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• Accettend letter and other graphic simbols PHP->JS

  - by Kreker

  I have to read a txt via file php. This file contains some normal so may contains this kind of symbols : € é ò à ° % etc I read the content in php with file_get_contents and transform these for inserenting in SQL database. $contFile = file_get_contents($pathFile); $testoCommento = htmlspecialchars($contFile,ENT_QUOTES); $testoCommento = addslashes($testoCommento); Now if I have this text for example : "l'attesa ?é cruciale fino a quando il topo non viene morso dall'?€" in the database I have this: l&#039;attesa è cruciale fino a quando il topo non veniene morso dall&#039;€ When I was GETTING the data from the database I use the php function for decode html entites $descrizione = htmlspecialchars_decode($risultato['descrizione'],ENT_QUOTES); $descrizione = addslashes($descrizione); Now I use jasvascript and AJAX for getting the table content and display to an HTML page In the browser instead of getting the correct text (€,è) I have square symbol. I think there is some mess with charset code/decode but never figured out. The SQL' table is in "utf8_unicode_ci" format and the column in "utf8_general_ci". The content-type of the page is <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Thanks for help me!

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• Access DB Transaction on insert or updating

  - by Raju Gujarati

  I am going to implement the database access layer of the Window application using C#. The database (.accdb) is located to the project files. When it comes to two notebooks (clients) connecting to one access database through switches, it throws DBConcurrency Exception Error. My target is to check the timestamp of the sql executed first and then run the sql . Would you please provide me some guidelines to achieve this ? The below is my code protected void btnTransaction_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string custID = txtID.Text; string CompName = txtCompany.Text; string contact = txtContact.Text; string city = txtCity.Text; string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["CustomersDatabase"].ConnectionString; OleDbConnection connection = new OleDbConnection(connString); connection.Open(); OleDbCommand command = new OleDbCommand(); command.Connection = connection; OleDbTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(); command.Transaction = transaction; try { command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO Customers(CustomerID, CompanyName, ContactName, City, Country) VALUES(@CustomerID, @CompanyName, @ContactName, @City, @Country)"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CustomerID", custID); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CompanyName", CompName); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ContactName", contact); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@City", city); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); command.CommandText = "UPDATE Customers SET ContactName = @ContactName2 WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID2"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CustomerID2", custIDUpdate); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ContactName2", contactUpdate); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); adapter.Fill(table); GridView1.DataSource = table; GridView1.DataBind(); transaction.Commit(); lblMessage.Text = "Transaction successfully completed"; } catch (Exception ex) { transaction.Rollback(); lblMessage.Text = "Transaction is not completed"; } finally { connection.Close(); } }

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• Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

  - by PartlyCloudy

  Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

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• Why won't EF4 generate a method to support my Function Import?

  - by Deane

  I have a stored proc in my database which returns an integer. I added a Function Import to my model. This appears in the EDMX file: <Function Name="GetTotalEntityCount" Aggregate="false" BuiltIn="false" NiladicFunction="false" IsComposable="false" ParameterTypeSemantics="AllowImplicitConversion" Schema="dbo" /> However, no method actually gets generated for this. It should be top level, right? using (MyContext context = new MyContext()) { context.MyMethodShouldBeRightHere(); } Nothing appears in Intellisense, I've gone through the designer.cs file and there's nothing in there, and reflected the DLL...nothing. The code generator is just not generating any code to support this stored proc. I added another table to my database and updated the model, and that came in, so the model will update, it's just specifically ignoring this stored proc. I've tried everything I can think of, and consulted every resource I can find, and as near as I can tell, I'm doing everything right. I'm using EF4, database-first. (I'm pretty sure on the version, anyway. This shows up in the generated file: Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 )

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• Loading city/state from SQL Server to Google Maps?

  - by knawlejj

  I'm trying to make a small application that takes a city & state and geocodes that address to a lat/long location. Right now I am utilizing Google Map's API, ColdFusion, and SQL Server. Basically the city and state fields are in a database table and I want to take those locations and get marker put on a Google Map showing where they are. This is my code to do the geocoding, and viewing the source of the page shows that it is correctly looping through my query and placing a location ("Omaha, NE") in the address field, but no marker, or map for that matter, is showing up on the page: function codeAddress() { <cfloop query="GetLocations"> var address = document.getElementById(<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>).value; if (geocoder) { geocoder.geocode( {<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>: address}, function(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: results[0].geometry.location, title: <cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput> }); } else { alert("Geocode was not successful for the following reason: " + status); } }); } </cfloop> } And here is the code to initialize the map: var geocoder; var map; function initialize() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(42.4167,-90.4290); var myOptions = { zoom: 5, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, title: "Test" }); map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); } I do have a map working that uses lat/long that was hard coded into the database table, but I want to be able to just use the city/state and convert that to a lat/long. Any suggestions or direction? Storing the lat/long in the database is also possible, but I don't know how to do that within SQL.

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• What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

  - by MainMa

  Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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• Knowing which annotation is selected and accessing properties of it.

  - by kevin Mendoza

  So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

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• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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• SQL Server: Can you help me with this query?

  - by rlb.usa

  I want to run a diagnostic report on our MS SQL 2008 database server. I am looping through all of the databases, and then for each database, I want to look at each table. But, when I go to look at each table (with tbl_cursor), it always picks up the tables in the database 'master'. I think it's because of my tbl_cursor selection : SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' How do I fix this? Here's the entire code: SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @table_count INT DECLARE @db_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE database_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM sys.databases where name<>N'master' OPEN database_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN PRINT @db_cursor SET @table_count = 0 DECLARE @table_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE tbl_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' OPEN tbl_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN DECLARE @table_cmd NVARCHAR(255) SET @table_cmd = N'IF NOT EXISTS( SELECT TOP(1) * FROM ' + @table_cursor + ') PRINT N'' Table ''''' + @table_cursor + ''''' is empty'' ' --PRINT @table_cmd --debug EXEC sp_executesql @table_cmd SET @table_count = @table_count + 1 FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor END CLOSE tbl_cursor DEALLOCATE tbl_cursor PRINT @db_cursor + N' Total Tables : ' + CAST( @table_count as varchar(2) ) PRINT N'' -- print another blank line SET @table_count = 0 FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor END CLOSE database_cursor DEALLOCATE database_cursor SET NOCOUNT OFF

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• How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

  - by Bill_BsB

  I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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• "Invalid use of Null" when using Str() with a Null Recordset field, but Str(Null) works fine

  - by Mike Spross

  I'm banging my head against the wall on this one. I was looking at some old database reporting code written in VB6 and case across this line (the code is moving data from a "source" database into a reporting database): rsTarget!VehYear = Trim(Str(rsSource!VehYear)) When rsSource!VehYear is Null, the above line generates an "Invalid use of Null" run-time error. If I break on the above line and type the following in the Immediate pane: ?rsSource!VehYear It outputs Null. Fine, that makes sense. Next, I try to reproduce the error: ?Str(rsSource!VehYear) I get an "Invalid use of Null" error. However, if I type the following into the Immediate window: ?Str(Null) I don't get an error. It simply outputs Null. If I repeat the same experiment with Trim() instead of Str(), everything works fine. ?Trim(rsSource!VehYear) returns Null, as does ?Trim(Null). No run-time errors. So, my question is, how can Str(rsSource!VehYear) possibly throw an "Invalid use of Null" error when Str(Null) does not, when I know that rsSource!VehYear is equal to Null?

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• SpeechRecognition issue

  - by Leosa99 _

  I'm creating a Speech Recognition Application like Siri in vb.net. I have found a database of words (in a .txt file) and i want to insert them in my application but its not working . Here my code : Dim WithEvents reco As New Recognition.SpeechRecognitionEngine Dim IA_VOICE As New SpeechSynthesizer Dim List_Word As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsOneOf("IN database.") Public Sub New() reco.SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice() Dim gram As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsDocument Dim WORD_RULE As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsRule("MOT") LOAD_DATABSE(Application.StartupPath & "\RECO_WORD\DataBase.txt") WORD_RULE.Add(List_Word) gram.Rules.Add(WORD_RULE) gram.Root = WORD_RULE reco.LoadGrammar(New Recognition.Grammar(gram)) reco.RecognizeAsync() End Sub Private Sub reco_RecognizeCompleted(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Speech.Recognition.RecognizeCompletedEventArgs) Handles reco.RecognizeCompleted reco.RecognizeAsync() End Sub Private Sub reco_SpeechRecognized(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Speech.Recognition.RecognitionEventArgs) Handles reco.SpeechRecognized If e.Result.Text = "hi" Then MsgBox("HI!") End If End Sub Sub LOAD_DATABSE(Database_PATH As String) Dim lines() As String = File.ReadAllLines(Database_PATH) Dim numberLinesTotal = lignes.Length Dim numberlignedone As Integer = 0 Dim MOT As New StreamReader(BDD_PATH) While numberlignedone <> numberLinesTota numberlignedone += 1 Dim ITEM As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsItem(MOT.ReadLine) Word_List.Items.Add(ITEMS) 'I think its here that its not working. End While MsgBox("END LOADING") End Sub</code> If you know why its not working... Thanks.

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• Inefficient 'ANY' LINQ clause

  - by Focus

  I have a query that pulls back a user's "feed" which is essentially all of their activity. If the user is logged in the query will be filtered so that the feed not only includes all of the specified user's data, but also any of their friends. The database structure includes an Actions table that holds the user that created the action and a UserFriends table which holds any pairing of friends using a FrienderId and FriendeeId column which map to UserIds. I have set up my LINQ query and it works fine to pull back the data I want, however, I noticed that the query gets turned into X number of CASE clauses in profiler where X is the number of total Actions in the database. This will obviously be horrible when the database has a user base larger than just me and 3 test users. Here's the SQL query I'm trying to achieve: select * from [Action] a where a.UserId = 'GUID' OR a.UserId in (SELECT FriendeeId from UserFriends uf where uf.FrienderId = 'GUID') OR a.UserId in (SELECT FrienderId from UserFriends uf where uf.FriendeeId = 'GUID') This is what I currently have as my LINQ query. feed = feed.Where(o => o.User.UserKey == user.UserKey || db.Users.Any(u => u.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friender.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) || db.Users.Any(u2 => u2.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friendee.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) ))); This query creates this: http://pastebin.com/UQhT90wh That shows up X times in the profile trace, once for each Action in the table. What am I doing wrong? Is there any way to clean this up?

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• jquery with php loading file

  - by Marcus Solv

  I'm trying to use jquery with a simple php code: $('#some').click(function() { <?php require_once('some1.php?name="some' + index + '"'); ?> }); It shows no error, so I don't know what is wrong. In some1 I have: <?php //Start session session_start(); //Include database connection details require_once('../sql/config.php'); //Connect to mysql server $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD); if(!$link) { die('Failed to connect to server: ' . mysql_error()); } //Select database $db = mysql_select_db(DB_DATABASE); if(!$db) { die("Unable to select database"); } //Function to sanitize values received from the form. Prevents SQL injection function clean($str) { $str = @trim($str); if(get_magic_quotes_gpc()) { $str = stripslashes($str); } return mysql_real_escape_string($str); } //Sanitize the POST values $name = clean($_GET['name']); ?> It's not complete because I want to make a sql command (insert). I want when I click in #some to execute that file (create a entry in the table that isn't define yet).

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• how do I get the program to Know which annotation is selected and be able to access properties of it

  - by kevin Mendoza

  So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

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• What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

  - by Curtis White

  This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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• How to convert "0" and "1" to false and true

  - by Chris

  I have a method which is connecting to a database via Odbc. The stored procedure which I'm calling has a return value which from the database side is a 'Char'. Right now I'm grabbing that return value as a string and using it in a simple if statement. I really don't like the idea of comparing a string like this when only two values can come back from the database, 0 and 1. OdbcCommand fetchCommand = new OdbcCommand(storedProc, conn); fetchCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; fetchCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@column ", myCustomParameter); fetchCommand.Parameters.Add("@myReturnValue", OdbcType.Char, 1). Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; fetchCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); string returnValue = fetchCommand.Parameters["@myReturnValue"].Value.ToString(); if (returnValue == "1") { return true; } What would be the proper way to handle this situation. I've tried 'Convert.ToBoolean()' which seemed like the obvious answer but I ran into the 'String was not recognized as a valid Boolean. ' exception being thrown. Am I missing something here, or is there another way to make '1' and '0' act like true and false? Thanks!

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• How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

  - by williamjones

  This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

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• ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

  - by Eric Anastas

  I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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• Generating an NSDictionary from an SQL statement.

  - by Ed Wist

  I am trying to generate an NSDictonary that can be used to populate a listview with data I retrieved from an SQL statement. when I go to create an array and add them it adds the arrays for ALL my keys and not just for the current key. I've tried a removeAllObjects on the array but for some reason that destroys ALL my data that I already put in the dictionary. //open the database if(sqlite3_open([dbPath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sql = "select alphaID, word from words order by word"; sqlite3_stmt *selectStatement; //prepare the select statement int returnValue = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &selectStatement, NULL); if(returnValue == SQLITE_OK) { NSMutableArray *NameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *alphaTemp = [[NSString alloc] init]; //loop all the rows returned by the query. while(sqlite3_step(selectStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *currentAlpha = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 1)]; NSString *definitionName = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 2)]; if (alphaTemp == nil){ alphaTemp = currentAlpha; } if ([alphaTemp isEqualToString:(NSString *)currentAlpha]) { [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } else if (alphaTemp != (NSString *)currentAlpha) { [self.words setObject:NameArray forKey:currentAlpha]; [NameArray removeAllObjects]; [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } } } The Statement above adds all the "keys" but then removes all the array elements for all keys. if I take out the removeAllKeys it adds ALL the array elements for ALL keys. I don't want this I want it to add the array elements FOR the specific key then move on to the next key. in the end I want a NSDictonary with A (array) Alpha (string) Apple (string) B (array) Beta (string) Ball (string) C (array) Code (string) ...

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• Select multi-select form from array

  - by Budove

  Here's the issue. I have a database column called pymnt_meth_pref, which contains a comma separated string of payment methods chosen from a multiselect form. <td>Payment Methods Used:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Cash">I can pay with cash.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Check">I can pay by check.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Credit Card">I can pay by credit card.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Paypal">I can pay with Paypal.<br /> </td> This array is posted to a variable and turned into a comma separated string if (isset($_POST['pyment_meth_pref'])) $pymntmethpref = implode(", ", $_POST['pyment_meth_pref']); if (isset($_POST['pyment_meth_acc'])) $pymntmethacc = implode(", ", $_POST['pyment_meth_acc']); This is then inserted into the database as a comma separated string. What I would like to do, is take this string and apply the values to the original form when the user goes back to the form as 'pre-selected' checkboxes, indicated that the user has already selected those values previously, and keeping those values in the database if they choose to edit any other information in the form. I'm assuming this would need to be done with javascript but if there is a way to do it with PHP I'd rather do it that way.

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• FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

  - by goober

  I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

  - by chucknelson

  I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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