Search Results

Search found 16050 results on 642 pages for 'linq to objects'.

Page 549/642 | < Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >

  • Reading and writing XML over an SslStream

    - by Mark
    I want to read and write XML data over an SslStream. The data (written and read) consists of objects serialized by an XmlSerializer. I have tried the following; (left some details out for clarity!) TcpClient tcpClient = new TcpClient(server, port); SslStream sslStream = new SslStream(tcpClient.GetStream(), true, new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(ValidateServerCertificate), null); sslStream.AuthenticateAsClient(server); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(sslStream,readerSettings); XmlWriter xmlWriter = XmlWriter.Create(sslStream,writerSettings); myClass c = new myClass (); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(myClass)); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, c); myClass c2 = (myClass )serializer.Deserialize(xmlReader); First of all, it appears that writing to the stream succeeds. But the XmlSerializer throws an error because of invalid XML. It appears that the first character read from the stream is '00' or a null-character. (I have googled this problem, and see a million people with the same 'problem', but no viable solution.) I can work around this 'issue' by using a StreamReader, read everything into a string and then use that string as input for another stream that the serializer can use. (Very dirty, but it works.) Second problem is, that when I try to use the same SslStream to write a second request, I do not get a response from the Reader. (The server DOES send a valid XML response though!) So the serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, c3) works, but reading from the stream yields no results. I have tried several different classes that implement Stream. (StreamReader, XmlTextReader, etc.) Anyone has an idea how reading and writing XML data to and from an SslStream is supposed to work? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to develop JSP/Servlets Web App using MVC pattern?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    I'm developing a JSP/Servlets web app (no frameworks). I want to use MVC pattern. I designed my project like this : Controller :a servlet that reads a request, extracts the values,communicates with model objects and gives information to a JSP page. View : JSP Pages. Model : Java Classes / Java Beans .. etc . The problem : Index.jsp is the starting point (default page) in my web site. So, the Index.jsp becomes the controller to parse the request! .For example , the following request : index.jsp?section=article&id=10 parsed in index.jsp as following : <div class="midcol"> <!-- Which section? --> <%String fileName = request.getParameter("section"); if (fileName == null) { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/frontpage.jsp"; } else { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/" + fileName + ".jsp"; } %> <jsp:include page='<%= fileName%>' /> </div> Here, I can't force the servlet to be a controller .. because the index.jsp is the controller here since it's the starting point! Is there any solution to forward the request from index.jsp to the servlet and then go back to index.jsp ? Or any solution that achieves the MVC goal - the servlet should be the controller - ? I'm thinking of making a FrontPageController servlet as default page instead of index.jsp ! but I don't know if it's a perfect idea ?!

    Read the article

  • Is there a good way of automatically generating javascript client code from server side python

    - by tat.wright
    I basically want to be able to: Write a few functions in python (with the minimum amount of extra meta data) Turn these functions into a web service (with the minimum of effort / boiler plate) Automatically generate some javascript functions / objects for rpc (this should prevent me from doing as many stupid things as possible like mistyping method names, forgetting the names of methods, passing the wrong number of arguments) Example python: def hello_world(): return "Hello world" javascript: ... <!-- This file is automatically generated (either dynamically or statically) --> <script src="http://myurl.com/webservice/client_side_javascript"> </script> ... <script> $('#button').click(function () { hello_world(function (data){ $('#label').text(data))) } </script> A bit of research has shown me some approaches that come close to this: Automatic generation of json-rpc services from functions with a little boiler plate code in python and then using jquery and json to do the calls (still easy to make mistakes with method names - still need to be aware of urls when calling, very irritating to write these calls yourself in the firebug shell) Using a library like soaplib to generate wsdl from python (by adding copious type information). And then somehow convert this into javascript (not sure if there is even a library to do this) But are there any approaches closer to what I want?

    Read the article

  • JS sort works in Firefox but not IE - can't work out why

    - by Max Williams
    I have a line in a javascript function that sort an array of objects based on the order of another array of strings. This is working in firefox but not in IE and i don't know why. Here's what my data looks like going into the sort call. (I'm using an array of three items just to illustrate the point here). //cherry first then the rest in alphabetical order originalData = ['cherry','apple','banana','clementine','nectarine','plum'] //data before sorting - note how clementine is second item - we wan to to to be after apple and banana csub = [ {"value":"cherry","data":["cherry"],"result":"cherry"}, {"value":"clementine","data":["clementine"],"result":"clementine"}, {"value":"apple","data":["apple"],"result":"apple"}, {"value":"banana","data":["banana"],"result":"banana"}, {"value":"nectarine","data":["nectarine"],"result":"nectarine"}, {"value":"plum","data":["plum"],"result":"plum"} ] //after sorting, csub has been rearranged but still isn't right: clementine is before banana csubSorted = [ {"value":"cherry","data":["cherry"],"result":"cherry"}, {"value":"apple","data":["apple"],"result":"apple"}, {"value":"clementine","data":["clementine"],"result":"clementine"}, {"value":"banana","data":["banana"],"result":"banana"}, {"value":"nectarine","data":["nectarine"],"result":"nectarine"}, {"value":"plum","data":["plum"],"result":"plum"} ] Here's the actual sort code: csubSorted = csub.sort(function(a,b){ return (originalData.indexOf(a.value) > originalData.indexOf(b.value)); }); Can anyone see why this wouldn't work? Is the basic javascript sort function not cross-browser compatible? Can i do this a different way (eg with jquery) that would be cross-browser? grateful for any advice - max

    Read the article

  • Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

    Read the article

  • PulpCore OGG music playback - can't loop as soon as I animate the musicVolume property

    - by Peter Perhác
    I have been experimenting with PulpCore for about a week or so and I am enjoying it very much but today I ran into a problem that I can't quite figure out. Sound bgMusic = Sound.load("music/music.ogg"); Playback musicPlayback; ... musicVolume = new Fixed(0.75); musicPlayback = bgMusic.loop(musicVolume); //TODO figure out why it's NOT looping when volume is animated // musicVolume.animate(0, musicVolume.get(), FADE_IN_TIME); This code, for as long as the last line is commented out, plays the music.ogg again and again in an endless loop (which I can stop by calling stop on the Playback object returned from loop(). However, I would like the music to fade in smoothly, so following the advice of the PulpCore API docs, I added the last line which will create the fade-in but the music will only play once and then stop. I wonder why is that? Here is a bit of the documentation: Playback pulpcore.sound.Sound.loop(Fixed level) Loops this sound clip with the specified volume level (0.0 to 1.0). The level may have a property animation attached. Parameters: level Returns: a Playback object for this unique sound playback (one Sound can have many simultaneous Playback objects) or null if the sound could not be played. So what could be the problem? I repeat, with the last line, the sound fades in but doesn't loop, without it it loops but starts with the specified 0.75 volume level.

    Read the article

  • FLV performance and garbage collection

    - by justinbach
    I'm building a large flash site (AS3) that uses huge FLVs as transition videos from section to section. The FLVs are 1280x800 and are being scaled to 1680x1050 (much of which is not displayed to users with smaller screens), and are around 5-8 seconds apiece. I'm encoding the videos using On2's hi-def codec, VP6-S, and playback is pretty good with native FLV players, Perian-equipped Quicktime, and simple proof-of-concept FLV playback apps built in AS3. The problem I'm having is that in the context of the actual site, playback isn't as smooth; the framerate isn't quite as good as it should be, and more problematically, there's occasional jerkiness and dropped frames (sometimes pausing the video for as long as a quarter of a second or so). My guess is that this is being caused by garbage collection in the Flash player, which happens nondeterministically and is therefore hard to test and control for. I'm using a single instance of FLVPlayback to play the videos; I originally was using NetStream objects and so forth directly but switched to FLVPlayback for this reason. Has anyone experienced this sort of jerkiness with FLVPlayback (or more generally, with hi-def Flash video)? Am I right about GC being the culprit here, and if so, is there any way to prevent it during playback of these system-intensive transitions?

    Read the article

  • MongoDB - proper use of collections?

    - by zmg
    In Mongo my understanding is that you can have databases and collections. I'm working on a social-type app that will have blogs and comments (among other things) and had previously be using MySQL and pretty heavy partitioning in an attempt to limit possible concurrency issues. With MySQL I've stuffed all my user data into a _user database with several tables to further partition the data (blogs, pages, etc). My immediate reaction with Mongo would be to create a 'users' database with one collection per user. In this way user 'zach' blog entries would go into the 'zach' collection with associated comments and such becoming sub-objects in the same collection. Basically like dynamically creating one table per user in MySQL, but apparently without the complexity and limitations that might impose. Of course since I haven't really used Mongo before I'm having trouble gauging the (ahem..) quality of this idea and the potential problems it might cause down the road. I'd like user data to be treated a lot like a users directory in a *nix environment where user created/non-shared (mostly) gets put into one place (currently with MySQL that would be the appname_users as mentioned above). Most of the users data will be specific to the users page(s). Some of the user data which is queried across all site users (searchable user profiles) is currently kept in a separate database/table and I expect things like this could be put into a appname_system database and be broken up into collections and/or application specific databases (appname_profiles). Anyway, since the available documentation on this is currently a little thin and my experience is extremely limited I thought I might find a little guidance from someone with a better working understanding of the system. On the plus side I'd really already been attempting to treat MySQL as a schema-less document-store and doing this with Mongo seems much more intuitive/sane/rational so I'm really looking forward to getting started. Thanks, Zach

    Read the article

  • Dragging a copy of all selected elements from a select box--possible?

    - by Sean
    I have a picklist web interface: a pair of select elements with a pair of buttons (a left-pointing arrow and a right-pointing arrow) between them. Users can move items between the two columns by, eg, selecting one of options in the left column and clicking on the right-pointing arrow. Now I have an enhancement request: someone wants to be able to drag-and-drop items between the two columns instead of clicking a button. The problem with my initial two-select-box setup is that as soon as I click one of the highlighted options to initiate a drag, all of the other selected options are deselected. Using jQuery, I've attached mousedown event handlers to both the select boxes and each individual option that just call preventDefault() on the event object, but this isn't sufficient. On Firefox 3 the clicked-on option loses focus immediately, but all other options are still deseleted, and on IE6 (which I regrettably still have to support) it makes no difference at all. So I thought I could maybe create a reasonable facsimile of a select box using list elements or divs or something. I can create something reasonable-looking that works on Firefox, but on IE6, if I shift-click on an element of my pseudo-select object (in order to select a range of options), IE selects all of the text between where I click and the last place I clicked. Again, I've attached preventDefault-ing mousedown, mouseup, and click handlers to all of the elements involved, but it doesn't help. I've even tried overlaying transparent divs over both my original select boxes and my pseudo-select objects, thinking to intercept mouse clicks and manage the selections manually, but I can't make it work on IE. If I use a select box, I can't prevent clicks from changing the selection, and if I use text that just looks like a select element, I can't prevent it from selecting a range of text on a shift-click. Is there some general solution, or am I just out of luck?

    Read the article

  • Saving complex aggregates using Repository Pattern

    - by Kevin Lawrence
    We have a complex aggregate (sensitive names obfuscated for confidentiality reasons). The root, R, is composed of collections of Ms, As, Cs, Ss. Ms have collections of other low-level details. etc etc R really is an aggregate (no fair suggesting we split it!) We use lazy loading to retrieve the details. No problem there. But we are struggling a little with how to save such a complex aggregate. From the caller's point of view: r = repository.find(id); r.Ps.add(factory.createP()); r.Cs[5].updateX(123); r.Ms.removeAt(5); repository.save(r); Our competing solutions are: Dirty flags Each entity in the aggregate in the aggregate has a dirty flag. The save() method in the repository walks the tree looking for dirty objects and saves them. Deletes and adds are a little trickier - especially with lazy-loading - but doable. Event listener accumulates changes. Repository subscribes a listener to changes and accumulates events. When save is called, the repository grabs all the change events and writes them to the DB. Give up on repository pattern. Implement overloaded save methods to save the parts of the aggregate separately. The original example would become: r = repository.find(id); r.Ps.add(factory.createP()); r.Cs[5].updateX(123); r.Ms.removeAt(5); repository.save(r.Ps); repository.save(r.Cs); repository.save(r.Ms); (or worse) Advice please! What should we do?

    Read the article

  • Is using YIELD a read-only way to return a collection?

    - by Eric
    I'm writing an interface which has a collection property which I want to be read only. I don't want users of the interface to be able to modify the collection. The typical suggestion I've found for creating a read only collection property is to set the type of the property to IEnumerable like this: private List<string> _mylist; public IEnumerable<string> MyList { get { return this._mylist; } } Yet this does not prevent the user from casting the IEnumerable back to a List and modifying it. If I use a Yield keyword instead of returning _mylist directly would this prevent users of my interface from being able to modify the collection. I think so because then I'm only returning the objects one by one, and not the actual collection. private List<string> _mylist; public IEnumerable<string> MyList { get { foreach(string str in this._mylist) { yield return str; } } }

    Read the article

  • Email Collector / Implementation

    - by Tian
    I am implementing a simple RoR webpage that collect emails from visitors and store them as objects. I'm using it as a mini-project to try RoR and BDD. I can think of 3 features for Cucumber: 1. User submits a valid email address 2. User submits an existing email address 3. User submits an invalid email My question is, for scenarios 2 and 3, is it better to handle this via the controller? or as methods in a class? Perhaps something that throws errors if an instance is instantiated in sceanrio 2 or 3? Implementation is below, love to hear some code reviews in addition to answers to questions above. Thanks! MODEL: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessor :email end VIEW: <h1>Welcome To My Experiment</h1> <p>Find me in app/views/welcome/index.html.erb</p> <%= flash[:notice] %> <% form_for @contact, :url => {:action => "index"} do |f| %> <%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Submit' %> <% end %> CONTROLLER: class WelcomeController < ApplicationController def index @contact = Contact.new unless params[:contact].nil? @contact = Contact.create!(params[:contact]) flash[:notice] = "Thank you for your interest, please check your mailbox for confirmation" end end end

    Read the article

  • Define a swig interface file for generation of wrapper to every type from some header file

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    Hi! We're using some C library in our Java project. Several years ago some other developer which has retired few years ago (as always) has created all the wrappers for us. The wrappers were generated by the swig, but the interface file is lost now. The basic idea of library and the wrappers for it is following: There only one function which returns pointer to some complex object. And there are wrapper for that function. The complex object is a tree-like structure with dozens of node kinds and types (C structures) used to represent them. There are hundreds of wrappers for every field of every type and we're trying to use them all. The library was updated some time ago and now there are some new data we unaware of which yet, but would like to use. This data is contained in some of the objects indirectly contained or referenced from the object created by the function we call (Some new fields and types were added). I know that I shouldn't make any changes to the wrappers by hand and should rather modify the interface, but as I already wrote it's missing. For now I only want to generate wrappers some few types which are added/changed and them to our old wrappers, but later I want to start creation of interface file which will define "what and how should be wrapped". All the definitions necessary for us are defined in single header file. Is it possible to tell swig to generate wrappers for every type in this header? If so, how can I write such interface file?

    Read the article

  • Cross-platform and language (de)serialization

    - by fwgx
    I'm looking for a way to serialize a bunch of C++ structs in the most convenient way so that the serialization is portable across C++ and Java (at a minimum) and across 32bit/64bit, big/little endian platforms. The structures to be serialized just contain data, i.e. they're pure data objects with no state or behavior. The idea being that we serialize the structs into an octet blob that we can store in a database "generically" and be read out later on. Thus avoiding changing the database whenever a struct changes and also avoiding assigning each data member to a field - i.e. we only want one table to hold everything "generically" as a binary blob. This should make less work for developers and require less changes when structures change. I've looked at boost.serialize but don't think there's a way to enable compatibility with Java. And likewise for inheriting Serializable in Java. If there is a way to do it by starting with an IDL file that would be best as we already have IDL files that describe the structures. Cheers in advance!

    Read the article

  • MVVM pattern: ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

    - by Pavel Savara
    I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

    Read the article

  • Binding a list belonging to another object in a custom model binder in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Dan
    I realize something like this has been asked, but this may be a little different Below is my Event object: Event : IEvent public int Id public string Title public List<EventContact> Contacts And EventContact: EventContact public int Id public string Name So, an Event has a list of EventContact' objects. Now, Event also implements IEvent - hence the custom model binder. I useIEventinstead of Event, so when the default model binder tries to do its thing, it lets me know it can't create anIEvent'. I have my view with populated with the contact info: <input type="text" name="contact[0].Name" value="DB Value"/> <input type="text" name="contact[1].Name" value="DB Value"/> <input type="text" name="contact[2].Name" value="DB Value"/> <!-- Event fields, etc --> So, in my custom model binder I am able to see all the value - sweet! The only thing is, I'm really not sure how to get all the contact fields and create a list of contacts from them, along with binding all the Event fields. Any and all help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

    - by Adam Jones
    We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

    Read the article

  • using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

    - by craigmoliver
    In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

    Read the article

  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to iterate over a large result set in JDBC/iBatis 3?

    - by paul_sns
    We're trying to iterate over a large number of rows from the database and convert those into objects. Behavior will be as follows: Result will be sorted by sequence id, a new object will be created when sequence id changes. The object created will be sent to an external service and will sometimes have to wait before sending another one (which means the next set of data will not be immediately used) We already have invested code in iBatis 3 so an iBatis solution will be the best approach for us (we've tried using RowBounds but haven't seen how it does the iteration under the hood). We'd like to balance minimizing memory usage and reducing number of DB trips. We're also open to pure JDBC approach but we'd like the solution to work on different databases. UPDATE: We need to make as few calls to DB as possible (1 call would be the ideal scenario) while also preventing the application to use too much memory. Are there any other solutions out there for this type of problem may it be pure JDBC or any other technology? Thanks and hope to hear your insights on this.

    Read the article

  • Get notified when objective-c dom updates are ready initiated from webview

    - by Josh
    I am programmatically updating the DOM on a WebKit webview via DOMElement objects - for complex UI, there is usually a javascript component to any element that I add. This begs the need to be notified when the updates complete -- is there any such event? I know regular divs dont fire an onload or onready event, correct? The other assumption I had, which may be totally wrong, is that DOMElement updates aren't synchronous, so I can't do something like this and be confident it will meet with the label actually in the DOM: DOMElement *displayNameLabel = [document createElement:@"div"]; [displayNameLabel setAttribute:@"class" value:@"user-display-name"]; [displayNameLabel setTextContent:currentAvatar.avatarData.displayName]; [[document getElementById:@"user-card-content"] appendChild:displayNameLabel]; id win = [webView windowScriptObject]; [win evaluateWebScript:@"javascriptInstantiateLabel()"]; Is this true? I am using jquery within the body of the html already, so I don't mind subscribing to a particular classes set of events via "live." I thought I might be able to do something like: $(".some-class-to-be-added-later").live( "ready", function(){ // Instantiate some fantastic javascript here for .some-class }); but have experienced no joy so far. Is there any way on either side (objective-c since I don't programmatically firing javascript post load, or javascript) to be notified when the element is in the DOM? Thanks, Josh

    Read the article

  • findViewById returns null in new Intent

    - by drozzy
    I am having a problem where in the started Intent, the findViewById returns null. Is there anything special I should know about starting a new intent? It goes something like this for me: //in the MainList class Intent stuffList = new Intent(this, StuffList.class); then in the new Stuff's constructor: public class StuffList extends ListActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); this.setContentView(R.layout.stuff_list); ... this.setListAdapter(new StuffAdapter(this, my_cursor)); and in the StuffAdapter I do my usual view and data retrieval. Note the line where findViewById returns null: class ViewWrapper{ View base; TextView label = null; ViewWrapper(View base){ this.base = base; } TextView getLabel(){ if(label == null){ label = (TextView)base.findViewById(R.id.my_label); // returns NULL } return label;} } class StuffAdapter extends CursorAdapter{ StuffAdapter(Context context, Cursor cursor){ super(context, cursor); } @Override public View newView(Context context, Cursor cursor, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); View row = inflater.inflate(R.layout.stuff_list, parent, false); ViewWrapper wrapper = new ViewWrapper(row); row.setTag(wrapper); return(row); } @Override public void bindView(View row, Context context, Cursor cursor) { ViewWrapper wrapper = (ViewWrapper)row.getTag(); TextView label = wrapper.getLabel(); // also NULL //this throws exception of course label.setText(cursor.getString("title")); } } The curious thing is that in the class that calls intent (MainList class), I do Exactly the same thing (i list a bunch of objects), and it Works! however when I try to do it in an Intent - it can't seem to find the view by id.

    Read the article

  • A view "transparent" to touches in some areas

    - by Mike
    I have this transparent view that covers the whole screen. I using this view to group objects because I need to run them together around a specific anchor point. Lets call this view transparentView. At some point, transparentView contains two subviews. Two vertical bars full of icons, one on the left and one on the right of the screen. I need these bars and their icons to respond to touches, so I have to set transparentView setUserInteraction to YES. The area between the two vertical bars are totally transparent. transparentView is on top of other views and I need these other views to respond to taps but, the transparent area of transparentView are intercepting the taps and not letting them go thru to the view below. This transparent view is a UIImageView based class. I have tried to forward taps on that class, using - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self.nextResponder touchesBegan: touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self.nextResponder touchesMoved: touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self.nextResponder touchesEnded: touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } but this is not working. How can I do that? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Reference 3.5 assembly from 4.0 winforms phail

    - by Dean Lunz
    So I have this utility library that is compiled as a dll under .net 3.5 and it is used by my asp.net 3.5 website. I created a .net 4.0 winforms app to push data onto the website. I want to make use of the functionality in the utilities library from this winforms app. The problem lies in that when I make reference to the utilities library and use the code in it intellisense barks at me saying that it can't find the objects in that library. The thing is I would switch the winforms app to 3.5 which fixes the problem, but I am using Tasks which require 4.0. And because my website and utilities library both run 3.5 and my website is hosted at godaddy that currently only supports asp.net 3.5 so compiling my utilities library under 4.0 for my winforms app is not going to work because it breaks my website. I have tried the app.config trick ala useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true" ... But that did not help. Obviously I could start a new utilities project for 4.0 and and copy the code files from the existing utilities library then reference the new 4.0 utilities library in my winforms app but, that strikes me as being rather overkill when all I want to do is reference the library and use it's functionality. Not to mention that I would have two utility libraries both containing the exact same code, and if I update the code in one I will need to make sure that the other is also updated. I could use add file as link, but you get the idea. So is there anything else I could try or any other way to solve or get around this? Or am I just going to have to break down and create a identical clone of the utilities library for 4.0.

    Read the article

  • Hazelcast Distributed Executor Service KeyOwner

    - by János Veres
    I have problem understanding the concept of Hazelcast Distributed Execution. It is said to be able to perform the execution on the owner instance of a specific key. From Documentation: <T> Future<T> submitToKeyOwner(Callable<T> task, Object key) Submits task to owner of the specified key and returns a Future representing that task. Parameters: task - task key - key Returns: a Future representing pending completion of the task I believe that I'm not alone to have a cluster built with multiple maps which might actually use the same key for different purposes, holding different objects (e.g. something along the following setup): IMap<String, ObjectTypeA> firstMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("firstMap"); IMap<String, ObjectTypeA_AppendixClass> secondMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("secondMap"); To me it seems quite confusing what documentation says about the owner of a key. My real frustration is that I don't know WHICH - in which map - key does it refer to? The documentation also gives a "demo" of this approach: import com.hazelcast.core.Member; import com.hazelcast.core.Hazelcast; import com.hazelcast.core.IExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Callable; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.Set; import com.hazelcast.config.Config; public void echoOnTheMemberOwningTheKey(String input, Object key) throws Exception { Callable<String> task = new Echo(input); HazelcastInstance hz = Hazelcast.newHazelcastInstance(); IExecutorService executorService = hz.getExecutorService("default"); Future<String> future = executorService.submitToKeyOwner(task, key); String echoResult = future.get(); } Here's a link to the documentation site: Hazelcast MultiHTML Documentation 3.0 - Distributed Execution Did any of you guys figure out in the past what key does it want?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >