. The code looks like: public abstract class Base { public IObject MyObjectInterface { get; set; } } public class A : Base { /**/ } public class Implementation { public void Method() { Base obj = new A(); obj.MyObjectInterface = /* something */; // Error here } } IObject is defined in a separate assembly, but: IObject is in a separate assembly/namespace Base and A are in the same assembly/namespace each with correct using directives Implementation is in a third separate assembly namespace, also with correct using directives. Casting to A before trying to set MyObjectInterface doesn't work Specifically, I'm trying to set the value of MyObjectInterface to a mock object (though, I created a fake instead to no avail) I've tried everything I can think of. Please help before I lose more hair. edit I can't reproduce the error by creating a test app either, which is why I'm here and why I'm frustrated. @Reed Copsey: /* something */ is either an NUnit.DynamicMock(IMailer).MockInstance or a Fake object I created that inherits from IObject and just returns canned values. @Preet Sangha: I checked and no other assembly that is referenced has a definition for an IObject (specifically, it's called an IMailer). Thing is that intellisense picks up the Property, but when I compile, I get CS0117. I can even 'Go To Definition' in the implementation, and it takes me to where I defined it.

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  • InvalidCastException in DataGridView

    - by Max Yaffe
    (Using VS 2010 Beta 2 - .Net 4.0 B2 Rel) I have a class, MyTable, derived from BindingList where S is a struct. S is made up of several other structs, for example: public class MyTable<S>:BindingList<S> where S: struct { ... } public struct MyStruct { public MyReal r1; public MyReal r2; public MyReal R1 {get{...} set{...}} public MyReal R2 {get{...} set{...}} ... } public struct MyReal { private Double d; private void InitFromString(string) {this.d = ...;} public MyReal(Double d) { this.d = d;} public MyReal(string val) { this.d = default(Double); InitFromString(val);} public override string ToString() { return this.real.ToString();} public static explicit operator MyReal(string s) { return new MyReal(s);} public static implicit operator String(MyReal r) { return r.ToString();} ... } OK, I use the MyTable as a binding source for a DataGridView. I can load the data grid easily using InitFromString on individual fields in MyStruct. The problem comes when I try to edit a value in a cell of the DataGridView. Going to the first row, first column, I change the value of the existing number. It gives an exception blizzard, the first line of which says: System.FormatException: Invalid cast from 'System.String' to 'MyReal' I've looked at the casting discussions and reference books but don't see any obvious problems. Any ideas?

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  • (C#) Get index of current foreach iteration

    - by Graphain
    Hi, Is there some rare language construct I haven't encountered (like the few I've learned recently, some on Stack Overflow) in C# to get a value representing the current iteration of a foreach loop? For instance, I currently do something like this depending on the circumstances: int i=0; foreach (Object o in collection) { ... i++; } Answers: @bryansh: I am setting the class of an element in a view page based on the position in the list. I guess I could add a method that gets the CSSClass for the Objects I am iterating through but that almost feels like a violation of the interface of that class. @Brad Wilson: I really like that - I've often thought about something like that when using the ternary operator but never really given it enough thought. As a bit of food for thought it would be nice if you could do something similar to somehow add (generically to all IEnumerable objects) a handle on the enumerator to increment the value that an extension method returns i.e. inject a method into the IEnumerable interface that returns an iterationindex. Of course this would be blatant hacks and witchcraft... Cool though... @crucible: Awesome I totally forgot to check the LINQ methods. Hmm appears to be a terrible library implementation though. I don't see why people are downvoting you though. You'd expect the method to either use some sort of HashTable of indices or even another SQL call, not an O(N) iteration... (@Jonathan Holland yes you are right, expecting SQL was wrong) @Joseph Daigle: The difficulty is that I assume the foreach casting/retrieval is optimised more than my own code would be. @Jonathan Holland: Ah, cheers for explaining how it works and ha at firing someone for using it.

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  • SQL Server - Multi-Column substring matching

    - by hamlin11
    One of my clients is hooked on multi-column substring matching. I understand that Contains and FreeText search for words (and at least in the case of Contains, word prefixes). However, based upon my understanding of this MSDN book, neither of these nor their variants are capable of searching substrings. I have used LIKE rather extensively (Select * from A where A.B Like '%substr%') Sample table A: ID | Col1 | Col2 | Col3 | ------------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma | colorado | Utah | 2 | arkansas | colorado | oklahoma | 3 | florida | michigan | florida | ------------------------------------- The following code will give us row 1 and row 2: select * from A where Col1 like '%klah%' or Col2 like '%klah%' or Col3 like '%klah%' This is rather ugly, probably slow, and I just don't like it very much. Probably because the implementations that I'm dealing with have 10+ columns that need searched. The following may be a slight improvement as code readability goes, but as far as performance, we're still in the same ball park. select * from A where (Col1 + ' ' + Col2 + ' ' + Col3) like '%klah%' I have thought about simply adding insert, update, and delete triggers that simply add the concatenated version of the above columns into a separate table that shadows this table. Sample Shadow_Table: ID | searchtext | --------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma colorado Utah | 2 | arkansas colorado oklahoma | 3 | florida michigan florida | --------------------------------- This would allow us to perform the following query to search for '%klah%' select * from Shadow_Table where searchtext like '%klah%' I really don't like having to remember that this shadow table exists and that I'm supposed to use it when I am performing multi-column substring matching, but it probably yields pretty quick reads at the expense of write and storage space. My gut feeling tells me there there is an existing solution built into SQL Server 2008. However, I don't seem to be able to find anything other than research papers on the subject. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Why Is Bottom Half of Custom UIActionSheet with UIDatePicker Disabled?

    - by Gorgando
    Everything seems to be working great with my UIActionSheet that contains a UIDatePicker except that the bottom half of the DatePicker is disabled. Visually there is a shadow that makes the bottom half of the picker darker than the top half. Everything in the bottom half is disabled and I can't for the life of me figure out how to enable it. I also noticed in my other "normal" UIActionSheets that just contain buttons, the bottom half of the cancel buttons are disabled. This is the code for my custom UIActionSheet: self.datePickerView = [[UIDatePicker alloc] init]; self.datePickerView.datePickerMode = UIDatePickerModeDate; self.actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Choose a Follow-up Date" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:nil destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:@"Done", nil]; [self.actionSheet showInView:self.view]; [self.actionSheet addSubview:self.datePickerView]; [self.actionSheet sendSubviewToBack:self.datePickerView]; [self.actionSheet setBounds:CGRectMake(0,0,320, 500)]; CGRect pickerRect = self.datePickerView.bounds; pickerRect.origin.y = -95; self.datePickerView.bounds = pickerRect; I've tried several things including sendSubviewToBack, BringSubviewToFront, etc but I have not had any luck. I appreciate your help!

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  • Is it possible to store controls(Panel) as object, serialize it and store it as a file?

    - by ikky
    The topic says it all. Using Compact Framework C# I'm tiling (order/sequence is important) some images that i download from an url, into a Panel(each image is a PictureBox). This can be a huge process, and may take some time. Therefor i only want the user to download the images and tile them once. So the next time the user uses the Tile Application, the Panel that was created the first time is already stored in a file and is loaded from that file. So what i want is a method to store a Panel as a file. Is this possible, or do you think i should do it another way? I've tried something like this: BinaryWriter panelStorage = new BinaryWriter(new FileStream("imagePanel.panel", FileMode.OpenOrCreate, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)); Byte[] bImageObject = new Byte[20000]; bImageObject = (byte[])(object)this.imagePanel; panelStorage .Write(bMapObject); panelStorage .Close(); But the casting was not very legal :P "InvalidCastException" Can anyone help me with this problem? Thank you in advance!

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  • Overlay only draws between first 2 points in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hi, I am experiencing an unusual error using ItemizedOverlay in Android. I am creating a GPS tracking device that plots a route between waypoints stored in a database. When I provide the first two sets of longitude and latitude points through the emulator in Eclipse, it draws a red line just how I want it, but if I send another GPS point, it animates to the point, but does not draw a line from the last point. public class MyOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay { // private Projection projection; private Paint linePaint; private Vector points; public MyOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker) { super(defaultMarker); points = new Vector<GeoPoint>(); //set colour, stroke width etc. linePaint = new Paint(); linePaint.setARGB(255, 255, 0, 0); linePaint.setStrokeWidth(3); linePaint.setDither(true); linePaint.setStyle(Style.FILL); linePaint.setAntiAlias(true); linePaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); linePaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); } public void addPoint(GeoPoint point) { points.addElement(point); } public void draw(Canvas canvas, MapView view, boolean shadow) { int size = points.size(); Point lastPoint = new Point(); if(size == 0) return; view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(0), lastPoint); Point point = new Point(); for(int i = 1; i<size; i++){ view.getProjection().toPixels(points.get(i), point); canvas.drawLine(lastPoint.x, lastPoint.y, point.x, point.y, linePaint); lastPoint = point; } } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 0; } }

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  • Manually Writing the HTML in TWebBrowser Pt. 2

    - by nomad311
    As the name suggests this is a continuation (sort of) of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2784679/manually-writing-the-html-in-twebbrowser This time around I'm trying to add some auto-refresh logic to the HTML I get. I have pieced together an approach from several sources (see below). In short, I am trying to locate the title node and add a meta node after it (in the HTML head node). But, I get an access violation. Here is the source: iHtmlDoc := IHTMLDocument3(WebBrowser1.Document); iHtmlEleTitle := IHTMLElement2(iHtmlDoc.getElementsByName('title').item(0, 0)); iHtmlEle := IHTMLElement2(IHTMLDocument2(iHtmlDoc).createElement(Format('<meta http-equiv="refresh" content="%d">', [1]))); iHtmlEleTitle.insertAdjacentElement('afterEnd', IHTMLElement(iHtmlEle)); And A (technically not functionally) different way of doing it ...casting is slightly different here: IHTMLElement2(IHtmlDocument3(WebBrowser1.Document).getElementsByName('title').item(0, 0)).insertAdjacentElement('afterEnd', IHTMLDocument2(WebBrowser1.Document).createElement(Format('<meta http-equiv="refresh" content="%d">', [VPI_ISSUANCE_AUTO_RELOAD]))); Again all I get from Delphi is a access exception, and I fished through MSDN documentation on it, but now I'm hoping someone out there has gone through the same and has some insight. Any help? Sources (I think this is all of them): http://webdesign.about.com/od/metataglibraries/a/aa080300a.htm (auto-reload) http://delphi.about.com/od/adptips2005/qt/webbrowserhtml.htm (web browser document as an HTML document) http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.forms.htmlelement.insertadjacentelement(VS.80).aspx (GetElementsByName) http://www.experts-exchange.com/Web_Development/Components/ActiveX/Q_26131034.html (insertAdjacentElement) http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/Pascal/Delphi/Q_23407977.html (GetElementsByName)

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  • Calling MethodBase's Invoke on a constructor (reflection)

    - by Alix
    Hi everyone. First of all, sorry if this has been asked before. I've done a pretty comprehensive search and found nothing quite like it, but I may have missed something. And now to the question: I'm trying to invoke a constructor through reflection, with no luck. Basically, I have an object that I want to clone, so I look up the copy constructor for its type and then want to invoke it. Here's what I have: public Object clone(Object toClone) { MethodBase copyConstructor = type.GetConstructor( new Type[] { toClone.GetType() }); return method.Invoke(toClone, new object[] { toClone }); //<-- doesn't work } I call the above method like so: List list = new List(new int[] { 0, 1, 2 }); List clone = (List) clone(list); Now, notice the invoke method I'm using is MethodBase's invoke. ConstructorInfo provides an invoke method that does work if invoked like this: return ((ConstructorInfo) method).Invoke(new object[] { toClone }); However, I want to use MethodBase's method, because in reality instead of looking up the copy constructor every time I will store it in a dictionary, and the dictionary contains both methods and constructors, so it's a Dictionary<MethodBase>, not Dictionary<ConstructorInfo>. I could of course cast to ConstructorInfo as I do above, but I'd rather avoid the casting and use the MethodBase method directly. I just can't figure out the right parameters. Any help? Thanks so much.

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  • Can't bind string containing @ char with mysqli_stmt_bind_param

    - by Tirithen
    I have a problem with my database class. I have a method that takes one prepared statement and any number of parameters, binds them to the statement, executes the statement and formats the result into a multidimentional array. Everthing works fine until I try to include an email adress in one of the parameters. The email contains an @ character and that one seems to break everything. When I supply with parameters: $types = "ss" and $parameters = array("[email protected]", "testtest") I get the error: Warning: Parameter 3 to mysqli_stmt_bind_param() expected to be a reference, value given in ...db/Database.class.php on line 63 Here is the method: private function bindAndExecutePreparedStatement(&$statement, $parameters, $types) { if(!empty($parameters)) { call_user_func_array('mysqli_stmt_bind_param', array_merge(array($statement, $types), &$parameters)); /*foreach($parameters as $key => $value) { mysqli_stmt_bind_param($statement, 's', $value); }*/ } $result = array(); $statement->execute() or debugLog("Database error: ".$statement->error); $rows = array(); if($this->stmt_bind_assoc($statement, $row)) { while($statement->fetch()) { $copied_row = array(); foreach($row as $key => $value) { if($value !== null && mb_substr($value, 0, 1, "UTF-8") == NESTED) { // If value has a nested result inside $value = mb_substr($value, 1, mb_strlen($value, "UTF-8") - 1, "UTF-8"); $value = $this->parse_nested_result_value($value); } $copied_row[$ke<y] = $value; } $rows[] = $copied_row; } } // Generate result $result['rows'] = $rows; $result['insert_id'] = $statement->insert_id; $result['affected_rows'] = $statement->affected_rows; $result['error'] = $statement->error; return $result; } I have gotten one suggestion that: the array_merge is casting parameter to string in the merge change it to &$parameters so it remains a reference So I tried that (3rd line of the method), but it did not do any difference. How should I do? Is there a better way to do this without call_user_func_array?

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