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  • How to resolve CGDirectDisplayID changing issues on newer multi-GPU Apple laptops in Core Foundation

    - by Dave Gallagher
    In Mac OS X, every display gets a unique CGDirectDisplayID number assigned to it. You can use CGGetActiveDisplayList() or [NSScreen screens] to access them, among others. Per Apple's docs: A display ID can persist across processes and system reboot, and typically remains constant as long as certain display parameters do not change. On newer mid-2010 MacBook Pro's, Apple started using auto-switching Intel/nVidia graphics. Laptops have two GPU's, a low-powered Intel, and a high-powered nVidia. Previous dual-GPU laptops (2009 models) didn't have auto-GPU switching, and required the user to make a settings change, logoff, and then logon again to make a GPU switch occur. Even older systems only had one GPU. There's an issue with the mid-2010 models where CGDirectDisplayID's don't remain the same when a display switches from one GPU to the next. For example: Laptop powers on. Built-In LCD Screen is driven by Intel chipset. Display ID: 30002 External Display is plugged in. Built-In LCD Screen switches to nVidia chipset. It's display ID changes: 30004 External Display is driven by nVidia chipset. ...at this point, the Intel chipset is dormant... User unplugs External Display. Built-In LCD Screen switches back to Intel chipset. It's display ID changes back to original: 30002 My question is, how can I match an old display ID to a new display ID when they alter due to a GPU change? Thought about: I've noticed that the display ID only changes by 2, but I don't have enough test Mac's available to determine if this is common to all new MacBook Pro's, or just mine. Kind of a kludge if "just check for display ID's which are +/-2 from one another" works, anyway. Tried: CGDisplayRegisterReconfigurationCallback(), which notifies before-and-after when displays are going to change, has no matching logic. Putting something like this inside a method registered with it doesn't work: // Run before display settings change: CGDirectDisplayID directDisplayID = ...; io_service_t servicePort = CGDisplayIOServicePort(directDisplayID); CFDictionaryRef oldInfoDict = IODisplayCreateInfoDictionary(servicePort, kIODisplayMatchingInfo); // ...display settings change... // Run after display settings change: CGDirectDisplayID directDisplayID = ...; io_service_t servicePort = CGDisplayIOServicePort(directDisplayID); CFDictionaryRef newInfoDict = IODisplayCreateInfoDictionary(servicePort, kIODisplayMatchingInfo); BOOL match = IODisplayMatchDictionaries(oldInfoDict, newInfoDict, 0); if (match) NSLog(@"Displays are a match"); else NSLog(@"Displays are not a match"); What's happening above is I'm caching oldInfoDict before display settings change, letting them change, and then comparing it to newInfoDict by using IODisplayMatchDictionaries(), which will say either "yes, both displays are the same!" or "no, both displays are not the same." Unfortunately, it does not return YES if GPU's have changed for a monitor. Example of the dictionary's it's comparing: // oldInfoDict (Display ID: 30002) oldInfoDict: { DisplayProductID = 40144; DisplayVendorID = 1552; IODisplayLocation = "IOService:/AppleACPIPlatformExpert/PCI0@0/AppleACPIPCI/IGPU@2/AppleIntelFramebuffer/display0/AppleBacklightDisplay"; } // newInfoDict (Display ID: 30004) newInfoDict: { DisplayProductID = 40144; DisplayVendorID = 1552; IODisplayLocation = "IOService:/AppleACPIPlatformExpert/PCI0@0/AppleACPIPCI/P0P2@1/IOPCI2PCIBridge/GFX0@0/NVDA,Display-A@0/NVDA/display0/AppleBacklightDisplay"; } As you can see, the IODisplayLocation key changes when GPU's are switched, hence IODisplayMatchDictionaries() doesn't work. I can, theoretically, compared just the DisplayProductID and DisplayVendorID keys, but I'm writing end-user software, and am worried of a situation where users have two or more identical monitors plugged in. Any help is greatly appreciated! :)

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  • Writing reports with Perl

    - by georgemp
    Hi, I am trying to write out multiple report files using perl. Each file has the same structure, but with different data. So, my basic code looks something like #begin code our $log_fh; open %log_fh, ">" . $logfile our $rep; if (multipleReports) { while (@reports) { printReport($report[0]); } } sub printReports { open $rep, ">" . $[0]; printHeaders(); printBody(); close $rep; } sub printHeader() { format HDR = @>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> $generatedLine . format HDR_TOP = . $rep->format_name("HDR"); $rep->format_top_name("HDR_TOP"); $generatedLine = "test"; write($rep); $generatedLine = "next item"; write($rep); $generatedLine = "last header item"; write($rep); } sub printBody #There are multiple such sections in my code. For simplicity, I have just shown 1 here { #declare own header and header top. Set report to use these and print items to $rep } #end code The above is just a high level of the code I am using and I hope I have captured all the salient points. However, for some reason, I get the first report file output correctly. The second file instead of having in the first section test next item last item reads last item last item last item I have tried a whole lot of options primarily around autoflush, but, for the life of me can't figure out why it is doing this. I am using Perl 5.8.2. Any help/pointers much appreciated. Thanks George

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  • Wireless internet connection connects but internet does not work (no packets received). Wired does.

    - by Rodney
    When I connect my PC via ethernet cable to my ADSL router it works fine. When I connect via Wireless it connects and the internet will work for a random amount of time and then stop working. It stays connected with a strong signal but no packets are received. My laptop/iphone are right next to it and wireless works fine. If I open the Wireless USB status, it says it is connected to my SSID with full strength (54 mps - I am 3 meteres away from my router) and the activty shows as Packets 594 SENT and 105 RECEIVED (this goes up VERY slowly) I have tried the following: Turned off anitvirus and firewall completely. Tested the wifi signal- I am writing this on my laptop which is next to my PC and also has full wifi strength. Tried a different wireless adapter - I dug out an old PCI wireless card - it does the exact same thing. Compared all wireless settings to my laptop. I can ping google.com and it replies (sometimes with packet loss) When I reboot the PC it will connect for a minute or two (random time) and then just stops again. I tried Firefox, IE etc. no joy I have updated all latest versions (Netgear WG111v2) and drivers Checked Event Log - nothing unusual Ping the router (and even connect as admin for the few minutes when the internet does work) Changed the MTU down to 1200 using DrTCP Checked Device Manager for conflicts - none. I ping the router from the PC (192.168.0.10 - 192.168.0.1) and it replies with 4 packets. BUT, on my router admin page (which I access via http on my laptop wirelessly) - if I ping 192.168.0.10 all packets timeout (pinging my laptop 192.168.0.12 works fine) My router admin page shows the leased IP address for 192.168.0.10 (ie it is definitely talking to the router initially) Now I am out of ideas - please help. I think it is an OS/Software issue as I have tried 2 different wireless adapaters (PCI and USB) with the same result but all other wireless devices work fine around mine). It's not the firewall. It is getting assigned an IP address correctly (my PC gets 192.168.0.10, my laptop is .12) It is assigned by DHCP. As soon as I plug in the ethernet cable it all works fine. Repairing the adapter sometimes helps but it will always stop working after a random time. The wireless adapter always shows as connected with Excellent signal but the internet does not work. I am running Windows XP SP3 and have tried a Netgear WG111v2 USB adapter. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: The internet seems to be working, it is just either sending packets too small or slow to work (some small pages load bits of them very slowly but then hang). XP seems to have a networking diagnostic app - here is the output: Last diagnostic run time: 08/30/10 08:16:38 IP Configuration Diagnostic Invalid IP address info Valid IP address detected: 192.168.0.10 IP Layer Diagnostic Corrupted IP routing table info The default route is valid info The loopback route is valid info The local host route is valid info The local subnet route is valid Invalid ARP cache entries action The ARP cache has been flushed Gateway Diagnostic Gateway info The following proxy configuration is being used by IE: Automatically Detect Settings:Disabled Automatic Configuration Script: Proxy Server: Proxy Bypass list: info This computer has the following default gateway entry(ies): 192.168.0.1 info This computer has the following IP address(es): 192.168.0.10 info The default gateway is in the same subnet as this computer info The default gateway entry is a valid unicast address info The default gateway address was resolved via ARP in 1 try(ies) info The default gateway was reached via ICMP Ping in 1 try(ies) info TCP port 80 on host 65.55.12.249 was successfully reached info The Internet host www.microsoft.com was successfully reached info The default gateway is OK DNS Client Diagnostic DNS - Not a home user scenario info Using Web Proxy: no info Resolving name ok for (www.microsoft.com): yes No DNS servers DNS failure HTTP, HTTPS, FTP Diagnostic HTTP, HTTPS, FTP connectivity info FTP (Passive): Successfully connected to ftp.microsoft.com. info HTTP: Successfully connected to www.microsoft.com. warn HTTPS: Error 12002 connecting to www.microsoft.com: The operation timed out warn HTTPS: Error 12002 connecting to www.passport.net: The operation timed out error Could not make an HTTPS connection. info Redirecting user to support call WinSock Diagnostic WinSock status info All base service provider entries are present in the Winsock catalog. info The Winsock Service provider chains are valid. info Provider entry MSAFD Tcpip [TCP/IP] passed the loopback communication test. info Provider entry MSAFD Tcpip [UDP/IP] passed the loopback communication test. info Provider entry RSVP UDP Service Provider passed the loopback communication test. info Provider entry RSVP TCP Service Provider passed the loopback communication test. info Connectivity is valid for all Winsock service providers. Wireless Diagnostic Wireless - Service disabled Wireless - User SSID action User input required: Specify network name or SSID Wireless - First time setup info The Wireless Network name (SSID) to which the user would like to connect = RodSof Wifi. Wireless - Radio off info Valid IP address detected: 192.168.0.10 Wireless - Out of range Wireless - Hardware issue Wireless - Novice user Wireless - Ad-hoc network Wireless - Less preferred Wireless - 802.1x enabled Wireless - Configuration mismatch Wireless - Low SNR Network Adapter Diagnostic Network location detection info Using home Internet connection Network adapter identification info Network connection: Name=Local Area Connection 2, Device=Realtek RTL8168C(P)/8111C(P) PCI-E Gigabit Ethernet NIC, MediaType=LAN, SubMediaType=LAN info Network connection: Name=Wireless USB, Device=NETGEAR WG111v2 54Mbps Wireless USB 2.0 Adapter, MediaType=LAN, SubMediaType=WIRELESS info Both Ethernet and Wireless connections available, prompting user for selection action User input required: Select network connection info Wireless connection selected Network adapter status info Network connection status: Connected HTTP, HTTPS, FTP Diagnostic HTTP, HTTPS, FTP connectivity info FTP (Active): Successfully connected to ftp.microsoft.com. warn HTTP: Error 12007 connecting to www.microsoft.com: The server name or address could not be resolved warn HTTP: Error 12002 connecting to www.hotmail.com: The operation timed out warn HTTPS: Error 12002 connecting to www.passport.net: The operation timed out warn HTTPS: Error 12002 connecting to www.microsoft.com: The operation timed out error Could not make an HTTP connection. error Could not make an HTTPS connection.

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • How do I get ELMAH to work with SQL Server (permission problems)

    - by Gary McGill
    I've got ELMAH working on my (Cassini) development server, and was quite happy with it, but now that I'm trying to move everything to my production server (IIS7), the honeymoon looks like being over. I've got past the "gotcha" with IIS7, which frankly could have been better highlighted in the documentation, and if I just use the in-memory log then it works. However, I'm trying to get it to use the SQL Server log (as I do on my development system), and I'm getting an error along the lines of: The EXECUTE permission was denied on the object ELMAH_GetErrorsXml Well, fine. I know how to grant database permissions, but I'm really struggling to understand which user and which stored procs/tables I need to grant access to. The thing that's really confusing me is that I didn't have to do anything like this to get it to work on my development server. The only difference I can see is that on my development server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\IUSR, whereas on my production server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE. (It's just using a trusted connection so I've not explicitly configured it to do that - I presume it's to do with the web server). UPDATE: I've since established that because I'm using Cassini, it was actually logging in as me (an admin) and not IUSR, which explains why I didn't get any permission problems. On my development server, the IUSR account is a member of the public database role, and has access to the required database (again as "public"). There's no explicit granting of object-level permissions. [See update above - this is irrelevant]. On my production server, I've added NETWORK SERVICE in exactly the same way (public database role, explicit access to the database as "public"). Yet, I get this permission error. Why?!! [See update above - the only reason I don't get a permission error is because I'm running as an admin]. And, of course, if the fact that it works locally is just "luck", I will need to know which SPs/tables to grant access to. My guess would be all 3 SPs and not the table, but it would be good (again) to see some documentation that makes this explicit.

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  • PHP behaves weird, mixing up HTML markup.

    - by adardesign
    Thanks for looking on this problem. I have a page that is totally valid page, and there is a PHP loop that brings in a <li> for each entry of the table. When i check this page locally it looks 100% OK, but when veiwing the page online the left side bar (which creates this markup is broken randomly mixing <div>'s and <li>'s and i have no clue what the problem is. See page (problem is on the left side) php code <?php do { ?> <li class="clear-block" id="<?php echo $row_Recordset1['penSKU']; ?>"> <a title="Click to view the <?php echo $row_Recordset1['penName']; ?> collection" rel="<?php echo $row_Recordset1['penSKU']; ?>"> <img src="prodImages/small/<?php echo $row_Recordset1['penSKU']; ?>.png" alt="" /> <div class="prodInfoCntnr"> <div class="basicInfo"> <span class="prodName"><?php echo $row_Recordset1['penName']; ?></span> <span class="prodSku"><?php echo $row_Recordset1['penSKU']; ?></span> </div> <div class="secondaryInfo"> <span>As low as .<?php echo $row_Recordset1['price25000']; ?>¢ <!--<em>(R)</em>--></span> <div class="colorPlacholder" rel="<?php echo $row_Recordset1['penColors']; ?>"></div> </div> </div> <div class="additPenInfo"> <div class="imprintInfo"><span>Imprint area: </span><?php echo $row_Recordset1['imprintArea']; ?></div> <div class="colorInfo"><span>Available in: </span><?php echo $row_Recordset1['penColors']; ?></div> <table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <th>Amount</th> <th>500</th> <th>1,000</th> <th>2,500</th> <th>5,000</th> <th>10,000</th> <th>20,000</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Price <span>(R)</span></td> <td><?php echo $row_Recordset1['price500'];?>¢</td> <td><?php echo $row_Recordset1['price1000'];?>¢</td> <td><?php echo $row_Recordset1['price2500'];?>¢</td> <td><?php echo $row_Recordset1['price5000'];?>¢</td> <td>Please Contact</td> <td>Please Contact</td> </tr> </table> </div> </a> </li> <?php } while ($row_Recordset1 = mysql_fetch_assoc($Recordset1)); ?>

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  • jquery ajax error cannot find url outside of debug mode

    - by John Orlandella Jr.
    I inherited some code two weeks ago that is using the jquery.ajax method to connect to a .NET web service. Here is the piece of code give me the trouble... if (MSCTour.AppSettings.OFFLINE !== 'TRUE') { $.ajax({ url: url, data: json, type: "POST", contentType: "application/json", timeout: 10000, dataType: "json", // not "json" we'll parse success: function(res){ if (!callback) { return; } /* // *** Use json library so we can fix up MS AJAX dates */ var result = ""; if (res !== "") { try { result = $.evalJSON(res); } catch (e) { result = {}; bare = true; } } /* // *** Bare message IS result */ if (bare) { callback(result); return; } /* // *** Wrapped message contains top level object node // *** strip it off */ for (var property in result) { callback(result[property]); break; } }, error: function(xhr,status,error){ if (status === 'parsererror') {} else {return error;} }, complete: function(res, status){ if (callback) { if ((status != 'success' && status != 'error') || status === 'parsererror' || (status === 'timeout' && res !== '')) { try { result = $.secureEvalJSON(res); } catch (e) { result = {}; bare = true; } callback(res); } } return; } }); } The url variable at this point equals /testsite/service.svc/GetItems Now here is where my problem lies... When running this site out of debug mode through visual studio I am not having any problem connecting to the database through the web service and seeing all my data, for both viewing and updating. When I go through the normal web server for the same site, on the same page, no data is showing up. When I put a break on the error portion of the code above in firebug this is information I am getting in the image linked below. link text I am getting what appears to be a 404 error, but when I look on the server all of the files are in the right place... coupled with the fact that it works when in debug mode, I think I am slowly going crazy staring at these same lines of code trying to find the needle in the haystack. Any help or just a direction to look in would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Configuring Hibernate logging using Log4j XML config file?

    - by James McMahon
    I haven't been able to find any documentation on how to configure Hibernate's logging using the XML style configuration file for Log4j. Is this even possible or do I have use a properties style configuration file to control Hibernate's logging? If anyone has any information or links to documentation it would appreciated. EDIT: Just to clarify, I am looking for example of the actual XML syntax to control Hibernate. EDIT2: Here is what I have in my XML config file. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE log4j:configuration SYSTEM "log4j.dtd"> <log4j:configuration xmlns:log4j="http://jakarta.apache.org/log4j/"> <appender name="console" class="org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender"> <param name="Threshold" value="info"/> <param name="Target" value="System.out"/> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%d{ABSOLUTE} [%t] %-5p %c{1} - %m%n"/> </layout> </appender> <appender name="rolling-file" class="org.apache.log4j.RollingFileAppender"> <param name="file" value="Program-Name.log"/> <param name="MaxFileSize" value="1000KB"/> <!-- Keep one backup file --> <param name="MaxBackupIndex" value="4"/> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%d [%t] %-5p %l - %m%n"/> </layout> </appender> <root> <priority value ="debug" /> <appender-ref ref="console" /> <appender-ref ref="rolling-file" /> </root> </log4j:configuration> Logging works fine but I am looking for a way to step down and control the hibernate logging in way that separate from my application level logging, as it currently is flooding my logs. I have found examples of using the preference file to do this, I was just wondering how I can do this in a XML file.

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  • How do I prevent programmatically the "Program Compatibility Assistant" in Vista (and Windows 7) fro

    - by Asaf
    I develop a C++ program which might use adobe flash, although it is not essential. I use CoCreateInstance to create the flash object, and if it fails, I know flash is not installed so I don't use it. However, in Vista (and I think Windows 7 as well), when flash is not installed, after leaving the application, the "Program Compatibility Assistant" pops up a message saying that "This program requires a missing Windows component" specifying the flash.ocx. Is there a way to prevent this message from appearing? I don't want to force any user to install flash (especially since it's the IE ActiveX, and FireFox users might not have it installed), and my application can operate well without the flash. Plus this message is really annoying when it appears after every run. I don't mean of course disabling the PCA on the user's machine, but programmatically disable this specific appearance on all machines. Any thoughts? Thanks [EDIT:] I followed Shay's lead (thanks), and did some more digging of my own. I added the following XML to the application's manifest: <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"> </requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> (see also: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb756929.aspx) This solved the problem on Vista 64. To solve the same problem on Windows 7, I added the following: <compatibility xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:compatibility.v1"> <application> <!--The ID below indicates application support for Windows Vista --> <supportedOS Id="{e2011457-1546-43c5-a5fe-008deee3d3f0}"/> <!--The ID below indicates application support for Windows 7 --> <supportedOS Id="{35138b9a-5d96-4fbd-8e2d-a2440225f93a}"/> </application> </compatibility> (See also: blogs.msdn.com/yvesdolc/archive/2009/09/22/the-new-compatibility-section-in-the-application-manifest.aspx) Solved Windows 7. But for some reason, it still happens in Vista 32... I also tried editing the manifest of the specific DLL which causes the problem, but it had no effect. Only the executable's manifest itself affected the problem. So... Vista 32?

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  • compiler warning at C++ template base class

    - by eike
    I get a compiler warning, that I don't understand in that context, when I compile the "Child.cpp" from the following code. (Don't wonder: I stripped off my class declarations to the bare minuum, so the content will not make much sense, but you will see the problem quicker). I get the warning with VS2003 and VS2008 on the highest warning level. The code AbstractClass.h : #include <iostream> template<typename T> class AbstractClass { public: virtual void Cancel(); // { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; }; virtual void Process() = 0; }; //outside definition. if I comment out this and take the inline //definition like above (currently commented out), I don't get //a compiler warning template<typename T> void AbstractClass<T>::Cancel() { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; } Child.h : #include "AbstractClass.h" class Child : public AbstractClass<int> { public: virtual void Process(); }; Child.cpp : #include "Child.h" #include <iostream> void Child::Process() { std::cout << "Process" << std::endl; } The warning The class "Child" is derived from "AbstractClass". In "AbstractClass" there's the public method "AbstractClass::Cancel()". If I define the method outside of the class body (like in the code you see), I get the compiler warning... AbstractClass.h(7) : warning C4505: 'AbstractClass::Cancel' : unreferenced local function has been removed with [T=int] ...when I compile "Child.cpp". I do not understand this, because this is a public function and the compiler can't know if I later reference this method or not. And, in the end, I reference this method, because I call it in main.cpp and despite this compiler warning, this method works if I compile and link all files and execute the program: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Child.h" int main() { Child child; child.Cancel(); //works, despite the warning } If I do define the Cancel() function as inline (you see it as out commented code in AbstractClass.h), then I don't get the compiler warning. Of course my program works, but I want to understand this warning or is this just a compiler mistake? Furthermore, if do not implement AbsctractClass as a template class (just for a test purpose in this case) I also don't get the compiler warning...?

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  • Trac FastCGI + Python on dreamhost leaves zombie python running

    - by Katsuke
    Hello there, Recently I installed trac in one of my dreamhost domains. I followed the instructions of http://trac.mlalonde.net/wiki/CreamyTrac and everything worked perfectly. At least i thought that was the case. After a few days, i started to notice that i was getting random 500 pages. I quickly checked the error log, and found a bunch of: [Fri Apr 16 14:35:34 2010] [error] [client *.*.*.*] Premature end of script headers: dispatch.fcgi [Fri Apr 16 14:35:54 2010] [error] [client *.*.*.*] Premature end of script headers: dispatch.fcgi, referer: http://www.trac.****.com/login [Fri Apr 16 16:05:58 2010] [error] [client *.*.*.*] Premature end of script headers: dispatch.fcgi, referer: http://www.trac.****.com/timeline The trac instance has very low traffic so it is possible that this might have been triggered faster if there was more use of it. So next step i went to look at top and am amazed by what i see: (this is NOT exactly what i saw, i just reproduced this from memory) 23730 rl_inst 20 0 44516 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:00.17 python2.4 23731 rl_inst 20 0 44616 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:03.17 python2.4 23732 rl_inst 20 0 44116 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:01.17 python2.4 23733 rl_inst 20 0 44826 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:04.17 python2.4 23734 rl_inst 20 0 44216 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:02.17 python2.4 23735 rl_inst 20 0 44416 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:01.17 python2.4 I opened the trac site again and that changed to this: 23730 rl_inst 20 0 44516 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:00.17 python2.4 23731 rl_inst 20 0 44616 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:03.17 python2.4 23732 rl_inst 20 0 44116 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:01.17 python2.4 23733 rl_inst 20 0 44826 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:04.17 python2.4 23734 rl_inst 20 0 44216 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:02.17 python2.4 23735 rl_inst 20 0 44416 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:01.17 python2.4 28378 rl_inst 20 0 2608 1208 1008 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.00 dispatch.fcgi 28382 rl_inst 20 0 44248 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:02.19 python2.4 So the dispatch.fcgi was being called correctly and was spawning correctly other python2.4 process. After the IDLE time passed this is the results: 23730 rl_inst 20 0 44516 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:00.17 python2.4 23731 rl_inst 20 0 44616 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:03.17 python2.4 23732 rl_inst 20 0 44116 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:01.17 python2.4 23733 rl_inst 20 0 44826 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:04.17 python2.4 23734 rl_inst 20 0 44216 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:02.17 python2.4 23735 rl_inst 20 0 44416 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:01.17 python2.4 28382 rl_inst 20 0 44248 15m 4012 S 0.0 0.4 0:02.19 python2.4 dispatch.fcgi was gone but the corresponding python2.4 was still there o_O. I had started with 5 sleeping processes of python and after idle time i ended up with 6. I repeated this and found that it kept spawning more and more python2.4, this was indeed what was causing my 500s indirectly. Let me explain my findings. Am on a shared hosting so my processes get killed if they are way too many. So everytime i opened trac 2 new processes spawned and one remained, to the point that dreamhost was killing a random process when i reached my limit. Sometimes killing the python2.4 that actually was rendering the current page. Hence header premature ending, python is gone the .fcgi doesnt know what to do and throws an 500. I found a dirty solution to this. I changed my dispatch.fcgi to contain a line that killed any currently running python2.4 process and then spawn a new one. Since then i dont get any rogues what so ever. But i dont think this is the best solution, calling killall in every fcgi just seems wrong. Anyone has run into this issue and found a cleaner solution? Is there anything that i have overlooked?

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  • Running out of memory with UIImage creation on an offscreen Bitmap Context by NSOperation

    - by sigsegv
    I have an app with multiple UIView subclasses that acts as pages for a UIScrollView. UIViews are moved back and forth to provide a seamless experience to the user. Since the content of the views is rather slow to draw, it's rendered on a single shared CGBitmapContext guarded by locks by NSOperation subclasses - executed one at once in an NSOperationQueue - wrapped up in an UIImage and then used by the main thread to update the content of the views. -(void)main { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; if([self isCancelled]) { return; } if(nil == data) { return; } // Buffer is the shared instance of a CG Bitmap Context wrapper class // data is a dictionary CGImageRef img = [buffer imageCreateWithData:data]; UIImage * image = [[UIImage alloc]initWithCGImage:img]; CGImageRelease(img); if([self isCancelled]) { [image release]; return; } NSDictionary * result = [[NSDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:image,@"image",id,@"id",nil]; // target is the instance of the UIView subclass that will use // the image [target performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateContentWithData:) withObject:result waitUntilDone:NO]; [result release]; [image release]; [pool release]; } The updateContentWithData: of the UIView subclass performed on the main thread is just as simple -(void)updateContentWithData:(NSDictionary *)someData { NSDictionary * data = [someData retain]; if([[data valueForKey:@"id"]isEqualToString:[self pendingRequestId]]) { UIImage * image = [data valueForKey:@"image"]; [self setCurrentImage:image]; [self setNeedsDisplay]; } // If the image has not been retained, it should be released together // with the dictionary retaining it [data release]; } The drawLayer:inContext: method of the subclass will just get the CGImage from the UIImage and use it to update the backing layer or part of it. No retain or release is involved in the process. The problem is that after a while I run out of memory. The number of the UIViews is static. CGImageRef and UIImage are created, retained and released correctly (or so it seems to me). Instruments does not show any leaks, just the free memory available dip constantly, rise a few times, and then dip even lower until the application is terminated. The app cycles through about 2-300 of the aforementioned pages before that, but I would expect to have the memory usage reach a more or less stable level of used memory after a bunch of pages have been already skimmed at fast speed or, since the images are up to 3MB in size, deplete way earlier. Any suggestion will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Cannot Logout of Facebook with Facebook C# SDK

    - by Ryan Smyth
    I think I've read just about everything out there on the topic of logging out of Facebook inside of a Desktop application. Nothing so far works. Specifically, I would like to log the user out so that they can switch identities, e.g. People sharing a computer at home could then use the software with their own Facebook accounts, but with no chance to switch accounts, it's quite messy. (Have not yet tested switching Windows users accounts as that is simply far too much to ask of the end user and should not be necessary.) Now, I should say that I have set the application to use these permissions: string[] permissions = new string[] { "user_photos", "publish_stream", "offline_access" }; So, "offline_access" is included there. I do not know if this does/should affect logging out or not. Again, my purpose for logging out is merely to switch users. (If there's a better approach, please let me know.) The purported solutions seem to be: Use the JavaScript SDK (FB.logout()) Use "m.facebook.com" instead Create your own URL (and possibly use m.facebook.com) Create your own URL and use the session variable (in ASP.NET) The first is kind of silly. Why resort to JavaScript when you're using C#? It's kind of a step backwards and has a lot of additional overhead in a desktop application. (I have not tried this as it's simply disgustingly messy to do this in a desktop application.) If anyone can confirm that this is the only working method, please do so. I'm desperately trying to avoid it. The second doesn't work. Perhaps it worked in the past, but my umpteen attempts to get it to work have all failed. The third doesn't work. I've tried umpteen dozen variations with zero success. The last option there doesn't work for a desktop application because it's not ASP.NET and you don't have a session variable to work with. The Facebook C# SDK logout also no longer works. i.e. public FacebookLoginDialog(string appId, string[] extendedPermissions, bool logout) { IDictionary<string, object> loginParameters = new Dictionary<string, object> { { "response_type", "token" }, { "display", "popup" } }; _navigateUri = FacebookOAuthClient.GetLoginUrl(appId, null, extendedPermissions, logout, loginParameters); InitializeComponent(); } I remember it working in the past, but it no longer works now. (Which truly puzzles me...) It instead now directs the user to the Facebook mobile page, where the user must manually logout. Now, I could do browser automation to automatically click the logout link for the user, however, this is prone to breaking if Facebook updates the mobile UI. It is also messy, and possibly a worse solution than trying to use the JavaScript SDK FB.logout() method (though not by much). I have searched for some kind of documentation, however, I cannot find anything in the Facebook developer documentation that illustrates how to logout an application. Has anyone solved this problem, or seen any documentation that can be ported to work with the Facebook C# SDK? I am certainly open to using a WebClient or HttpClient/Response if anyone can point to some documentation that could work with it. I simply have not been able to find any low-level documentation that shows how this approach could work. Thank you in advance for any advice, pointers, or links.

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  • Problem with return 2 libc method

    - by jth
    Hi, I'am trying to understand the return2libc method. I'am using an ubuntu linux 9.10, 32 bit with ASLR disabled. In theory, it sounds quite easy, overwrite the saved eip with the address of system() (or whatever function you want), then put the address to which system() should return and after that, the parameter for system, the "/bin/bash"-string. But what happens is that my exploit keeps segfaulting the vulnerable program. I assume something with the system()-address went wrong. This is what I did so far: Determined the address of system(): (gdb) print system $1 = {<text variable, no debug info>} 0x167020 <system> (gdb) x/x system 0x167020 <system>: 0x890cec83 I used the subsequent x/x system because those 3 bytes returned by print system looks like an index in some sort of jumptable (PLT?), so I assume 0x890cec83 is the right address which is used to overwrite the saved eip. After that I determined the address of the /bin/bash string in memory, using a small C program which basically consists of this line: printf("Address of string /bin/bash: %p\n", getenv("SHELL")); Then I looked a little bit around in the memory and fount /bin/bash: (gdb) x/s 0xbffff6ca 0xbffff6ca: "/bin/bash" After I gathered this information, I filled the buffer: (gdb) b 9 Breakpoint 1 at 0x8048407: file victim.c, line 9. (gdb) r `perl -e 'print "A"x9 . "\x83\xec\x0c\x89FAKE\xca\f6\ff\bf";'` Breakpoint 1, main (argc=1111638594, argv=0xc360cca) at victim.c:10 10 return 0; (gdb) x/s 0xbffff6ca 0xbffff6ca: "/bin/bash" Stack frame looks like this: (gdb) i f Stack level 0, frame at 0xbffff440: eip = 0x8048407 in main (victim.c:10); saved eip 0x890cec83 source language c. Arglist at 0xbffff438, args: argc=1111638594, argv=0xc360cca Locals at 0xbffff438, Previous frame's sp is 0xbffff440 Saved registers: ebp at 0xbffff438, eip at 0xbffff43c This seems all right to me, saved eip was overwritten with the (hopefully) correct system()-address, return address for system was set to "FAKE" (shouldn't matter) and the address of /bin/bash also seems to be correct. When I'am continuing the execution, victim segfaults on some strange address and certainly not in 0x890cec83: (gdb) cont Continuing. Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x0804840d in main (argc=Cannot access memory at address 0x41414149 ) at victim.c:11 11 } Has anyone an explanation or a hint what happens here and why the execution isn't redirected to 0x890cec83? Thanks in advance, any hint, and be it only vague, would be appreciated. I have no idea why this doesn't work.

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  • Problem with combination boost::exception and boost::variant

    - by Rick
    Hello all, I have strange problem with two-level variant struct when boost::exception is included. I have following code snippet: #include <boost/variant.hpp> #include <boost/exception/all.hpp> typedef boost::variant< int > StoredValue; typedef boost::variant< StoredValue > ExpressionItem; inline std::ostream& operator << ( std::ostream & os, const StoredValue& stvalue ) { return os;} inline std::ostream& operator << ( std::ostream & os, const ExpressionItem& stvalue ) { return os; } When I try to compile it, I have following error: boost/exception/detail/is_output_streamable.hpp(45): error C2593: 'operator <<' is ambiguous test.cpp(11): could be 'std::ostream &operator <<(std::ostream &,const ExpressionItem &)' [found using argument-dependent lookup] test.cpp(8): or 'std::ostream &operator <<(std::ostream &,const StoredValue &)' [found using argument-dependent lookup] 1> while trying to match the argument list '(std::basic_ostream<_Elem,_Traits>, const boost::error_info<Tag,T>)' 1> with 1> [ 1> _Elem=char, 1> _Traits=std::char_traits<char> 1> ] 1> and 1> [ 1> Tag=boost::tag_original_exception_type, 1> T=const type_info * 1> ] Code snippet is simplified as much as possible, in the real code are structures much more complicated and each variant has five sub-types. When i remove #include and try following test snippet, program is compiled correctly: void TestVariant() { ExpressionItem test; std::stringstream str; str << test; } Could someone please advise me how to define operators << in order to function even when using boost::Exception ? Thanks and regards Rick

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  • Can ASM method-visitors be used with interfaces?

    - by Olaf Mertens
    I need to write a tool that lists the classes that call methods of specified interfaces. It will be used as part of the build process of a large java application consisting of many modules. The goal is to automatically document the dependencies between certain java modules. I found several tools for dependency analysis, but they don't work on the method level, just for packages or jars. Finally I found ASM, that seems to do what I need. The following code prints the method dependencies of all class files in a given directory: import java.io.*; import java.util.*; import org.objectweb.asm.ClassReader; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { File dir = new File(args[0]); List<File> classFiles = new LinkedList<File>(); findClassFiles(classFiles, dir); for (File classFile : classFiles) { InputStream input = new FileInputStream(classFile); new ClassReader(input).accept(new MyClassVisitor(), 0); input.close(); } } private static void findClassFiles(List<File> list, File dir) { for (File file : dir.listFiles()) { if (file.isDirectory()) { findClassFiles(list, file); } else if (file.getName().endsWith(".class")) { list.add(file); } } } } import org.objectweb.asm.MethodVisitor; import org.objectweb.asm.commons.EmptyVisitor; public class MyClassVisitor extends EmptyVisitor { private String className; @Override public void visit(int version, int access, String name, String signature, String superName, String[] interfaces) { this.className = name; } @Override public MethodVisitor visitMethod(int access, String name, String desc, String signature, String[] exceptions) { System.out.println(className + "." + name); return new MyMethodVisitor(); } } import org.objectweb.asm.commons.EmptyVisitor; public class MyMethodVisitor extends EmptyVisitor { @Override public void visitMethodInsn(int opcode, String owner, String name, String desc) { String key = owner + "." + name; System.out.println(" " + key); } } The Problem: The code works for regular classes only! If the class file contains an interface, visitMethod is called, but not visitMethodInsn. I don't get any info about the callers of interface methods. Any ideas?

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  • How to modify a given class to use const operators

    - by zsero
    I am trying to solve my question regarding using push_back in more than one level. From the comments/answers it is clear that I have to: Create a copy operator which takes a const argument Modify all my operators to const But because this header file is given to me there is an operator what I cannot make into const. It is a simple: float & operator [] (int i) { return _item[i]; } In the given program, this operator is used to get and set data. My problem is that because I need to have this operator in the header file, I cannot turn all the other operators to const, what means I cannot insert a copy operator. How can I make all my operators into const, while preserving the functionality of the already written program? Here is the full declaration of the class: class Vector3f { float _item[3]; public: float & operator [] (int i) { return _item[i]; } Vector3f(float x, float y, float z) { _item[0] = x ; _item[1] = y ; _item[2] = z; }; Vector3f() {}; Vector3f & operator = ( const Vector3f& obj) { _item[0] = obj[0]; _item[1] = obj[1]; _item[2] = obj[2]; return *this; }; Vector3f & operator += ( const Vector3f & obj) { _item[0] += obj[0]; _item[1] += obj[1]; _item[2] += obj[2]; return *this; }; bool operator ==( const Vector3f & obj) { bool x = (_item[0] == obj[0]) && (_item[1] == obj[1]) && (_item[2] == obj[2]); return x; } // my copy operator Vector3f(const Vector3f& obj) { _item[0] += obj[0]; _item[1] += obj[1]; _item[2] += obj[2]; return this; } };

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  • Why is it still so hard to write software?

    - by nornagon
    Writing software, I find, is composed of two parts: the Idea, and the Implementation. The Idea is about thinking: "I have this problem; how do I solve it?" and further, "how do I solve it elegantly?" The answers to these questions are obtainable by thinking about algorithms and architecture. The ideas come partially through analysis and partially through insight and intuition. The Idea is usually the easy part. You talk to your friends and co-workers and you nut it out in a meeting or over coffee. It takes an hour or two, plus revisions as you implement and find new problems. The Implementation phase of software development is so difficult that we joke about it. "Oh," we say, "the rest is a Simple Matter of Code." Because it should be simple, but it never is. We used to write our code on punch cards, and that was hard: mistakes were very difficult to spot, so we had to spend extra effort making sure every line was perfect. Then we had serial terminals: we could see all our code at once, search through it, organise it hierarchically and create things abstracted from raw machine code. First we had assemblers, one level up from machine code. Mnemonics freed us from remembering the machine code. Then we had compilers, which freed us from remembering the instructions. We had virtual machines, which let us step away from machine-specific details. And now we have advanced tools like Eclipse and Xcode that perform analysis on our code to help us write code faster and avoid common pitfalls. But writing code is still hard. Writing code is about understanding large, complex systems, and tools we have today simply don't go very far to help us with that. When I click "find all references" in Eclipse, I get a list of them at the bottom of the window. I click on one, and I'm torn away from what I was looking at, forced to context switch. Java architecture is usually several levels deep, so I have to switch and switch and switch until I find what I'm really looking for -- by which time I've forgotten where I came from. And I do that all day until I've understood a system. It's taxing mentally, and Eclipse doesn't do much that couldn't be done in 1985 with grep, except eat hundreds of megs of RAM. Writing code has barely changed since we were staring at amber on black. We have the theoretical groundwork for much more advanced tools, tools that actually work to help us comprehend and extend the complex systems we work with every day. So why is writing code still so hard?

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  • Mapping two tables 0..n in Hibernate

    - by simon
    I have a table Users CREATE TABLE "USERS" ( "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL , "LOGINNAME" VARCHAR2 (150) NOT NULL ) and I have a second table SpecialUsers. No UserId can occur twice in the SpecialUsers table, and only a small subset of the ids of users in the Users table are contained in the SpecialUsers table. CREATE TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ( "USERID" NUMBER NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_SPECIALUSERS" PRIMARY KEY ("USERID") ) ALTER TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ADD CONSTRAINT "FK_SPECIALUSERS_USERID" FOREIGN KEY ("USERID") REFERENCES "USERS" ("ID") / Mapping the Users table in Hibernate works ok <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="USERS"> <id name="id" column="ID" type="java.lang.Long"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">SEQ_USERS_ID</param> </generator> </id> <property name="loginName" column="LOGINNAME" type="java.lang.String" not-null="true"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> But I'm struggling in creating the mapping for the SpecialUsers table. All the examples (e.g. in Hibernate documentation) in Internet I found don't have this type of self-reference. I tried a mapping like this: <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="SPECIALUSERS"> <id name="id" column="USERID"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property">user</param> </generator> </id> <one-to-one name="user" class="User"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> but got the error Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.hibernate.DuplicateMappingException: Duplicate class/entity mapping com.initech.User How should I map the SpecialUsers table? What I need on the application level is a list of the User objects contained in the SpecialUsers table.

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  • Silverlight with MVVM Inheritance: ModelView and View matching the Model

    - by moonground.de
    Hello Stackoverflowers! :) Today I have a special question on Silverlight (4 RC) MVVM and inheritance concepts and looking for a best practice solution... I think that i understand the basic idea and concepts behind MVVM. My Model doesn't know anything about the ViewModel as the ViewModel itself doesn't know about the View. The ViewModel knows the Model and the Views know the ViewModels. Imagine the following basic (example) scenario (I'm trying to keep anything short and simple): My Model contains a ProductBase class with a few basic properties, a SimpleProduct : ProductBase adding a few more Properties and ExtendedProduct : ProductBase adding another properties. According to this Model I have several ViewModels, most essential SimpleProductViewModel : ViewModelBase and ExtendedProductViewModel : ViewModelBase. Last but not least, according Views SimpleProductView and ExtendedProductView. In future, I might add many product types (and matching Views + VMs). 1. How do i know which ViewModel to create when receiving a Model collection? After calling my data provider method, it will finally end up having a List<ProductBase>. It containts, for example, one SimpleProduct and two ExtendedProducts. How can I transform the results to an ObservableCollection<ViewModelBase> having the proper ViewModel types (one SimpleProductViewModel and two ExtendedProductViewModels) in it? I might check for Model type and construct the ViewModel accordingly, i.e. foreach(ProductBase currentProductBase in resultList) if (currentProductBase is SimpleProduct) viewModels.Add( new SimpleProductViewModel((SimpleProduct)currentProductBase)); else if (currentProductBase is ExtendedProduct) viewModels.Add( new ExtendedProductViewModels((ExtendedProduct)currentProductBase)); ... } ...but I consider this very bad practice as this code doesn't follow the object oriented design. The other way round, providing abstract Factory methods would reduce the code to: foreach(ProductBase currentProductBase in resultList) viewModels.Add(currentProductBase.CreateViewModel()) and would be perfectly extensible but since the Model doesn't know the ViewModels, that's not possible. I might bring interfaces into game here, but I haven't seen such approach proven yet. 2. How do i know which View to display when selecting a ViewModel? This is pretty the same problem, but on a higher level. Ended up finally having the desired ObservableCollection<ViewModelBase> collection would require the main view to choose a matching View for the ViewModel. In WPF, there is a DataTemplate concept which can supply a View upon a defined DataType. Unfortunately, this doesn't work in Silverlight and the only replacement I've found was the ResourceSelector of the SLExtensions toolkit which is buggy and not satisfying. Beside that, all problems from Question 1 apply as well. Do you have some hints or even a solution for the problems I describe, which you hopefully can understand from my explanation? Thank you in advance! Thomas

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  • SBT run differences between scala and java?

    - by Eric Cartner
    I'm trying to follow the log4j2 configuration tutorials in a SBT 0.12.1 project. Here is my build.sbt: name := "Logging Test" version := "0.0" scalaVersion := "2.9.2" libraryDependencies ++= Seq( "org.apache.logging.log4j" % "log4j-api" % "2.0-beta3", "org.apache.logging.log4j" % "log4j-core" % "2.0-beta3" ) When I run the main() defined in src/main/scala/logtest/Foo.scala: package logtest import org.apache.logging.log4j.{Logger, LogManager} object Foo { private val logger = LogManager.getLogger(getClass()) def main(args: Array[String]) { logger.trace("Entering application.") val bar = new Bar() if (!bar.doIt()) logger.error("Didn't do it.") logger.trace("Exiting application.") } } I get the output I was expecting given that src/main/resources/log4j2.xml sets the root logging level to trace: [info] Running logtest.Foo 08:39:55.627 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Foo$ - Entering application. 08:39:55.630 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Bar - entry 08:39:55.630 [run-main] ERROR logtest.Bar - Did it again! 08:39:55.630 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Bar - exit with (false) 08:39:55.630 [run-main] ERROR logtest.Foo$ - Didn't do it. 08:39:55.630 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Foo$ - Exiting application. However, when I run the main() defined in src/main/java/logtest/LoggerTest.java: package logtest; import org.apache.logging.log4j.Logger; import org.apache.logging.log4j.LogManager; public class LoggerTest { private static Logger logger = LogManager.getLogger(LoggerTest.class.getName()); public static void main(String[] args) { logger.trace("Entering application."); Bar bar = new Bar(); if (!bar.doIt()) logger.error("Didn't do it."); logger.trace("Exiting application."); } } I get the output: [info] Running logtest.LoggerTest ERROR StatusLogger Unable to locate a logging implementation, using SimpleLogger ERROR Bar Did it again! ERROR LoggerTest Didn't do it. From what I can tell, ERROR StatusLogger Unable to ... is usually a sign that log4j-core is not on my classpath. The lack of TRACE messages seems to indicate that my log4j2.xml settings aren't on the classpath either. Why should there be any difference in classpath if I'm running Foo.main versus LoggerTest.main? Or is there something else causing this behavior? Update I used SBT Assembly to build a fat jar of this project and specified logtest.LoggerTest to be the main class. Running it from the command line produced correct results: Eric-Cartners-iMac:target ecartner$ java -jar "Logging Test-assembly-0.0.jar" 10:52:23.220 [main] TRACE logtest.LoggerTest - Entering application. 10:52:23.221 [main] TRACE logtest.Bar - entry 10:52:23.221 [main] ERROR logtest.Bar - Did it again! 10:52:23.221 [main] TRACE logtest.Bar - exit with (false) 10:52:23.221 [main] ERROR logtest.LoggerTest - Didn't do it. 10:52:23.221 [main] TRACE logtest.LoggerTest - Exiting application.

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  • Recursive N-way merge/diff algorithm for directory trees?

    - by BobMcGee
    What algorithms or Java libraries are available to do N-way, recursive diff/merge of directories? I need to be able to generate a list of folder trees that have many identical files, and have subdirectories with many similar files. I want to be able to use 2-way merge operations to quickly remove as much redundancy as possible. Goals: Find pairs of directories that have many similar files between them. Generate short list of directory pairs that can be synchronized with 2-way merge to eliminate duplicates Should operate recursively (there may be nested duplicates of higher-level directories) Run time and storage should be O(n log n) in numbers of directories and files Should be able to use an embedded DB or page to disk for processing more files than fit in memory (100,000+). Optional: generate an ancestry and change-set between folders Optional: sort the merge operations by how many duplicates they can elliminate I know how to use hashes to find duplicate files in roughly O(n) space, but I'm at a loss for how to go from this to finding partially overlapping sets between folders and their children. EDIT: some clarification The tricky part is the difference between "exact same" contents (otherwise hashing file hashes would work) and "similar" (which will not). Basically, I want to feed this algorithm at a set of directories and have it return a set of 2-way merge operations I can perform in order to reduce duplicates as much as possible with as few conflicts possible. It's effectively constructing an ancestry tree showing which folders are derived from each other. The end goal is to let me incorporate a bunch of different folders into one common tree. For example, I may have a folder holding programming projects, and then copy some of its contents to another computer to work on it. Then I might back up and intermediate version to flash drive. Except I may have 8 or 10 different versions, with slightly different organizational structures or folder names. I need to be able to merge them one step at a time, so I can chose how to incorporate changes at each step of the way. This is actually more or less what I intend to do with my utility (bring together a bunch of scattered backups from different points in time). I figure if I can do it right I may as well release it as a small open source util. I think the same tricks might be useful for comparing XML trees though.

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  • Is this scatter-brained workflow realizable in Git?

    - by Luke Maurer
    This is what I'd like my workflow to look like at a conceptual level: I hack on my new feature for a while I notice a typo in a comment I change it Since the typo is completely unrelated to anything else, I put that change in a pile of comment fixes I keep working on the code I realize I need to flesh out a few utility functions I do so I put that change in its own pile Steps 2, 3, and 4 each repeat throughout the day I finish the new feature and put the changes for that feature in a pile I push nice patches upstream: One with the new feature, a few for the other tweaks, and one with a bunch of comment fixes if enough have accumulated Since I'm both lazy and a perfectionist, I want to be able to do some things out of order: I might correct a typo but forget to put it in the comment fix pile; when I prepare the upstream patches (I'm using git-svn, so I need to be pretty deliberate about these), I'll then pull out the comment fixes at that point. I might forget to separate things altogether until the very end. But I might /also/ have committed some of the piles along the way (sorry, the metaphor is breaking down …). This is all rather like just using Eclipse changesets with SVN, only I can have different changes to the same file in different piles (having to disentangle changes into different commits is what motivated me to move to git-svn, in fact …), and with Git I can have my full discombobulated change history, experimental branches and all, but still make a nice, neat patch. I've just recently started with Git after having wanted to for a good while, and I'm quite happy so far. The biggest way in which the above workflow doesn't really map into Git, though, is that a “bin” can't really be just a local branch, since the working tree only ever reflects the state of a single branch. Or maybe the Git index is a “pile,” and what I want is to have more than one somehow (effectively). I can think of a few ways to approximate what I want (maybe creative use of stash? Intricate stash-checkout-merge dances?), but my grasp on Git isn't solid enough to be sure of how best to put all the pieces together. It's said that Git is more a toolkit than a VCS, so I guess the question comes down to: How do I build this thing with these tools?

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  • Opinion on "loop invariants", and are these frequently used in the industry?

    - by Michael Aaron Safyan
    I was thinking back to my freshman year at college (five years ago) when I took an exam to place-out of intro-level computer science. There was a question about loop invariants, and I was wondering if loop invariants are really necessary in this case or if the question was simply a bad example... the question was to write an iterative definition for a factorial function, and then to prove that the function was correct. The code that I provided for the factorial function was as follows: public static int factorial(int x) { if ( x < 0 ){ throw new IllegalArgumentException("Parameter must be = 0"); }else if ( x == 0 ){ return 1; }else{ int result = 1; for ( int i = 1; i <= x; i++ ){ result*=i; } return result; } } My own proof of correctness was a proof by cases, and in each I asserted that it was correct by definition (x! is undefined for negative values, 0! is 1, and x! is 1*2*3...*x for a positive value of x). The professor wanted me to prove the loop using a loop invariant; however, my argument was that it was correct "by definition", because the definition of "x!" for a positive integer x is "the product of the integers from 1... x", and the for-loop in the else clause is simply a literal translation of this definition. Is a loop invariant really needed as a proof of correctness in this case? How complicated must a loop be before a loop invariant (and proper initialization and termination conditions) become necessary for a proof of correctness? Additionally, I was wondering... how often are such formal proofs used in the industry? I have found that about half of my courses are very theoretical and proof-heavy and about half are very implementation and coding-heavy, without any formal or theoretical material. How much do these overlap in practice? If you do use proofs in the industry, when do you apply them (always, only if it's complicated, rarely, never)?

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  • Execute SQL SP in Excel VBA

    - by TheOCD
    HI I am having problem with getting all the columns back when i execute following code in excel vba. I only get 6 out of 23 columns back. Connection, command etc works fine (i can see exec command in the SQL Profiler), data headers are created for all 23 columns but i only get data for 6 column. Side Note: it's not prod level code, have missed out error handling on purpose, sp works fine in SQL management studio, ASP.Net, C# win form app, it is for Excel 2003 connecting to SQL 2008. Can someone help me troubleshoot it? Dim connection As ADODB.connection Dim recordset As ADODB.recordset Dim command As ADODB.command Dim strProcName As String 'Stored Procedure name Dim strConn As String ' connection string. Dim selectedVal As String 'Set ADODB requirements Set connection = New ADODB.connection Set recordset = New ADODB.recordset Set command = New ADODB.command If Workbooks("Book2.xls").MultiUserEditing = True Then MsgBox "You do not have Exclusive access to the workbook at this time." & _ vbNewLine & "Please have all other users close the workbook and then try again.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation Exit Sub Else On Error Resume Next ActiveWorkbook.ExclusiveAccess 'On Error GoTo No_Bugs End If 'set the active sheet Set oSht = Workbooks("Book2.xls").Sheets(1) 'get the connection string, if empty just exit strConn = ConnectionString() If strConn = "" Then Exit Sub End If ' selected value, if <NOTHING> just exit selectedVal = selectedValue() If selectedVal = "<NOTHING>" Then Exit Sub End If If Not oSht Is Nothing Then 'Open database connection connection.ConnectionString = strConn connection.Open ' set command stuff. command.ActiveConnection = connection command.CommandText = "GetAlbumByName" command.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc command.Parameters.Refresh command.Parameters(1).Value = selectedVal 'Execute stored procedure and return to a recordset Set recordset = command.Execute() If recordset.BOF = False And recordset.EOF = False Then Sheets("Sheet2").[A1].CopyFromRecordset recordset ' Create headers and copy data With Sheets("Sheet2") For Column = 0 To recordset.Fields.Count - 1 .Cells(1, Column + 1).Value = recordset.Fields(Column).Name Next .Range(.Cells(1, 1), .Cells(1, recordset.Fields.Count)).Font.Bold = True .Cells(2, 1).CopyFromRecordset recordset End With Else MsgBox "b4 BOF or after EOF.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation End If 'Close database connection and clean up If CBool(recordset.State And adStateOpen) = True Then recordset.Close Set recordset = Nothing If CBool(connection.State And adStateOpen) = True Then connection.Close Set connection = Nothing Else MsgBox "oSheet2 is Nothing.", vbOKOnly + vbExclamation End If

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