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  • DateChooser is behaving strangly

    - by Tam
    Hi, I'm writing a Flex application and I came accross what I think is a weird problem. I want to create a text box and a DateChooser as the datefield didn't do what I wanted and it's Halo so I can't skin it easily. I want the DateChooser to show when I click on the text input. Here is except from my code: <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" paddingRight="10" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> <s:Button label="Go" width="70" /> </s:Panel> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" visible = "false" change="useDate(event);" mouseOver="changeToNormalState = false;" y="{wholeDate.y + buttonsGroup.y + 20}" x="{wholeDate.x + buttonsGroup.x - 175 }" /> The weird thing is that it work as I wanted if I make it visible = "true" to start but if I have it visible="false" it doesn't work! it shows by the date I select doesn't show in the box as it does if I have it as visible="true" but I don't want it to be visible initially. Any ideas? Thanks, Tam

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  • How to debug browser crash when running Silverlight app

    - by onedozenbagels
    I am on a team of three people who are developing a Silverlight application. On two of our developers' machines the app seems to randomly crash. It never crashes on the third developer's machine. The nature of the crash is that internet explorer just dies with an "Internet Explorer has stopped working" message. The problem details look like this: Problem Event Name: BEX Application Name: IEXPLORE.EXE Application Version: 8.0.6001.18882 Application Timestamp: 4b3ed243 Fault Module Name: StackHash_2cd8 Fault Module Version: 0.0.0.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 00000000 Exception Offset: 0024df00 Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Data: 00000008 OS Version: 6.0.6002.2.2.0.256.6 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 2cd8 Additional Information 2: 0c337fa6c2057a9dbce1860c5e2d8315 Additional Information 3: e13b Additional Information 4: 5da012709e52526a1af19795dc4a33fd Then windows displays this message: "To help protect your computer, Data Execution Prevention has closed Internet Explorer." If I am attached to the app with the Visual Studio debugger the only information I get is this line in the output window: "The program '[2140] iexplore.exe: Silverlight' has exited with code -1073741819 (0xc0000005)." How should I go about debugging this problem? I'm not really sure where to start.

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  • Using Sendkeys in python to press {F12} results in other keys pressed?

    - by ThantiK
    import time from ctypes import * import win32gui import win32com.client as comclt X = 119 Y = 53 def PILColorToRGB(pil_color): """ convert a PIL-compatible integer into an (r, g, b) tuple """ hexstr = '%06x' % pil_color # reverse byte order r, g, b = hexstr[4:], hexstr[2:4], hexstr[:2] r, g, b = [int(n, 16) for n in (r, g, b)] return (r, g, b) wsh = comclt.Dispatch("WScript.Shell") w = win32gui user = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\user32.dll") h = user.GetDC(0) gdi = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\gdi32.dll") while True: FG = w.GetWindowText(w.GetForegroundWindow()) #FG = Foreground window title. if FG == "World of Warcraft": rgb = (PILColorToRGB(gdi.GetPixel(h,X,Y))) #X, Y time.sleep(0.333) #don't check too often. if (rgb[0] >= 130): #While Pixel (X, Y) is Red... #print "%d %d %d" % (rgb[0], rgb[1], rgb[2]) #Debug wsh.SendKeys("{F12}") #Send a key. time.sleep(0.7) #Add some extra down-time if we send the key. else: time.sleep(5) Basically all this code does is read a pixel on the screen, and send a key (F12) if the pixel is red. But when using this code I regularly get some phantom key-code being pressed. The application I'm using this on is obviously world of warcraft, and I have checked that all keybinds are standard keybinds. However randomly it seems I get either an up arrow, or a w pressed, which moves my character forward whenever this code executes (F12 is bound to a macro, unbound from any movement. If I press f12 with a hardware event, it does not exhibit this behavior. What in the world could be going on here?

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  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

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  • Custom ASPNetMembership FailureInformation always null, OnValidatingPassword issue

    - by bigb
    As stated here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.membershipprovider.onvalidatingpassword.aspx "When the ValidatingPassword event has completed, the properties of the ValidatePasswordEventArgs object supplied as the e parameter can be examined to determine whether the current action should be canceled and if a particular Exception, stored in the FailureInformation property, should be thrown." Here is some details/code which really shows why FailureInformation shouldn't be always null http://forums.asp.net/t/991002.aspx if any password security conditions not matched. According with my Membership settings i should get an exception that password does not match password security conditions, but it is not happened. Then i did try to debug System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll(in .NET 4.0 System.Web.Security located here) Framework Code to see whats really happens there, but i cant step into this assembly, may be because of this [TypeForwardedFrom("System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=Neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a")] public abstract class MembershipProvider : ProviderBase Easily i may step into any another .NET 4.0 assembly, but in this one not. I did check, symbols for System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll loaded. Now i have only one idea how ti fix it - to override method OnValidatingPassword(ValidatePasswordEventArgs e). Thats my story. May be some one may help: 1) Any ideas why OnValidatingPassword not working? 2) Any ideas how to step into it?

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  • Has the recent version of subversion dealt with "Access Denied" errors from windows services that mo

    - by Eric LaForce
    Does anyone know if this subversion "bug" has been dealt with? https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/subversion/tags/1.6.9/www/faq.html#windows-access-denied I'm getting occasional "Access Denied" errors on Windows. They seem to happen at random. Why? These appear to be due to the various Windows services that monitor the filesystem for changes (anti-virus software, indexing services, the COM+ Event Notification Service). This is not really a bug in Subversion, which makes it difficult for us to fix. A summary of the current state of the investigation is available here. A workaround that should reduce the incidence rate for most people was implemented in revision 7598; if you have an earlier version, please update to the latest release. Currently I am experiencing this same behavior in version 1.5.6 when I try and do a SVN switch (I have suspected McAfee as the culprit for a while and when I saw this I feel it validates my suspicions). I read through the link given but it seems pretty old, so I didn't know if this FAQ was just outdated and the issue has actually be resolved. Thanks for any help. Configuration: SVN 1.5.6 TortoiseSVN 1.5.9 Build 15518 Windows XP SP3 32-bit

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  • Javascript add a PHP file.

    - by Jordan Pagaduan
    var editing = false; if (document.getElementById && document.createElement) { var butt = document.createElement('BUTTON'); var buttext = document.createTextNode('Ready!'); butt.appendChild(buttext); butt.onclick = saveEdit; } function catchIt(e) { if (editing) return; if (!document.getElementById || !document.createElement) return; if (!e) var obj = window.event.srcElement; else var obj = e.target; while (obj.nodeType != 1) { obj = obj.parentNode; } if (obj.tagName == 'TEXTAREA' || obj.tagName == 'A') return; while (obj.nodeName != 'P' && obj.nodeName != 'HTML') { obj = obj.parentNode; } if (obj.nodeName == 'HTML') return; var x = obj.innerHTML; var y = document.createElement('TEXTAREA'); var z = obj.parentNode; z.insertBefore(y,obj); z.insertBefore(butt,obj); z.removeChild(obj); y.value = x; y.focus(); editing = true; } function saveEdit() { var area = document.getElementsByTagName('TEXTAREA')[0]; var y = document.createElement('P'); var z = area.parentNode; y.innerHTML = area.value; z.insertBefore(y,area); z.removeChild(area); z.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('button')[0]); editing = false; } document.onclick = catchIt; This code is a quick edit and I want to add a PHP script that will UPDATE my database base on the changes on the text.

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  • Help with creating a custom ItemRenderer for Flex 4

    - by elmonty
    I'm trying to create a custom ItemRenderer for a TileList in Flex 4. Here's my renderer: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:ItemRenderer xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" autoDrawBackground="true"> <mx:Image x="0" y="0" source="../images/blank-offer.png" width="160" height="144" smoothBitmapContent="true"/> <s:Label x="5" y="20" text="{data.title}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="16" color="#696565" width="155"/> <s:Label x="5" y="42" text="{data.description}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="8" color="#696565" width="154"/> <mx:Text x="3" y="59" text="{data.details}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="8" color="#696565" width="157" height="65"/> <mx:Text x="3" y="122" text="{data.disclaimer}" fontFamily="Verdana" fontSize="5" color="#696565" width="157" height="21"/> </s:ItemRenderer> Here's my tile list: <mx:TileList x="0" y="0" width="100%" height="100%" id="tileList" creationComplete="tileList_creationCompleteHandler(event)" dataProvider="{getDataResult.lastResult}" labelField="title" itemRenderer="renderers.OfferLibraryListRenderer"></mx:TileList> When I run the app, I get this error: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert renderers::OfferLibraryListRenderer@32fce0a1 to mx.controls.listClasses.IListItemRenderer.

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  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • YUI: ensuring DOM elements and scripts are ready

    - by dound
    If I put my inline script after the DOM elements it interacts with, should I still use YUI 3's domready event? I haven't noticed any problems, and it seems like I can count on the browser loading the page sequentially. (I already use YUI().use('node', ... to make sure the YUI functions I need have been loaded since the YUI script is a separate file.) Is there a way to speed up the loading of widgets like YUI 2's calendar? I load the appropriate script in <head> element of my page. I use YUI().use('yui2-calendar', ... to make sure the Calendar widget is available. Unfortunately, this causes a short but noticeable delay when I load my page with the calendar. If I omit the YUI().use('yui2-calendar', ... code then it shows up without a noticeable delay - but I guess this could cause the Calendar to not show up at all if the YUI script doesn't load in time? With regards to #2, is it possible to reduce the visual artifact of the calendar not being present and then showing up? I've made it slightly better by specifying a height and width for the parent div so that at least the space is already allocated = minimal shifting around when it does load.

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  • Dojo: dojo onblur events

    - by Jane Wilkie
    Hi guys, I have a form setup with dojo 1.5. I am using a dijit.form.ComboBox and a dijit.form.TextBox The Combobox has values like "car","bike","motorcycle" and the textbox is meant to be an adjective to the Combobox. So it doesn't matter what is in the Combobox but if the ComboBox does have a value then something MUST be filled in the TextBox. Optionally, if nothing is in the ComboBox, then nothing can be in the TextBox and that is just fine. In fact if something isn't in the Combobox then nothing MUST be in the text box. In regular coding I would just use an onBlur event on the text box to go to a function that checks to see if the ComboBox has a value. I see in dojo that this doesn't work... Code example is below... Vehicle: <input dojoType="dijit.form.ComboBox" store="xvarStore" value="" searchAttr="name" name="vehicle_1" id="vehicle_1" /> Descriptor: <input type="text" dojoType="dijit.form.TextBox" value="" class=lighttext style="width:350px;height:19px" id="filter_value_1" name="filter_value_1" /> My initial attempt was to add an onBlur within the Descriptor's <input> tag but discovered that that doesn't work. How does Dojo handle this? Is it via a dojo.connect parameter? Even though in the example above the combobox has an id of "vehicle_1" and the text box has an id of "filter_value_1", there can be numerous comboboxes and textboxes numbering sequentially upward. (vehicle_2, vehicle_3, etc) Any advice or links to resources would be greatly appreciated. Janie

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  • Adding a Combobox to a DataGrid in Silverlight

    - by bplus
    I can add a Combobox to a DataGrid using following xmal: <local:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="SomeHeader" Width="106" HeaderStyle="{StaticResource headerAlignRightStyle}" CellStyle="{StaticResource cellAlignRightStyle}"> <local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeProp}" Margin="4"/> </DataTemplate> </local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="SomeCombo" SelectionChanged="SomeCombo_SelectionChanged" ItemsSource="{Binding SomeList}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> </DataTemplate> </local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> </local:DataGridTemplateColumn> However what I can't figure out is a sensible way to get the row that was combox is bound to. i.e. when handling the combobox SelectionChanged event I have no way of knowing what what row the combobox belongs to. Particularly I don't know what object in the DataGrid datasource that the combobox is refering to. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • jqModal/JQuery problem, div not updating with new content?

    - by echoesofspring
    I'm hoping someone can point a relative jQuery/jqModal newbie in the right direction for debugging this error. I'm loading an html fragment into a div and then use jqModal to display that div as a modal dialog. The problem is that the div is displayed but not with my updated html. I'm showing my jqModal dialog in the response from a jquery call, function foo is called from an onclick event: function foo(url) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(msg) { $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg); $('#ajaxmodal').jqmShow(); } }); } ajaxmodal is a simple div. Initially I thought the problem must be in the html snippet (msg) I'm passing to the callback, but I don't think that's it, I get the err (see below) even when I comment out the $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg) line or pass it hardcode html. I think I have jqModal configured correctly, other calls using our ajaxmodal div work correctly, I'm able to display the modal, update the content based the server response, etc. When I try to debug in firebug, I get the following error following the call to .jqmShow(). I have seen the err on occasion in other places when it seemed maybe the page hadn't loaded yet, and I confess I'm confused about that, since we've wrapped our jqModal selectors in a $(document).ready() call, so maybe I have a larger issue that this call just happens to trigger? From the jquery.jqModal.js file, line 64: js err is $(':input:visible',h.w)[0] is undefined in the line: f=function(h){try{$(':input:visible',h.w)[0].focus();}catch(_){}} When I step through this in firefox, h.w[0] seems ok, it references our '#ajaxmodal' div. Thanks in advance for any suggestions in tracking this down?

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  • Trigger element's onclick method with JQuery [ASP.NET]

    - by blu
    I have an ASP.NET server control that inherits from CheckBoxList that renders the controls with a UL and LIs. The control is set to AutoPostBack. Markup: <div id="foo"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" onclick="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(..." ... /> <label ... /> </li> </ul> </div> I would like to trigger the JavaScript that is rendered on the CheckBox when the parent LI is clicked. Here is what I have so far: $("#foo li").click(function() { $(this).find("input:eq(0)").trigger("click"); }); This fires a postback in FF 3.x but the event handler in the codebehind is not fired. In IE 7 a script error comes up and the browser just kind of hangs there for a bit then reloads the page. How should I be doing this?

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  • Problem with UIScrollView

    - by leon
    Hi, Sorry for long winded post. I am trying to understand UIScrollView and running into very simple problem. I am creating a scroll view I am making this view 1.5 size larger then normal size Using UIScrollView I expect to see some edge elements of view out of bounds, but should be able to pan the view therefore bringing missing elements back to the visible area. However I am seeing that I can't just pan/scroll view anyway I want, instead view always wants to scroll up, as soon as move away my finger from the screen (touch end event). I am not handling any touches, etc - I just want to understand why does not scaled view stay put where I scroll it? CGRect viewFrame = self.view.frame ; viewFrame.size.width *= 1.5; viewFrame.size.height *= 1.5; CGSize mySize = viewFrame.size; [ ((UIScrollView *) self.view) setContentSize: mySize]; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeScale(1.5, 1.5); What I really trying to accomplish is something similar to Number on iPad (the same code will work on iPhone): There is a view with lots of controls on it (order entry form) User can zoom into the entire form so all elements look bigger user can pan the form therefore bringing various elements into the visible area of the screen. It seems that UIScrollView can should be able to handle zoom and pan actions (for now I am using Affine Transform to zoom in to the order entry form and iPad) Thanks

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  • How to know when StatusBar size changed (iPhone)

    - by JOM
    I have UITabBarController with 2 tabs. One resizes just fine, when StatusBar size changes (emulator "Toggle In-Call Status Bar" menu item). The other one doesn't. The problematic tab item contains a static view, which dynamically loads one or another view depending on certain things. While getting this setup working I discovered that main tab view did NOT automagically send e.g. viewWillAppear and viewWillDisappear messages to my dynamic subviews. Apple docs explained this was because dynamically added views were not recognized by the system. @interface MyTabViewController : UIViewController { UIView *mainView; FirstViewController *aController; SecondViewController *bController; } ... if (index == 0) { self.aController = [[FirstViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.mainView addSubview:aController.view]; [self.aController viewWillAppear:YES]; } How can I get StatusBar size changed event into my dynamic subviews? The "didChangeStatusBarFrame" doesn't work, as documented elsewhere.

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  • Scrolling with two fingers with a UIScrollView

    - by Craig
    I have an app where my main view accepts both touchesBegan and touchesMoved, and therefore takes in single finger touches, and drags. I want to implement a UIScrollView, and I have it working, but it overrides the drags, and therefore my contentView never receives them. I'd like to implement a UIScrollview, where a two finger drag indicates a scroll, and a one finger drag event gets passed to my content view, so it performs normally. Do I need create my own subclass of UIScrollView? Here's my code from my appDelegate where I implement the UIScrollView. @implementation MusicGridAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; @synthesize scrollView; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after app launch //[application setStatusBarHidden:YES animated:NO]; //[window addSubview:viewController.view]; scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(720, 480); scrollView.showsHorizontalScrollIndicator = YES; scrollView.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = YES; scrollView.delegate = self; [scrollView addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [scrollView release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; }

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  • Problem retrieving multiple instances of the same asp.net session variable

    - by sw1sh
    I'm having problems with retrieving multiple instances of a session variable from an InProc session state. In the following code I persist a simple BusinessObject into a session variable on the Page_Load event. On the click of a button I try to retrieve the object back into 2 new declared instances of the same BusinessObject. All works great until I change one of the properties in the first instance, it changes the second instance as well. Is this normal behaviour? I would have thought as these were new instances they wouldn’t demonstrate static behaviour? Any ideas where I'm going wrong? Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then ' create a new instance of a business object and set a containg variable Dim BO As New BusinessObject BO.SomeVariable = "test" ' persist to inproc session Session("BO") = BO End If End Sub Protected Sub btnRetrieveSessionVariable_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnRetrieveSessionVariable.Click ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO1 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO1 = Session("BO") ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO2 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO2 = Session("BO") ' change the property value on the first instance BO1.SomeVariable = "test2" ' why has this changed on both instances? Dim strBO1Property As String = BO1.SomeVariable Dim strBO2Property As String = BO2.SomeVariable End Sub ' simple BusinessObject class Public Class BusinessObject Private _SomeVariable As String Public Property SomeVariable() As String Get Return _SomeVariable End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _SomeVariable = value End Set End Property End Class

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  • Use Google Calendar UI but showing only filtered events

    - by Edwin
    I have just started using Google Calendar API (using Python client). I'm basically developing a web app for a school with Django. What I'd like to achieve is something like this: To make things simple for now, I have 1 Google account and all events will be created in the calendar under that account (this is the school calendar). The calendar will be made public. When a class is created by a teacher, the class schedule will be automatically added as an event in the Google Calendar. When a student logs in, he can see the school calendar, showing only schedules from the classes that he's registered in. I think I can filter the calendar feeds to show only class schedules that a student is registered in using Google Data API. The problem is, how can I display Google Calendar on my web app using Google Calendar UI to show only those filtered events? I can use Google Calendar UI with the provided embeddable HTML snippet, but I can't control/filter events with that (i.e. all events in the school calendar will be displayed). Or perhaps I'm missing something? I read the Data API guide and the Publishing tool doc but I can't seem to find this information. THanks in advance!

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  • Why I cannot get correct class of a custom class through isKindOfClass?

    - by Anthony Chan
    Hi, I've created a custom class AnimalView which is a subclass of UIView containing a UILabel and a UIImageView. @interface AnimalView : UIView { UILabel *nameLabel; UIImageView *picture; } Then I added in several AnimalView onto the ViewController.view. In the touchesBegan:withEvent: method, I wanted to detect if the touched object is an AnimalView or not. Here is the code for the viewController: @implementation AppViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { UIScrollView *scrollView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:... [self.view addSubview scrollview]; for (int i = 0; i<10; i++) { AnimalView *newAnimal = [[AnimalView alloc] init]; // customization of newAnimal [scrollview addSubview:newAnimal; } } - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; UIView *hitView = touch.view; if ([hitView isKindOfClass:[AnimalView class]]) { AnimalView *animal = (AnimalView *)hitView; [animal doSomething]; } } However, nothing happened when I clicked on the animal. When I checked the class of hitView by NSLog(@"%@", [hitView class]), it always shows UIView instead of AnimalView. Is it true that the AnimalView changed to a UIView when it is added onto the ViewController? Is there any way I can get back the original class of a custom class?

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  • How to prepopulate an Outlook MailItem and avoiding a com Exception from the object model guard

    - by torrente
    Hi, I work for a company that develops a CRM tool and offers integration with MS Office(2003 & 2007) from windows XP to 7. (I'm working using Win7) My task is to call an Outlook instance (using C#) from this CRM tool when the user wants to send an email and prepopulate with data of the CRM tool (email, recipient, etc..) All of this already works just fine. The problem I'm having is that Outlook's "object model guard" is throwing com Exception (Operation aborted (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004004 (E_ABORT))) the moment I try to read a protected value from the mailItem (such as mail.bodyHTML). Example Snippet: using MSOutlook = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook; //untrusted Instance _outlook = new MSOutlook.Application(); MSOutlook.MailItem mail = (MSOutlook.MailItem)_outlook.CreateItem(MSOutlook.OlItemType.olMailItem); //this where the Exception occurs string outlookStdHTMLBody = mail.HTMLBody; I've done quite a bit of reading and know that my Outlook Instance (derived by using new Application) is considered untrusted and therefore the "omg" kicks in. I do have a workaround for development: I'm running VS2010 as Administrator and if I run Outlook as Administrator as well - all is good. I suppose this is due to them having the same integrity levels(high) and the UAC(?) is not complaining. But that just ain't the way to go for deployment. Now the question is: Is there a way to obtain a trusted instance of Outlook so that I can avoid this exception? I've already read that when developing an Office Add-In using VSTO one can obtain a trusted Instance from the OnComplete event and/or using "ThisAddin" But I "merely" want to start an outlook instance and preopulate it, and do not want to develop an Add-In since this is not the requirement. And to make it clear - I have no problem with pop ups informing the user that outlook is being accessed - I just want to get rid of the exception! So how can I get around this problem using code? Any help is highly appreciated! Thomas

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  • presentModalViewController does not want to work when called from a protocol method

    - by johnbdh
    I have a subview that when double tapped a protocol method on the subview's parent view controller is called like this... - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *theTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (theTouch.tapCount == 1) { } else if (theTouch.tapCount == 2) { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(editEvent:)]) { [self.delegate editEvent:dictionary]; } } } Here is the protocol method with the dictionary consuming code removed... - (void)editEvent:(NSDictionary){ EventEditViewController *eventEditViewController = [[EventEditViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"EventEditViewController" bundle:nil]; eventEditViewController.delegate = self; navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:eventEditViewController]; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [eventEditViewController release]; } The protocol method is called and runs without any errors but the modal view does not present itself. I temporarily copied the protocol method's code to an IBAction method for one of the parent's view button's to isolate it from the subview. When I tap this button the modal view works fine. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? Why does it work when executed from a button on the parent view, and not from a protocol method called from a subview. Here is what I have tried so far to work around the problem... Restarted xCode and the simulator Ran on the device (iTouch) Presenting eventEditViewController instead of navigationController Using Push instead of presentModal. delaying the call to the protocol with performSelector directly to the protocol, to another method in the subview which calls the protocol method, from the protocol method to another method with the presentModal calls. Using a timer. I have it currently setup so that the protocol method calls a known working method that presents a different view. Before calling presentModalViewController it pops a UIAlertView which works every time, but the modal view refuses to display when called via the protocol method. I'm stumped. Perhaps it has something to do with the fact that I am calling the protocol method from a UIView class instead of a UIViewController class. Maybe I need to create a UIViewController for the subView?? Thanks, John

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  • Winforms: How to speed up Invalidate()?

    - by Pedery
    I'm developing a retained mode drawing application in GDI+. The application can draw simple shapes to a canvas and perform basic editing. The math that does this is optimized to the last byte and is not an issue. I'm drawing on a panel that is using the built-in Controlstyles.DoubleBuffer. Now, my problem arises if I run my app maximized on a big monitor (HD in my case). If I try to draw a line from one corner of the (big) canvas to the diagonally oposite other, it will start to lag and the CPU goes high up. Each graphical object in my app has a boundingbox. Thus, when I invalidate the boundingbox of a line that goes from one corner of the maximized app to the oposite diagonal one, that boundingbox is virtually as big as the canvas. When a user is drawing a line, this invalidation of the boundingbox thus happens on the mousemove event, and there is a clear lag visible. This lag also exists if the line is the only object on the canvas. I've tried to optimize this in many ways. If I draw a shorter line, the CPU and the lag goes down. If I remove the Invalidate() and keep all other code, the app is quick. If I use a Region (that only spans the figure) to invalidate instead of the boundingbox, it is just as slow. If I split the boundingbox into a range of smaller boxes that lie back to back, thus reducing the invalidation area, no visible performance gain can be seen. Thus I'm at a loss here. How can I speed up the invalidation? On a side note, both Paint.Net and Mspaint suffers from the same shortcommings. Word and PowerPoint however, seem to be able to paint a line as described above with no lag and no CPU load at all. Thus it's possible to achieve the desired results, the question is how?

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  • treeview loses data when page is being refreshed in asp.net

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a treeview and I written a code for his "treeNodePopulate" event: protected void ycActiveTree_TreeNodePopulate(object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { if (Application["idList"] != null && e.Node.Depth == 0) { string[] words = ((String)Application["idList"]).Split(' '); // Yellow Card details TreeNode child = new TreeNode(""); // Go over all the yellow card details and populate the treeview for (int i = 1; i < words.Length; i++) { child.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.None; // Same yellow card if (words[i] != "*") { // End of details and start of point ip's if (words[i] == "$") { // Add the yellow card node TreeNode yellowCardNode = new TreeNode(child.Text); yellowCardNode.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.Expand; e.Node.ChildNodes.Add(yellowCardNode); child.Text = ""; } // yellow card details else { child.Text = child.Text + words[i] + " "; } } // End of yellow card else { child.PopulateOnDemand = false; child.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.None; // Populate the yellow card node e.Node.ChildNodes[e.Node.ChildNodes.Count - 1].ChildNodes.Add(child); TreeNode moveChild = new TreeNode("Move To Reviewed"); moveChild.PopulateOnDemand = false; moveChild.SelectAction = TreeNodeSelectAction.Select; e.Node.ChildNodes[e.Node.ChildNodes.Count - 1].ChildNodes.Add(moveChild); child = new TreeNode(""); } } Application["idList"] = null; } } I want the treenode to get the data from the Application variable and then nullify the Application variable so that the tree will take data from Applcation only if there is something in it (I put data into the application from another page and then redirect to this page) But when I refresh this page the data in the treenode isnt being saved. I mean after the refresh the Application is null so he isnt doing anything. The question is why is the data that I put in the treenode earlier isnt being saved? The "enableViewState" property is set to "true".. Thanks in advance, Greg

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