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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • Dynamic script addition should be ordered?

    - by hawkettc
    Hi, I'm adding some <script> tags dynamically to the head element after page load. I understand the scripts are loaded asynchronously, but can I expect them to be parsed in the order they are added? I'm seeing the expected behaviour in Firefox, but not in Safari or Chrome. Looking at the document in Chrome developer tools and Firebug, both show the following - <html> <head> ... <script type="text/javascript" src="A.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="B.js"></script> </head> ... </html> However looking at the resource loading view, chrome seems to parse whichever is returned first from the server, while firebug always loads them in the order the script tags were added, even when B is returned first from the server. Should I expect Chrome/Safari to parse the files in the specified order? Using Chrome 5.0.375.29 beta on OS X 10.6.3

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • ExecutorSerrvice memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

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  • How to link jQuery UI datepicker functionality with a select list

    - by take2
    I'm trying to connect jQuery UI's datepicker with a select list. I have found one explanation on jQuery's Forum ( forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-ui-datepicker-with-select-lists), but I can't get it working. There are input and select list both declared: <select id="selectMonth"><option value="01">Jan</option><option value="02">Feb</option> <option value="03">Mar</option><option value="04">Apr</option>...</select> <select id="selectDay"><option value="01">1</option><option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option><option value="04">4</option>...</select> <select id="selectYear"><option value="2012">2012</option><option value="2013">2013</option> <option value="2014">2014</option>...</select> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="selectedDatepicker" /></p> This is the script: $(function() { $('#selectedDatepicker').datepicker({ beforeShow: readSelected, onSelect: updateSelected, minDate: new Date(2012, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2014, 12 - 1, 31), showOn: 'both', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'img/calendar.gif'}); // Prepare to show a date picker linked to three select controls function readSelected() { $('#selectedDatepicker').val($('#selectMonth').val() + '/' + $('#selectDay').val() + '/' + $('#selectYear').val()); return {}; } // Update three select controls to match a date picker selection function updateSelected(date) { $('#selectMonth').val(date.substring(0, 2)); $('#selectDay').val(date.substring(3, 5)); $('#selectYear').val(date.substring(6, 10)); } }); And here is the fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/xKXZm/ They are not connected properly, the only "connected behaviour" is that when you click on the input button, it picks up the value of the select list. On the other hand, the select list never picks up the value of the input nor will the input pick up the value of the select list until you click on it.

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  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

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  • HOWTO: implement a jQuery version of ASP.Net MVC "Strongly Typed Partial Views"

    - by Sam Carleton
    I am working on a multi-page assessment form where the questions/responses are database driven. Currently I the basic system working with Html.BeginForm via standard ASP.Net MVC. At this point in time, the key to the whole system is the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views'. When the question/response is read from the database, the response type determines which derived model is created and added to the collection. The main view it iterates through the collection and uses the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views' system of ASP.Net MVC to determine which view to render the correct type of response (radio button, drop down, or text box). I would like to change this process from a Html.BeginForm to Ajax.BeginForm. The problem is I don't have a clue as to how to implement the dynamic creation of the question/response in the JavaScript/jQuery world. Any thoughts and/or suggestions? Here is the current code to generate the dynamic form: @using (Html.BeginForm(new { mdsId = @Model.MdsId, sectionId = @Model.SectionId })) { <div class="SectionTitle"> <span>Section @Model.SectionName - @Model.SectionDescription</span> <span style="float: right">@Html.CheckBoxFor(x => x.ShowUnansweredQuestions) Show only unaswered questions</span> </div> @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.PrevSectionId) @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.NextSectionId) for (var i = 0; i < Model.answers.Count(); i++) { @Html.EditorFor(m => m.answers[i]); } }

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • Groovy as a substitute for Java when using BigDecimal?

    - by geejay
    I have just completed an evaluation of Java, Groovy and Scala. The factors I considered were: readability, precision The factors I would like to know: performance, ease of integration I needed a BigDecimal level of precision. Here are my results: Java void someOp() { BigDecimal del_theta_1 = toDec(6); BigDecimal del_theta_2 = toDec(2); BigDecimal del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = abs(del_theta_1.subtract(del_theta_2)) .divide(log(del_theta_1.divide(del_theta_2))); } Groovy void someOp() { def del_theta_1 = 6.0 def del_theta_2 = 2.0 def del_theta_m = 0.0 del_theta_m = Math.abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / Math.log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2); } Scala def other(){ var del_theta_1 = toDec(6); var del_theta_2 = toDec(2); var del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = ( abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2) ) } Note that in Java and Scala I used static imports. Java: Pros: it is Java Cons: no operator overloading (lots o methods), barely readable/codeable Groovy: Pros: default BigDecimal means no visible typing, least surprising BigDecimal support for all operations (division included) Cons: another language to learn Scala: Pros: has operator overloading for BigDecimal Cons: some surprising behaviour with division (fixed with Decimal128), another language to learn

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  • jquery callback functions failing to finish execution

    - by calumbrodie
    I'm testing a jquery app i've written and have come across some unexpected behaviour $('button.clickme').live('click',function(){ //do x (takes 2 seconds) //do y (takes 4 seconds) //do z (takes 0.5 seconds) }) The event can be triggered by a number of buttons. What I'm finding is that when I click each button slowly (allowing 10 seconds between clicks) - my callback function executes correctly (actions x, y & z complete). However If I rapidly click buttons on my page it appears that the function sometimes only completes up to step x or y before terminating. My question: Is it the case that if this function is fired by a clicking second DOM element, while the first callback function is completing - will jQuery terminate the first callback and start over again? Do I have to write my callback function explicitly outside the event handler and then call it?? function doStuff() { //do x //do y //do z ( } $('button.clickme).live('click',doStuff()) If this is the case can someone explain why this is happening or give me a link to some advice on best practice on closures etc - I'd like to know the BEST way to write jQuery to improve performance etc. Thanks

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  • Javascript problem with iframe that's hidden before loaded

    - by Aistina
    I have a page that contains an iframe that gets loaded using Javascript: index.html <iframe id="myFrame" width="800" height="600" style="display: none;"></iframe> <div id="loader"><!-- some loading indicator --></div> <script type="text/javascript"> function someFunction() { var myFrame = document.getElementById('myFrame'); var loader = document.getElementById('loader'); loader.style.display = 'block'; myFrame.src = 'myFrame.html'; myFrame.onload = function() { myFrame.style.display = 'block'; loader.style.display = 'none'; }; } </script> The page that gets loaded in the iframe contains some Javascript logic which calculates the sizes of certain elements for the purposes of adding a JS driven scrollbar (jScrollPane + jQuery Dimensions). myFrame.html <div id="scrollingElement" style="overflow: auto;"> <div id="several"></div> <div id="child"></div> <div id="elements"></div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).load(function() { $('#scrollingElement').jScrollPane(); }); </script> This works in Chrome (and probably other Webkit browsers), but fails in Firefox and IE because at the time jScrollPane gets called, all the elements are still invisble and jQuery Dimensions is unable to determine any element's dimensions. Is there a way to make sure my iframe is visible before $(document).ready(...) gets called? Other than using setTimeout to delay jScrollPane, which is something I definitely want to avoid.

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  • maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

    - by Vikas
    I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

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  • How Session out trigger on browser close?

    - by Hemant Kothiyal
    Hi, Yesterday morning i open gmail account in Internet Exlorer second tab. I checked my mail and closed that tab (not browser). Then at the time of evining i again open second tab of browser and enetr gmail.com, it automatically redirect me at my email account without asking login. I shocked and i thought i should remain browser open for whole night and today open gmail in second tab , it behave similar means without login screen it redirect in my gmail account. Then i closed that tab and open another browser session and enter gmail i again surprised that i redirect me login page. At the same time i open second tab of first browser and it automatically redirect me at mail account page. What i councluded by this behaviour is that might be gmail server keep my browser id at their server so that whenever i eneter gmail.com on second tab of first browser, it automatically redirect me at gmail account. I don't know i am right or not? Please clear me this concept? What happens with my session at gmail server when i closed my browser tab? As per my opinion it should automatically logout me but why this doesn't happened?

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  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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  • What features are heavily used in C# 2.0, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how to workaround?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I don't want a war between VBNET and C# developpers, neither is my goal to open a C# VS VBNET confrontation. I would like you all to list a feature that is heavily used in C#, but is not available in VBNET 2.0, and how would you work around to achieve a similar behaviour or purpose? For example: C# Accepts void (return) lambda expressions. Here's an example with FNH mapping: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); This is impossible to do before VBNET 4.0 (supposed to be doable in VBNET 4.0) VBNET Must write a helping method (Sub), and provide the AddressOf this method in order to workaround. Private Sub Helper(ByVal m As MType) m.Map(Function(x) x.Number) m.Map(Function(x) x.Street) m.Map(Function(x) x.PostCode) End Sub ... Component(Function(x) x.Address, AddressOf Helper) Now I know, it is not VBNET 2.0, but this is an example. VBNET 3.0 and 3.5 can used too. Please just mention what version of VBNET this refers to.

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  • Focus-dependent text change for TextBoxes in WPF

    - by Simon
    Hey there. I'm writing an application in WPF using the MVVM-pattern and will really often use TextBoxes. I don't want to use labels for the user to know user what the text box is for, i.e. I don't want something like this: <TextBlock> Name: </TextBlock> <TextBox /> Instead, I would like the TextBox to contain its own label. Statically, you would express it like this: <TextBox>Name</TextBox> If the cursor is displayed in the textbox, i.e. the TextBox gains focus, I want the description text to disappear. If the TextBox is left empty and it loses the focus, the description text should be shown again. It's similar to the search textbox of StackOverflow or the one of Firefox. (please tell me if your not sure what I mean). One TextBox's label may change at runtime, dependending on e.g. a ComboBox's selected element or a value in my ViewModel. (It's like in Firefox's search TextBox, if you select google from the search engins' menu, the TextBox's label changes to "Google", if you select "Yahoo" its set to "Yahoo"). Thus I want to be able to bind the label's content. Consider that I may already have a Binding on the Text-Property of the TextBox. How can implement such a behaviour and make it reusable for any of my TextBox's? Code is welcome but not needed; a description of what to do is enough. Thank you in advance.

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  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • IIS doesn't send two responses to the same client at the same time (only for ASP)

    - by dr. evil
    I've got 2 ASP pages. I do a request to the first page from Firefox (which takes 30 seconds to process on server-side), and during the execution of 30 seconds I do another request from Firefox to the second page (takes less than 1 second in server-side), but it does come after 31 second. Because it waits first requests to finish. When I request to the first page from Firefox and then request the second page from IE it's just instant. So basically ASP - IIS 6 somehow limiting every client to one request (long processing request) at a time. I need to get around this problem in my .NET client application. This is tested in 3 different systems. If you want to test you can try the ASP scripts at the end. This behaviour is same in a long SQL execution or just in a time consuming ASP operation. Note: It's not about HTTP Keep Alive It's not about persistent connection limit (we tried to increase this in firefox and in .NET with Net.ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit) It's not about User Agent This doesn't happen in ASP.NET so I assume it's something to the with ASP.dll I'm trying to solve this on the client not the server. I don't have direct control over the server it's a 3rd party solution. Is there any way to get around this? Sample ASP Code: First ASP: <% Set cnn = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Connection") cnn.Open "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=master;User Id=sa;Password=;" cnn.Execute("WAITFOR DELAY '0:0:30'") cnn.Close %> Second ASP: <% Response.Write "bla bla" %>

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  • WPF or Silverlight Learning Resources for Business Applications

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am the only developer at a non-profit organization(~200 employees) where we are a M$ shop and 90% of the things I develop are specific to our company and are internal only. I am given a lot of latitude on how I accomplish my goals so using new technologies is in my best interest. So far I have developed all winform & asp.net applications. I would now like to focus on XAML driven development(WPF & Silverlight) and would like your help. I am subscribed to numerous Silverlight blogs and I have went through a few good tutorials however, I would really appreciate a GOOD SOLID book in my hands going forward. I prefer learning books versus reference books and I REALLY would like one from a Business standpoint as well. Shameless, self-promoting is welcomed if you happen to be an author or reviewer for one that meets my criteria. I would, however, prefer that recomendations were based on first-hand experience(no, 'my friend as this awesome book he told me about', please). Though, I don't mind un-released books if say they are an updated version of an existing. disclaimer -- I know there are an insane amount of Book posts here(SO) but none I believe for my specific need. If there is and I missed it I apologize.

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  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

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  • Issue scrolling table view with content inset

    - by Rog
    Hi all, I am experiencing a weird scrolling issue and I was hoping someone could give me a hand in trying to identify why this is happening. I have included the part of my code that I think is relevant to the question but am happy to update this post with whatever else is needed. I have implemented a pull to refresh view in the tableview's content inset area. The refresh fires an Async NSURLConnection that pulls data from a webserver, parses the relevant information and refreshes the table as required. This is where the refresh process kicks off: - (void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate{ if (scrollView.contentOffset.y <= - 65.0f && !self.reloading) { self.reloading = YES; [self reloadTableViewDataSource]; [refreshHeaderView setState:EGOOPullRefreshLoading]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(60.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Problem is if I start to scroll whilst the content inset is "visible" (i.e. during reload) I get this weird behaviour where my table sections do not scroll all the way to the top - see screenshot for a clear visual of what I am trying to describe here. I have included a couple of screenshots below that clearly identify what is happening at the moment. Has anyone experienced this before? Any ideas on what I should be looking at to try and fix it? Many thanks in advance, Rog And this is the result if I start scrolling the table. The orange bit at the top of the image is the actual navigation bar, where I would expect the table section (date 1 December 2010) to be.

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  • How can I stop the browser viewport moving to the top of the page when the user clicks on a jQueryUI radio button?

    - by ben
    I have got some radio buttons setup like this: <div id="typeRadios"> <input id="note_notetype_note1" name="note[notetype]" type="radio" value="note1" /><label for="note_notetype_note1">note1</label> <input id="note_notetype_note2" name="note[notetype]" type="radio" value="note2" /><label for="note_notetype_note2">note2</label> </div> That I turn into jQueryUI buttons like this: $("#typeRadios").buttonset(); This is the resulting HTML: <input type="radio" value="note1" name="note[notetype]" id="note_notetype_note1" class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible"> <label for="note_notetype_note1" aria-pressed="false" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-text-only ui-corner-left" role="button" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-button-text">note1</span></label> <input type="radio" value="note2" name="note[notetype]" id="note_notetype_note2" class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible"> <label for="note_notetype_note2" aria-pressed="false" class="ui-button ui-widget ui-state-default ui-button-text-only ui-corner-left" role="button" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-button-text">note2</span></label> The buttons work, but whenever I click one, the browser view-port gets returned to the top of the page, the same way it happens when you click on a <a href="#">link</a> link. I am using jQuery 1.4.2 and jQueryUI 1.8.7. How can I prevent this behaviour? Thanks for reading. EDIT: The <a href="#">link</a> part was missing.

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  • WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

    - by Marks
    Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

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