Search Results

Search found 6395 results on 256 pages for 'weird behaviour'.

Page 54/256 | < Previous Page | 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61  | Next Page >

  • Microsoft Expression Blend 3 - Show / Hide a popup

    - by imayam
    Hi, I'm using this for the very first time to do some quick prototyping (using sketchflow). I have a simple dialog window that I want to show when a button it pressed and then hide when a button (in the dialog, like an "OK" button) is pressed. If someone could just point me in the direction of a simple tutorial on how to do this I'd be happy, or even if you have a simple example you can post here that would be great (I've been trying to google this forever!). I can tell you what I have tried (although obviously it doesn't work) Created a user control, called it "MyDialog". That user control is a simple box which is the bit of gui I want to overlay when the user clicks a button. In that user control I gave it two states "Show" and "Hide". The "Hide" state has all visability to the elements in this user control set to none and "Show" shows everything Created a button in my main screen. That button I gave a it a behaviour "ActivateStateAction". In the properties of that behaviour I set the TargetScreen to be "MyDialog" and the TargetState to be "Show". (I also set the target screen to be MyprojectName.MyProjectNameScreens.MyDialog, that doesn't work either)

    Read the article

  • viewDidLoad not being called by parent UITabBarController

    - by Adam Bishop
    Sample: I've created a minimal set of files that highlight the issue here: http://uploads.omega.org.uk/Foo3.zip If viewDidLoad/viewInitWithNibName are called, a message box is displayed. The message box is not displayed, therefore, the methods are not being called. Details: I have an application that is attempting to use a UITabBarController to switch between multiple views. The views are linked up to the UITabBarController using interface builder (select the tab page, open Attributes (Option-1), and fill in the NIB Name field), and so are displayed "automatically" with no extra code-behind to make them appear. Is it intended behaviour that views loaded like this do not have their viewDidLoad method executed? If not, how am I doing it wrong, and what do I need to change. If it is intended behaviour, I can think of a few work-arounds, but any suggestions are appreciated: Scrap the UITabBarController and implement the view switching myself (using initWithNibName and add/insert/push/Subview). Call each of the children's viewDidLoad method manually in the UITabBarController's own viewDidLoad method. Thank you in advance for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • Jquery.Cycle and IE7 including next Div

    - by Aklobem
    Hi All, I'd really appreciate if someone could help me with a strange problem with Jquery.cycle. I've added jquery.cycle (verson 2.72) into a existing application (Prestashop) to slideshow a number of images. On Firefox, Mozilla etc it works brilliantly - on IE7 a bizarre problem occurs. The problem is where I have a and say 6 pictures a couple of to break things up then another content and IE includes the "editorial" into the slideshow. The "editorial" block is removed from the page, and appears as the last slide in the slideshow, located in the top left corner. Additional facts: jquery-1.2.6 is in use for the rest of the application (I've tried to upgrade it and all I get is the same behaviour with lots of other things breaking). I've tried jquery.cycle.lite - same behaviour. css: root { display: block; } .pics { height: 432px; width: 432px; padding: 0; margin: 0; } .pics img { padding: 15px; border: 1px solid #ccc; background-color: #eee; width: 400px; height: 400px; top: 0; left: 0 } div.pics { margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } snippet: $(document).ready(function() { $('.pics').cycle({ fx: 'fade', pause: 100, cleartype: 1 }); }); img source img source img source img source

    Read the article

  • "Admin module" taking over [Yii framework]

    - by Flavius
    Hi I have an "admin" module and I want it to serve "dynamic controllers", i.e. to provide a default behaviour for controllers which don't really exist ("virtual controllers"). I've invented a lightweight messaging mechanism for loose communication between modules. I'd like to use it such that when e.g. ?r=admin/users/index is requested, it will call the "virtual controller" "UserController" of AdminModule, which would, by default, use this messaging mechanism to notify the real module "UsersModule" it can answer to the request. I thought about simulating this behaviour in AdminModule::init(), but at that point I have no way of deciding whether the action can be processed by a real controller or not, or at least I don't know how to do it. This is because of the way Yii works: bottom-up, the controller is the one that renders the view AND the application layout (or the module's, if it exists), for example. I don't think the module even has a word to say about handling a given controller+action or not. To recap, I'm looking for a kind of CWebModule::missingController($controllerId,$actionId), just like CController::missingAction($actionId), or a workaround to simulate that. That would possibly be in CWebModule::init() or somewhere where I can find out whether the controller actually exists, in which case it's his job to handle it the $actionID and $controllerID whether the module $controllerID exists (I didn't type it wrong, in r=admin/users/index, "users" is the actual module, as specified in the application's config).

    Read the article

  • Why is my WPF splash screen progress bar out of sync with the execution of the startup steps?

    - by denny_ch
    Hello, I've implemented a simple WPF splash screen window which informs the user about the progress of the application startup. The startup steps are defined this way: var bootSequence = new[] { new {Do = (Action) InitLogging, Message = "Init logging..."}, new {Do = (Action) InitNHibernate, Message = "Init NHibernate..."}, new {Do = (Action) SetupUnityContainer, Message = "Init Unity..."}, new {Do = (Action) UserLogOn, Message = "Logon..."}, new {Do = (Action) PrefetchData, Message = "Caching..."}, }; InitLogging etc. are methods defined elsewhere, which performs some time consuming tasks. The boot sequence gets executed this way: foreach (var step in bootSequence) { _status.Update(step.Message); step.Do(); } _status denotes an instance of my XAML splash screen window containing a progress bar and a label for status information. Its Update() method is defined as follows: public void Update(string status) { int value = ++_updateSteps; Update(status, value); } private void Update(string status, int value) { var dispatcherOperation = Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( DispatcherPriority.Background, (ThreadStart) delegate { lblStatus.Content = status; progressBar.Value = value; }); dispatcherOperation.Wait(); } In the main this works, the steps get executed and the splash screen shows the progress. But I observed that the splash screen for some reasons doesn't update its content for all steps. This is the reason I called the Dispatcher async and wait for its completion. But even this didn't help. Has anyone else experienced this or some similar behaviour and has some advice how to keep the splash screen's update in sync with the execution of the boot sequence steps? I know that the users will unlikely notice this behaviour, since the splash screen is doing something and the application starts after booting is completed. But myself isn't sleeping well, because I don't know why it is not working as expected... Thx for your help, Denny

    Read the article

  • codeigniter & cjax framework, fatal error class 'CI_Controller' not found

    - by Martin
    I'm having this weird error with Codeigniter 2.1.3 and latest cjax for codeigniter. Weird thing is, when I download the latest codeigniter, and latest cjax framework for codeitniger and copy to my friends server, and call: domain.com/ajax.php?test/test2 to show the test ajax examples ... it works like a breeze, but when I do this on my server, I get server error (even tho, we both have same php version and such). Server then throws in error log file this error: PHP Fatal error: Class 'CI_Controller' not found in /hosting/www/domain.com/www/application/response/test.php on line 3 Now, I've read thru stackoverflow with people having this problem and solving by changing the construct and calling CI_Controller instead of Controller. But I already do that ... - I mean it's in the basic example that is suppose to work without touching the code, and it does, just not on my domain for some crappy reason. Ajax.php from cjax framework for codeingter should load controller from folder response, named test and call function test2, which looks like this (the actual file named test.php): class Test extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } /** * * ajax.php?test/test/a/b/c * * @param unknown_type $a * @param unknown_type $b * @param unknown_type $c */ function test($a = null,$b = null, $c = null) { $this->load->view('test', array('data' => $a .' '.$b.' '.$c)); } /** * ajax.php?test/test2 * * Here we are testing out the javascript library. * * Note: the library it is not meant to be included in ajax controllers - but in front-controllers, * it is being used here for the sake of simplicity in testing. */ function test2() { $ajax = ajax(); $ajax->update('response','Cjax Works'); $ajax->append('#response','<br /><br />version: '.$ajax->version); $ajax->success('Cjax was successfully installed.', 5); //see application/views/test2.php $this->load->view('test2'); } I was hoping someone could bring some light into this problem - or maybe someone has already experienced it? Thanks for your time! Mart

    Read the article

  • Equivalent of typedef in C#

    - by Matthew Scharley
    Is there a typedef equivalent in C#, or someway to get some sort of similar behaviour? I've done some googling, but everywhere I look seems to be negative. Currently I have a situation similar to the following: class GenericClass<T> { public event EventHandler<EventData> MyEvent; public class EventData : EventArgs { /* snip */ } // ... snip } Now, it doesn't take a rocket scientist to figure out that this can very quickly lead to alot of typing (appologies for the horrible pun) when trying to implement a handler for that event. It'd end up being something like this: GenericClass<int> gcInt = new GenericClass<int>; gcInt.MyEvent += new EventHandler<GenericClass<int>.EventData>(gcInt_MyEvent); // ... private void gcInt_MyEvent(object sender, GenericClass<int>.EventData e) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } Except, in my case, I was already using a complex type, not just an int. It'd be nice if it was possible to simplify this a little... Edit: ie. perhaps typedefing the EventHandler instead of needing to redefine it to get similar behaviour.

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL not inserting data onto the DB

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Hello! I have a little / weird behaviour here and Im looking over internet and SO and I didn't find a response. I have to admit that this is my first time using databases, I know how to use them with SQL but never used it actually. Anyway, I have a problem with my app inserting data, I just created a very simple project for testing that and no solution yet. I have an example database with Sql Server Id - int (identity primary key) Name - nchar(10) (not null) The table is called "Person", simple as pie. I have this: static void Main(string[] args) { var db = new ExampleDBDataContext {Log = Console.Out}; var jesus = new Person {Name = "Jesus"}; db.Persons.InsertOnSubmit(jesus); db.SubmitChanges(); var query = from person in db.Persons select person; foreach (var p in query) { Console.WriteLine(p.Name); } } As you can see, nothing extrange. It show Jesus in the console. But if you see the table data, there is no data, just empty. I comment the object creation and insertion and the foreach doesn't print a thing (normal, there is no data in the database) The weird thing is that I created a row in the database manually and the Id was 2 and no 1 (Was the linq really playing with the database but it didn't create the row?) There is the log: INSERT INTO [dbo].Person VALUES (@p0) SELECT CONVERT(Int,SCOPE_IDENTITY()) AS [value] -- @p0: Input NChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [Jesus] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 SELECT [t0].[Id], [t0].[Name] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 I am really confused, All the blogs / books use this kind of snippet to insert an element to a database. Thank you for helping.

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest leak in javascript. please help.

    - by Raja
    Hi everyone, Below is my javascript code snippet. Its not running as expected, please help me with this. <script type="text/javascript"> function getCurrentLocation() { console.log("inside location"); navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { insert_coord(new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude)); }); } function insert_coord(loc) { var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST","start.php",true); request.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(request); }; request.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); request.send("lat=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lat()) + "&lng=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lng())); return request; } function callback(req) { console.log("inside callback"); if(req.readyState == 4) if(req.status == 200) { document.getElementById("scratch").innerHTML = "callback success"; window.setTimeout("getCurrentLocation()",5000); } } getCurrentLocation(); //called on body load </script> What i'm trying to achieve is to send my current location to the php page every 5 seconds or so. i can see few of the coordinates in my database but after sometime it gets weird. Firebug show very weird logs like simultaneous POST's at irregular intervals. Here's the firebug screenshot: IS there a leak in the program. please help.

    Read the article

  • How do DP and CC change in Piet?

    - by Paul Butcher
    According to the specification, Black colour blocks and the edges of the program restrict program flow. If the Piet interpreter attempts to move into a black block or off an edge, it is stopped and the CC is toggled. The interpreter then attempts to move from its current block again. If it fails a second time, the DP is moved clockwise one step. These attempts are repeated, with the CC and DP being changed between alternate attempts. If after eight attempts the interpreter cannot leave its current colour block, there is no way out and the program terminates. Unless I'm reading it incorrectly, this is at odds with the behaviour of the Fibonacci sequence example here: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/fibbig1.gif (from: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/samples.html) Specifically, why does the DP turn left at (0,3) ((0,0) being (top, left)) when it hits the left edge? At this point, both DP and CC are LEFT, so, by my reading, the sequence should then be: Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,4), Toggle CC to RIGHT, Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,2). Rotate DP to UP, Attempt (and succeed) to leave the block at (1,2) by entering the white block at (1,1) The behaviour indicated by the trace seems to be that DP gets rotated all the way, leaving CC at LEFT. What have I misunderstood?

    Read the article

  • Missing ideas in programming language design

    - by meyka
    I wanted to try something new and so I designed some programming languages and wrote interpreters for them: A rather low-level, not very expressive language. (I didn't want to parse complex expressions right at the beginning) It featured: Variables (yay) Subroutines, with a call stack Basic arithmetic functions, basic string manipulation, ... Code in the language looks like this: set i 0 inc i print i Very, very basic you see. A more high-level language I decided to make it structured and so it featured things like if-else, while, functions, and so on. The stuff most programming languages have. Ended up like a unworthy Python clone, I hated that. A code-golf language Which ended up similar to J, golfcode, APL, etc. Nothing special As you can see: I don't lack the skills but the ideas. I can't figure out anything new, not even bad, unneccessary things, for my languages. - Do you know of some weird things I could implement in my languages, which don't try to make programming harder (like most esoteric languages) but funnier or more different from other languages? It can't be possible that every weird thing has been tried out so far, or?

    Read the article

  • Blackberry: How to properly handle focus traversal in custom field?

    - by DaveJohnston
    I am writing an app for Blackberry and I have the following problem: I have implemented a custom field by extending the Manager class. The field is quite simple, it consists of a label and two check boxes, yes and no. The fields are laid out so that the label is on the left and uses as much space as it can while still allowing room for the check boxes which are positioned next to each other at the right and vertically centred compared to the label (if it spans more than one line). So it looks like this: This is a question? O Yes O No Everything is fine so far in terms of laying out the fields. But now I am trying to handle focus traversal. First of all the default behaviour when the user scrolls up or down is to move between the yes and no options. I want to move to the next field above or below when up or down is pressed, so I did this: protected int moveFocus(int amount, int status, int time) { if (status == 537001984 || status == -1610481664) { // Up or down was pressed // Don't move focus between yes and no when up or down is pressed. return amount; } return super.moveFocus(amount, status, time); } And that seems to work. The next thing I would like to do is to remember which option last had the focus when the field loses focus, then on gaining focus again (regardless of which direction the focus comes from) set this field to have the focus. I tried overriding onUnfocus and onFocus so that onUnfocus I note which field was focussed then onFocus setFocus to that field. But I get a StackOverflowError, I guess because the call to setFocus on a field within the manager actually calls onFocus for the manager itself again?? So does anyone know how I should be doing this? I checked the DateField and it has the exact behaviour I am looking for, i.e. it remembers if you were last on the day, month or year field and sets this field to focus when the field itself gets the focus.

    Read the article

  • Date since 1600 to NSDate?

    - by Steven Fisher
    I have a date that's stored as a number of days since January 1, 1600 that I need to deal with. This is a legacy date format that I need to read many, many times in my application. Previously, I'd been creating a calendar, empty date components and root date like this: self.gregorian = [[[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier: NSGregorianCalendar ] autorelease]; id rootComponents = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; [rootComponents setYear: 1600]; [rootComponents setMonth: 1]; [rootComponents setDay: 1]; self.rootDate = [gregorian dateFromComponents: rootComponents]; self.offset = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; Then, to convert the integer later to a date, I use this: [offset setDay: theLegacyDate]; id eventDate = [gregorian dateByAddingComponents: offset toDate: rootDate options: 0]; (I never change any values in offset anywhere else.) The problem is I'm getting a different time for rootDate on iOS vs. Mac OS X. On Mac OS X, I'm getting midnight. On iOS, I'm getting 8:12:28. (So far, it seems to be consistent about this.) When I add my number of days later, the weird time stays. OS | legacyDate | rootDate | eventDate ======== | ========== | ==========================|========================== Mac OS X | 143671 | 1600-01-01 00:00:00 -0800 | 1993-05-11 00:00:00 -0700 iOS | 143671 | 1600-01-01 08:12:28 +0000 | 1993-05-11 07:12:28 +0000 In the previous release of my product, I didn't care about the time; now I do. Why the weird time on iOS, and what should I do about it? (I'm assuming the hour difference is DST.) I've tried setting the hour, minute and second of rootComponents to 0. This has no impact. If I set them to something other than 0, it adds them to 8:12:28. I've been wondering if this has something to do with leap seconds or other cumulative clock changes. Or is this entirely the wrong approach to use on iOS?

    Read the article

  • DateChooser is behaving strangly

    - by Tam
    Hi, I'm writing a Flex application and I came accross what I think is a weird problem. I want to create a text box and a DateChooser as the datefield didn't do what I wanted and it's Halo so I can't skin it easily. I want the DateChooser to show when I click on the text input. Here is except from my code: <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" paddingRight="10" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> <s:Button label="Go" width="70" /> </s:Panel> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" visible = "false" change="useDate(event);" mouseOver="changeToNormalState = false;" y="{wholeDate.y + buttonsGroup.y + 20}" x="{wholeDate.x + buttonsGroup.x - 175 }" /> The weird thing is that it work as I wanted if I make it visible = "true" to start but if I have it visible="false" it doesn't work! it shows by the date I select doesn't show in the box as it does if I have it as visible="true" but I don't want it to be visible initially. Any ideas? Thanks, Tam

    Read the article

  • Disadvantage of OOP?

    - by Bragaadeesh
    Typically i dont want to know the specifics of the cons of OOPs, but it felt kind of weird when I had an argument at an interview I attended recently. The question that was posted to me was to tell me one disadvantage of OOP (Object Oriented Programming). At that time, I felt OOP to be the most matured level of programming after the procedural/functional models. So I replied to him that I dont see any negatives at all. But the interviewer said there are few and I asked him to list one if he does not mind. He gave an example that I cant digest well, he said that OOP pattern does not strictly implement inheritance rules and cited the satellite/rocket example where the body parts will disintegrate periodically to remove weight during rocket launch and said that inheritance does not support this. His example kind of felt very weird to me the reason being the application of inheritance to this example. Then I left the example aside and I had this doubt - Can we unplug class hierarchies in such a manner (I am kind of confident in Java its not possible) in an ideal Object Oriented Design?

    Read the article

  • Can't send client certificate via SslStream

    - by Jonathan
    I am doing an SSL3 handshake using an SslStream, but, in spite of my best efforts, the SslStream never sends a client certificate on my behalf. Here is the code: SSLConnection = new System.Net.Security.SslStream(SSLInOutStream, false, new System.Net.Security.RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(AlwaysValidRemoteCertificate), new System.Net.Security.LocalCertificateSelectionCallback(ChooseLocalCertificate)); X509CertificateCollection CC = new X509CertificateCollection(); CC.Add(Org.BouncyCastle.Security.DotNetUtilities.ToX509Certificate(MyLocalCertificate)); SSLConnection.AuthenticateAsClient("test", CC, System.Security.Authentication.SslProtocols.Ssl3, false); and then I have AlwaysValidRemoteCertificate just returning true, and ChooseLocalCertificate returning the zeroth element of the array. The code probably looks a little weird because the project is a little weird, but I think that is beside the point here. The SSL handshake completes. The issue is that instead of sending a certificate message on my behalf (in the handshake process), with the ASN.1 encoded certificate (MyLocalCertificate), the SslStream sends an SSL alert number 41 (no certificate) and then carries on. I know this from packet sniffing. After the handshake is completed, the SslStream marks IsAuthenticated as true, IsMutuallyAuthenticated as false, and its LocalCertificate member is null. I feel like I'm probably missing something pretty obvious here, so any ideas would be appreciated. I am a novice with SSL, and this project is off the beaten path, so I am kind of at a loss. P.S. 1: My ChooseLocalCertificate routine is called twice during the handshake, and returns a valid (as far as I can tell), non-null certificate both times. P.S. 2: SSLInOutStream is my own class, not a NetworkStream. Like I said, though, the handshake proceeds mostly normally, so I doubt this is the culprit... but who knows?

    Read the article

  • WPF RibbonTextBox Width problem

    - by morsanu
    Hey guys, It seems to me that the Ribbon control has a problem with textboxes. I was expecting a common TextBox control behaviour: a fixed width and a visible caret when the text exceeds the width. But the RibbonTextBox control changes its width and when the text exceeds the right limit, the overflow is not visible. I found a hack on a blog that does something like this: var img = SearchButton.Template.FindName("image", SearchButton); if (img != null && img is Image) (img as Image).Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; var lbl = FindTemplateControl<Label>(SearchText); var border = SearchText.Template.FindName("Bd", SearchText); if (border != null && border is Border && img != null && lbl != null) { (border as Border).Width = SearchText.ActualWidth - (((Image)img).ActualWidth + lbl.ActualWidth); } but I reallly don't want to do such a workaround. Is there any other simpler way to achieve simple TextBox behaviour?

    Read the article

  • Problem retrieving multiple instances of the same asp.net session variable

    - by sw1sh
    I'm having problems with retrieving multiple instances of a session variable from an InProc session state. In the following code I persist a simple BusinessObject into a session variable on the Page_Load event. On the click of a button I try to retrieve the object back into 2 new declared instances of the same BusinessObject. All works great until I change one of the properties in the first instance, it changes the second instance as well. Is this normal behaviour? I would have thought as these were new instances they wouldn’t demonstrate static behaviour? Any ideas where I'm going wrong? Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then ' create a new instance of a business object and set a containg variable Dim BO As New BusinessObject BO.SomeVariable = "test" ' persist to inproc session Session("BO") = BO End If End Sub Protected Sub btnRetrieveSessionVariable_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnRetrieveSessionVariable.Click ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO1 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO1 = Session("BO") ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO2 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO2 = Session("BO") ' change the property value on the first instance BO1.SomeVariable = "test2" ' why has this changed on both instances? Dim strBO1Property As String = BO1.SomeVariable Dim strBO2Property As String = BO2.SomeVariable End Sub ' simple BusinessObject class Public Class BusinessObject Private _SomeVariable As String Public Property SomeVariable() As String Get Return _SomeVariable End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _SomeVariable = value End Set End Property End Class

    Read the article

  • Error when trying to connect to Jacorb naming service

    - by Dopyiii
    I'm hoping to get some help with this weird problem. We're running the Jacorb name server and I have a simple client that I'm using to try to connect and do awesome CORBA voodoo. The name server is running, but when I try to start my java app, I get a "Connection failure" error (org.omg.CORBA.COMM_FAILURE, minor code 201, "caused by java.net.ConnectionException: Connection refused: connect"). Here's the weird part. The error reports that it's trying to connect using the default port 900, but I'm passing in an argument to try to override the port number of the name service to match the one being used by the name server. My java command is like this: java -classpath . HelloClient -Djava.endorsed.dirs="bla bla bla" -Dorg.omg.CORBA.ORBClass=org.jacorb.orb.ORB -Dorg.omg.CORBA.ORBSingletonClass=org.jacorb.orb.ORBSingleton -DORBInitRef.NameService=corbaloc::localhost:2809/StandardNS/NameServer-POA/_root I also tried the parameters without the first capital D (I've seen it both ways and I don't know the difference). Now, if I put in -ORBInitialPort 2809, then the client does appear to try to connect, but then I get a corba.OBJECT_NOT_EXIST error. I could use any help or advise anyone has.

    Read the article

  • UIImagePickerController shows last picture taken instead of camera input

    - by jules
    I'm having a strange behaviour within my app. For taking pictures i'm using the following pretty standard code for displaying the UIImagePickerController: UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsEditing = NO; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentViewController:picker animated:YES completion:nil]; It works perfectly fine the first time I tap the button which calls this action. The strange behaviour starts when I tap that button again. The UIImagePickerController starts again BUT it doesnt show the input from the camera anymore. It shows the last picture I've taken. More Details of this state: Tapping on the image shows the yellow square of the auto focus. (which it actually uses to focus the camera correctly) When I tap on the ImageCapture button - the correct image is taken and presented on the screen. If I take a picture and press 'Retake' the regular camera image is presented as input. More weirdness: It has nothing to do with the iPad I'm using. Creating a new example app which only has button which calls the code from above everything works perfectly fine. I assume it has something to do with the configuration of the app. Therefore I checked everything but could not find any differences which may cause this issue. Thanks in advance for any advice! Update: I do implement the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in order to dismiss the UIImagePickerController.

    Read the article

  • IUsable: controlling resources in a better way than IDisposable

    - by Ilya Ryzhenkov
    I wish we have "Usable" pattern in C#, when code block of using construct would be passed to a function as delegate: class Usable : IUsable { public void Use(Action action) // implements IUsable { // acquire resources action(); // release resources } } and in user code: using (new Usable()) { // this code block is converted to delegate and passed to Use method above } Pros: Controlled execution, exceptions The fact of using "Usable" is visible in call stack Cons: Cost of delegate Do you think it is feasible and useful, and if it doesn't have any problems from the language point of view? Are there any pitfalls you can see? EDIT: David Schmitt proposed the following using(new Usable(delegate() { // actions here }) {} It can work in the sample scenario like that, but usually you have resource already allocated and want it to look like this: using (Repository.GlobalResource) { // actions here } Where GlobalResource (yes, I know global resources are bad) implements IUsable. You can rewrite is as short as Repository.GlobalResource.Use(() => { // actions here }); But it looks a little bit weird (and more weird if you implement interface explicitly), and this is so often case in various flavours, that I thought it deserve to be new syntactic sugar in a language.

    Read the article

  • Django's post_save signal behaves weirdly with models using multi-table inheritance

    - by hekevintran
    Django's post_save signal behaves weirdly with models using multi-table inheritance I am noticing an odd behavior in the way Django's post_save signal works when using a model that has multi-table inheritance. I have these two models: class Animal(models.Model): category = models.CharField(max_length=20) class Dog(Animal): color = models.CharField(max_length=10) I have a post save callback called echo_category: def echo_category(sender, **kwargs): print "category: '%s'" % kwargs['instance'].category post_save.connect(echo_category, sender=Dog) I have this fixture: [ { "pk": 1, "model": "animal.animal", "fields": { "category": "omnivore" } }, { "pk": 1, "model": "animal.dog", "fields": { "color": "brown" } } ] In every part of the program except for in the post_save callback the following is true: from animal.models import Dog Dog.objects.get(pk=1).category == u'omnivore' # True When I run syncdb and the fixture is installed, the echo_category function is run. The output from syncdb is: $ python manage.py syncdb --noinput Installing json fixture 'initial_data' from '~/my_proj/animal/fixtures'. category: '' Installed 2 object(s) from 1 fixture(s) The weird thing here is that the dog object's category attribute is an empty string. Why is it not 'omnivore' like it is everywhere else? As a temporary (hopefully) workaround I reload the object from the database in the post_save callback: def echo_category(sender, **kwargs): instance = kwargs['instance'] instance = sender.objects.get(pk=instance.pk) print "category: '%s'" % instance.category post_save.connect(echo_category, sender=Dog) This works but it is not something I like because I must remember to do it when the model inherits from another model and it must hit the database again. The other weird thing is that I must do instance.pk to get the primary key. The normal 'id' attribute does not work (I cannot use instance.id). I do not know why this is. Maybe this is related to the reason why the category attribute is not doing the right thing?

    Read the article

  • How to test an application for correct encoding (e.g. UTF-8)

    - by Olaf
    Encoding issues are among the one topic that have bitten me most often during development. Every platform insists on its own encoding, most likely some non-UTF-8 defaults are in the game. (I'm usually working on Linux, defaulting to UTF-8, my colleagues mostly work on german Windows, defaulting to ISO-8859-1 or some similar windows codepage) I believe, that UTF-8 is a suitable standard for developing an i18nable application. However, in my experience encoding bugs are usually discovered late (even though I'm located in Germany and we have some special characters that along with ISO-8859-1 provide some detectable differences). I believe that those developers with a completely non-ASCII character set (or those that know a language that uses such a character set) are getting a head start in providing test data. But there must be a way to ease this for the rest of us as well. What [technique|tool|incentive] are people here using? How do you get your co-developers to care for these issues? How do you test for compliance? Are those tests conducted manually or automatically? Adding one possible answer upfront: I've recently discovered fliptitle.com (they are providing an easy way to get weird characters written "u?op ?pisdn" *) and I'm planning on using them to provide easily verifiable UTF-8 character strings (as most of the characters used there are at some weird binary encoding position) but there surely must be more systematic tests, patterns or techniques for ensuring UTF-8 compatibility/usage. Note: Even though there's an accepted answer, I'd like to know of more techniques and patterns if there are some. Please add more answers if you have more ideas. And it has not been easy choosing only one answer for acceptance. I've chosen the regexp answer for the least expected angle to tackle the problem although there would be reasons to choose other answers as well. Too bad only one answer can be accepted. Thank you for your input. *) that's "upside down" written "upside down" for those that cannot see those characters due to font problems

    Read the article

  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

    Read the article

  • How to emulate "-lib foo.jar" from _within_ build.xml

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    By specifying "-lib foo.jar" to ant I get the behaviour that the classes in foo.jar is added to the ant classloader and are available for various tasks taking a class name argument. I'd like to be able to specify the same behaviour but only from inside build.xml (so we can do this on a vanilla ant). For taskdefs we have functioning code looking like: <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antlib.xml" description="for/foreach tasks"> <classpath> <pathelement location="${active.workspace}/ant-contrib-1.X/lib/ant-contrib.jar" /> </classpath> </taskdef> where the definition is completely provided from the ant-contrib.jar listed. What is the equivalent mechanism for the "global" ant classpath? (I have thought out that this is the way to get <javac> use ecj-3.5.jar to compile with on a JRE - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2364006/specifying-the-eclipse-compiler-completely-from-within-build-xml - in a way compatible with ant 1.7. Better suggestions are welcome :) EDIT: It appears that the about-to-be-released version 1.0 of ant4eclipse includes ecj. This does not answer the question, but may solve my basic problem.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61  | Next Page >