Search Results

Search found 17501 results on 701 pages for 'stored functions'.

Page 549/701 | < Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >

  • wamp cannot load mysqli extension

    - by localhost
    WAMP installed fine, no problems, BUT... When going to phpMyAdmin, I get the error from phpMyAdmin as follows: "Cannot load mysqli extension. Please check your PHP configuration". Also, phpMyAdmin documentation explains this error message as follows: "To connect to a MySQL server, PHP needs a set of MySQL functions called "MySQL extension". This extension may be part of the PHP distribution (compiled-in), otherwise it needs to be loaded dynamically. Its name is probably mysql.so or php_mysql.dll. phpMyAdmin tried to load the extension but failed. Usually, the problem is solved by installing a software package called "PHP-MySQL" or something similar." Finally, the apache_error.log file has the following PHP warnings (see the mySQL warning): PHP Warning: Zend Optimizer does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of Zend Optimizer in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: Zend Platform does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of Zend Platform in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: Zend Debug Server does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of Zend Debug Server in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: gd wrapper does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of gd wrapper in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: java wrapper does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of java wrapper in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: mysql wrapper does not support this version of PHP - please upgrade to the latest version of mysql wrapper in Unknown on line 0 So, for some reason PHP is not recognizing the mysql extension. Anyone know why? Any solution or workaround?

    Read the article

  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

    Read the article

  • javascript normalize whitespace and other plain-text formatting routines

    - by dreftymac
    Background: The language is JavaScript. The goal is to find a library or pre-existing code to do low-level plain-text formatting. I can write it myself, but why re-invent the wheel. The issue is: it is tough to determine if a "wheel" is out there, since any search for JavaScript libraries pulls up an ocean of HTML-centric stuff. I am not interested in HTML necessarily, just text. Example: I need a JavaScript function that changes this: BEFORE: nisi ut aliquip | ex ea commodo consequat duis |aute irure dolor in esse cillum dolore | eu fugiat nulla pariatur |excepteur sint occa in culpa qui | officia deserunt mollit anim id |est laborum ... into this ... AFTER: nisi ut aliquip | ex ea commodo consequat duis | aute irure dolor in esse cillum dolore | eu fugiat nulla pariatur | excepteur sint occa in culpa qui | officia deserunt mollit anim id | est laborum Question: Does it exist, a JavaScript library that is non-html-web-development-centric that has functions for normalizing spaces in delimited plain text, justifying and spacing plain text? Rationale: Investigating JavaScript for use in a programmer's text editor.

    Read the article

  • How can I determine if an object or reference has a valid string coercion?

    - by Ether
    I've run into a situation (while logging various data changes) where I need to determine if a reference has a valid string coercion (e.g. can properly be printed into a log or stored in a database). There isn't anything in Scalar::Util to do this, so I have cobbled together something using other methods in that library: use strict; use warnings; use Scalar::Util qw(reftype refaddr); sub has_string_coercion { my $value = shift; my $as_string = "$value"; my $ref = ref $value; my $reftype = reftype $value; my $refaddr = sprintf "0x%x", refaddr $value; if ($ref eq $reftype) { # base-type references stringify as REF(0xADDR) return $as_string !~ /^${ref}\(${refaddr}\)$/; } else { # blessed objects stringify as REF=REFTYPE(0xADDR) return $as_string !~ /^${ref}=${reftype}\(${refaddr}\)$/; } } # Example: use DateTime; my $ref1 = DateTime->now; my $ref2 = \'foo'; print "DateTime has coercion: " . has_string_coercion($ref1) . "\n\n"; print "scalar ref has coercion: " . has_string_coercion($ref2) . "\n"; However, I suspect there might be a better way of determining this by inspecting the guts of the variable in some way. How can this be done better?

    Read the article

  • A dynamic array of class "landmark", inside another single class "landmarks"

    - by pinnacler
    I'm working on a robot localization simulator and I created a class called "landmark". The end result is going to be a robot that is always centered and always faces the top of the screen. As it turns, the birds eye view map will rotate around the robot. To accomplish this, I'm assuming I can rotate one class and have all elements inside rotate as well. So, the landmark class has properties x,y, label, and radius. This is suppose to simulate a tree location in a forest. To test everything, I need "forest data," and I wrote a script to generate 100 trees in a 100m x 100m area. The script automatically generates values within an acceptable range for x,y, radius. The generated data is stored in an object called tempForest and is 100x3. Ideally, I want to create a class called "landmarks" (plural) that has 100 landmark instances inside. How would I instantiate 100 instances of landmark in one instance of landmarks using that randomly generated data? Ideally, I'd just type treeBeacons = landmarks(); and it would randomly populate 100 (user definable, set in config file) instances with x, y, radius data. I'm not sure how to deal with a dynamic array of class "Landmark", inside another single class "landmarks." Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Hot to make COM ActiveX object work in IE 64 bit?

    - by Kurtevich
    Hi! I have a COM object embeded in ASP.NET page using <object classid="clsid:XXX...">. It works in IE 32 bit, but does not work in IE 64 bit - can't access its functions. There are no error messages, no event logs where I can get some information. The dll is in C#, includes COM visible class, compiled for Any CPU (though I also tried x86), and registered during client installation by executing regasm. This creates registry keys, well everything works fine except for IE 64. I searched internet about the issue or at least some guidlines and didn't find anything. I received an answer on another forum, something about _MERGE_PROXYSTUB (I guess it's preprocessor definition?) and ProxyStubClsid32 registry key, but not very detailed. Well, I searched again, didn't find much, and experimented: rebuilt with _MERGE_PROXYSTUB defined, created ProxyStubClsid32 keys everywhere, but with no result. What can be at least possible solutions or points to look at? Maybe there is a way at least to get the logs about why IE 64 can't access it?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

    - by Kenneth
    I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

    Read the article

  • DIY intellisense on XPath - design approach? (WinForms app)

    - by Cheeso
    I read the DIY Intellisense article on code project, which was referenced from the Mimic Intellisense? question here on SO. I wanna do something similar, DIY intellisense, but for XPath not C#. The design approach used there makes sense to me: maintain a tree of terms, and when the "completion character" is pressed, in the case of C#, a dot, pop up the list of possible completions in a textfield. Then allow the user to select a term from the textfield either through typing, arrow keys, or double-click. How would you apply this to XPath autocompletion? should there be an autocomplete key? In XPath there is no obvious separator key like "dot" in C#. should the popup be triggered explicitly in some other way, let's say ctrl-. ? or should the parser try to autocomplete continuously? If I do the autocomplete continuously, how to scale it properly? There are 93 xpath functions, not counting overloads. I certainly don't want to popup a list of 93 choices. How do I decide when I've narrowed it enough to offer a useful lsit of possible completions? How to populate the tree of possible completions? For C#, it's easy: walk the type space via reflection. At a first level, the "syntax tree" for C# seems like a single tree, and the list of completions at any point depends on the graph of nodes you've traversed to that point. Typing System.Console. traverses to a certain node in that tree, and the list of completions is the set of child nodes available at that node in the tree. On the other hand, the xpath syntax seems like it is a "flatter" tree - function names, axis names, literals. Does this make sense? what have I not considered?

    Read the article

  • Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (104)

    - by user309670
    Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for multiplexing connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on their port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR?), which in the network context suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer'; or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? I use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right, but of course in series not parallel. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. Any ideas? I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind, GDB or much logging. Kindly help where you can.

    Read the article

  • How to arrange business logic in a Kohana 3 project

    - by Pekka
    I'm looking for advice, tutorials and links at how to set up a mid-sized web application with Kohana 3. I have implemented MVC patterns in the past but never worked against a "formalized" MVC framework so I'm still getting my head around the terminology - toying around with basic examples, building views and templates, and so on. I'm progressing fairly well but I want to set up a real-world web project (one of my own that I've been planning for quite some time now) as a learning object. I learn best by example, but example-based documentation is a bit sparse for Kohana 3 right now - they say so themselves on the site. While I'm not worried about learning the framework as I go along, I want to make sure the code base is healthily structured from the start - i.e. controllers are split nicely, named well and according to standards, and most importantly the business logic is separated into appropriately sized models. My application could, in its core, be described as a business directory with a range of search and listing functions, and a login area for each entry owner. The actual administrative database backend is already taken care of. Supposing I have all the API worked out and in place already - list all businesses, edit business, list businesses by street name, create offer logged in as business, and so on, and I'm just looking for how to fit the functionality into a MVC pattern and into a Kohana application structure that can be easily extended. Do you know real-life examples of "database-heavy" applications like directories, online communities... with a log-in area built on Kohana 3, preferably Open Source so I could take a peek how they do it? Are there conventions or best practices on how to structure an extendable login area for end users in a Kohana project that is not only able to handle a business directory page, but further products on separate pages as well? Do you know any good resources on building complex applications with Kohana? Have you built something similar and could give me recommendations on a project structure?

    Read the article

  • using XSL to replace XML nodes with new nodes

    - by iHeartGreek
    I need an XSL solution to replace XML nodes with new nodes. Say I have the following existing XML structure: <root> <criteria> <criterion>AAA</criterion> </criteria> </root> And I want to replace the one criterion node with: <criterion>BBB</criterion> <criterion>CCC</criterion> <criterion>DDD</criterion> So that the final XML result is: <root> <criteria> <criterion>BBB</criterion> <criterion>CCC</criterion> <criterion>DDD</criterion> </criteria> </root> I have tried using substring-before and substring-after to just copy the first half of the structure, then just copy the second half (in order to fill in my new nodes in between the two halves) but it appears that the substring functions only recognize text in between the nodes' tags, and not the tags themselves like I want them to. :( :( Any other solutions?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to run my Windows Form application in Windows CE platform?

    - by Fakhrul
    I am new in Windows CE development and never done it yet. Need some advise from the expert in here. In our current project, we are developing a client-server application. The client side is using a windows form application that are base on Windows XP OS while the server is a web base application. This question are related to the client application (Windows Form). This application are using Sql Server Express Edition for data storage. The data is stored in XML object format. It also can transfer a data from client to server via web service. It also interact with hardware such as Magnetic Stripe Reader, Contactless Smart Card Reader, and a thermal printer. Most of the communication between hardware device and systems are base on Serial Port. It is use standard app.config for the configuration and is a multi threaded application. There is a new requirement to use a Handheld device which is use a Windows CE platform. This handheld included the required equipment such as Contactless Smart Card Reader, Printer and Magnetic Stripe Reader. Instead of developing a new client application, is it possible to me to convert my current application that are base on Windows XP to Windows CE? If yes, how can I do that? If no, is it any other brilliant suggestion to do this? Thanks in advance. Software Engineer

    Read the article

  • Backbone Model fetched from Lithium controller is not loaded properly in bb Model

    - by Nilesh Kale
    I'm using backbone.js and Lithium. I'm fetching a model from the server by passing in a _id that is received as a hidden parameter on the page. The database MongoDB has stored the data correctly and can be viewed from console as: { "_id" : ObjectId("50bb82694fbe3de417000001"), "holiday_name" : "SHREE15", "description": "", "star_rating" : "3", "holiday_type" : "family", "rooms" : "1", "adults" : "2", "child" :"0", "emails" : "" } The Lithium Model class is so: class Holidays extends \lithium\data\Model { public $validates = array( 'holiday_name' => array( array( 'notEmpty', 'required' => true, 'message' => 'Please key-in a holiday name! (eg. Family trip for summer holidays)' ))); } The backbone Holiday model is so: window.app.IHoliday = Backbone.Model.extend({ urlRoot: HOLIDAY_URL, idAttribute: "_id", id: "_id", // Default attributes for the holiday. defaults: { }, // Ensure that each todo created has `title`. initialize: function(props) { }, The code for backbone/fetch is: var Holiday = new window.app.IHoliday({ _id: holiday_id }); Holiday.fetch( { success: function(){ alert('Holiday fetched:' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('HOLIDAY Fetched: \n' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('Holiday name:' + Holiday.get('holiday_name')); } } ); Lithium Controller Code is: public function load($holiday_id) { $Holiday = Holidays::find($holiday_id); return compact('Holiday'); } PROBLEM: The output of the backbone model fetched from server is as below and the Holiday model is not correctly 'formed' when data returns into backbone Model: HOLIDAY Fetched: {"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","Holiday":{"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","holiday_name":"SHREE15","description":"","star_rating":"3","holiday_type":"family","rooms":"1","adults":"2","child":"0","emails":""}} iplann...view.js (line 68) Holiday name:undefined Clearly there is some issue when the data is passed/translated from Lithium and loaded up as a model into backbone Holiday model. Is there something very obviously wrong in my code?

    Read the article

  • sqlite3 JOIN, GROUP_CONCAT using distinct with custom separator

    - by aiwilliams
    Given a table of "events" where each event may be associated with zero or more "speakers" and zero or more "terms", those records associated with the events through join tables, I need to produce a table of all events with a column in each row which represents the list of "speaker_names" and "term_names" associated with each event. However, when I run my query, I have duplication in the speaker_names and term_names values, since the join tables produce a row per association for each of the speakers and terms of the events: 1|Soccer|Bobby|Ball 2|Baseball|Bobby - Bobby - Bobby|Ball - Bat - Helmets 3|Football|Bobby - Jane - Bobby - Jane|Ball - Ball - Helmets - Helmets The group_concat aggregate function has the ability to use 'distinct', which removes the duplication, though sadly it does not support that alongside the custom separator, which I really need. I am left with these results: 1|Soccer|Bobby|Ball 2|Baseball|Bobby|Ball,Bat,Helmets 3|Football|Bobby,Jane|Ball,Helmets My question is this: Is there a way I can form the query or change the data structures in order to get my desired results? Keep in mind this is a sqlite3 query I need, and I cannot add custom C aggregate functions, as this is for an Android deployment. I have created a gist which makes it easy for you to test a possible solution: https://gist.github.com/4072840

    Read the article

  • "Decompile" Javascript function? *ADVANCED*

    - by caesar2k
    [1] Ok, I don't even know how to call this, to be honest. So let me get some semi-pseudo code, to show what I'm trying to do. I'm using jquery to get an already existing script declared inside the page, inside a createDocument() element, from an AJAX call. GM_xmlhttprequest({ ... load:function(r){ var doc = document_from_string(r.responseText); script_content = $('body script:regex(html, local_xw_sig)', doc).html(); var scriptEl = document.createElement('script'); scriptEl.type = 'text/javascript'; scriptEl.innerHTML = script_content; // good till here (function(sc){ eval(sc.innerHTML); // not exactly like this, but you get the idea, errors alert('wont get here ' + local_xw_sig); // local_xw_sig is a global "var" inside the source })(scriptEl); } }); so far so good, the script indeed contains the source from the entire script block. Now, inside this "script_content", there are auto executing functions, like $(document).ready(function(){...}) that, everything I "eval" the innerHTML, it executes this code, halting my encapsulated script. like variables that doesn't exist, etc removing certain parts of the script using regex isn't really an option... what I really wanted is to "walk" inside the function. like do a (completely fictional): script = eval("function(){" + script_content + "};"); alert(script['local_xw_sig']); // a03ucc34095cw3495 is there any way to 'disassemble' the function, and be able to reach the "var"s inside of it? like this function: function hello(){ var message = "hello"; } alert(hello.message); // message = var inside the function is it possible at all? or I will have to hack my way using regex? ;P [2] also, is there any way I can access javascript inside a document created with "createDocument"?

    Read the article

  • CAS authentication and redirects with jQuery Ajax

    - by Steve Nay
    I've got an HTML page that needs to make requests to a CAS-protected (Central Authentication Service) web service using the jQuery AJAX functions. I've got the following code: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: request, dataType: "json", complete: function(xmlHttp) { console.log(xmlHttp); alert(xmlHttp.status); }, success: handleRedirects }); The request variable can be either to the CAS server (https://cas.mydomain.com/login?service=myServiceURL) or directly to the service (which should then redirect back to CAS to get a service ticket). Firebug shows that the request is being made and that it comes back as a 302 redirect. However, the $.ajax() function isn't handling the redirect. I wrote this function to work around this: var handleRedirects = function(data, textStatus) { console.log(data, textStatus); if (data.redirect) { console.log("Calling a redirect: " + data.redirect); $.get(data.redirect, handleRedirects); } else { //function that handles the actual data processing gotResponse(data); } }; However, even with this, the handleRedirects function never gets called, and the xmlHttp.status always returns 0. It also doesn't look like the cookies are getting sent with the cas.mydomain.com call. (See this question for a similar problem.) Is this a problem with the AJAX calls not handling redirects, or is there more going on here than meets the eye?

    Read the article

  • Best way to enforce inter-table constraints inside database

    - by FerranB
    I looking for the best way to check for inter-table constraints an step forward of foreing keys. For instance, to check if a date child record value is between a range date on two parent rows columns. For instance: Parent table ID DATE_MIN DATE_MAX ----- ---------- ---------- 1 01/01/2009 01/03/2009 ... Child table PARENT_ID DATE ---------- ---------- 1 01/02/2009 1 01/12/2009 <--- HAVE TO FAIL! ... I see two approaches: Create materialized views on-commit as shown in this article (or other equivalent on other RDBMS). Use stored-procedures and triggers. Any other approach? Which is the best option? UPDATE: The motivation of this question is not about "putting the constraints on database or on application". I think this is a tired question and anyone does the way she loves. And, I'm sorry for detractors, I'm developing with constraints on database. From here, the question is "which is the best option to manage inter-table constraints on database?". I'm added "inside database" on the question title. UPDATE 2: Some one added the "oracle" tag. Of course materialized views are oracle-tools but I'm interested on any option regardless it's on oracle or others RDBMSs.

    Read the article

  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

    Read the article

  • How to wrap a thirdparty library COM class for notifications in a C++ project

    - by geocoin
    A thirdparty vendor has provided a COM interface as an external API to their product, and for sending instructions to it, it's fine with the mechanism of generating class wrappers with visual studio by importing from the dll, then creating instances of the created classes, calling their CreateDispatch(), using the access functions and releasing when done. For return notifications, I'd normally create an EventsListener class derived from IDispatch using the Invoke function to handle events returning from the interface. This vendor has created an Events lass which I have to wrap and expose, then explicitly tell the installation where to look. all the example are given is C# where it's really easy, but I'm struggling on how to do it in C++ in the C# example, the interop dll provided is simply added as a reference and derived into a class like so: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Text; using <THIER INTEROP LIB> namespace some.example.namespace { [ComVisible(true)] public class EventViewer : IEvents //where IEvents is their events class { public void OnEvent(EventID EventID, object pData) //overridden function { //event handled here } } } In broad terms I assume that I must create a COM interface, since they require a ProgID from me to instantiate, but how do I derive that's been wrapped by the import and then expose the created class to COM I'm just not sure where to even start, as all the tutorials I've seen so far talk in terms of creating brand new classes not wrapping a third party one

    Read the article

  • Multiple Application Support Directories for iPhone Simulator?

    - by Alex G
    I am developing an iPhone app with someone else. The app works fine for me, but he is running into a bug. We think this bug is related to the fact that he is getting multiple Application directories for this same app. In my ~/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications, I only have one folder at all times. He says that he will get 3 or 4 directories when he is only working on this one app. We think this is our problem because our bug has to do with displaying images that are stored in the app's Documents folder. Does anyone know why he is ending up with multiple directories or how to stop it? Edit: Here is the code for writing the image to a file: NSData *image = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[currentArticle articleImage]]]; NSArray *array = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *imagePath = [array objectAtIndex:0]; NSFileManager *NSFM = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; BOOL isDir = YES; if(![NSFM fileExistsAtPath:imagePath isDirectory:&isDir]) if(![NSFM createDirectoryAtPath:imagePath attributes:nil]) NSLog(@"error"); imagePath = [imagePath stringByAppendingFormat:@"/images"]; if(![NSFM fileExistsAtPath:imagePath isDirectory:&isDir]) if(![NSFM createDirectoryAtPath:imagePath attributes:nil]) NSLog(@"error"); imagePath = [imagePath stringByAppendingFormat:@"/%@.jpg", [currentArticle uniqueID]]; [image writeToFile:imagePath atomically:NO]; And here is the code for getting the path when I need the image: - (NSString *)imagePath { NSArray *array = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *imagePath = [array objectAtIndex:0]; return [imagePath stringByAppendingFormat:@"/images/%@.jpg", [self uniqueID]]; } The app works great for me, but my partner says that the images don't show up intermittently, and he notices that he gets multiple directories in his Applications folder.

    Read the article

  • Strange execution times in t-sql

    - by TonyP
    Hi All I have two stored procedures, the first one calls the second .. If I execute the second one alone it takes over 5 minutes to complete.. But when executed within the first one it takes little over 1 minute.. What is the reason ! Here is the first one ALTER procedure [dbo].[schRefreshPriceListItemGroups] as begin tran delete from PriceListItemGroups if @@error !=0 goto rolback Insert PriceListItemGroups(comno,t$cuno,t$cpls,t$cpgs,t$dsca,t$cpru) SELECT distinct c.comno,c.t$cuno, c.t$cpls,I.t$cpgs,g.t$dsca,g.t$cpru FROM TTCCOM010nnn C JOIN TTDSLS032nnn PL ON PL.comno = c.Comno and PL.t$cpls = c.t$cpls JOIN TTIITM001nnn I ON I.t$item = pl.t$item AND I.comno = pl.comNo JOIN TTCMCS024nnn G ON g.T$cprg = I.t$cpgs AND g.comno = I.Comno WHERE c.t$cpls !='' order by comno desc, t$cuno, t$cpgs if @@error !=0 goto rolback ----------------------------------------------------- Exec scrRefreshCustomersCatalogs ----------------------------------------------------- commit tran return rolback: Rollback tran And the second one Alter proc scrRefreshCustomersCatalogs as declare @baanIds table(id int identity(1,1),baanId varchar(12)) declare @baanId varchar(12),@i int, @n int Insert @baanIds(BaanId) select baanId from ftElBaanIds() SELECT @I=1,@n=max(id) from @baanIds select @i,@n Begin tran if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack WHILE @I <=@n Begin select @baanId=baanId from @baanIds where id=@i if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack Delete from customersCatalogs where comno+'-'+t$cuno=@baanId print Convert(varchar,@i)+' baanId='+@baanId Insert customersCatalogs exec customersCatalog @baanId if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack set @i=@i+1; end Commit Tran Update statistics customersCatalogs with fullscan Return xRollBack: Print '*****Rolling back*************' Rollback tran

    Read the article

  • Programmatically open an email from a POP3 and extract an attachment

    - by Josh
    We have a vendor that sends CSV files as email attachments. These CSV files contain statuses that are imported into our application. I'm trying to automate the process end-to-end, but it currently depends on someone opening an email, saving the attachment to a server share, so the application can use the file. Since I cannot convince the vendor to change their process, such as offering an FTP location or a Web Service, I'm stuck with trying to automate the existing process. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically open an email from a POP3 account and extract an attachment? The preferred solution would reside on a Windows 2003 server, be written VB.NET and secure. The application can reside on the same server as the POP3 server, for example, we could setup the free POP3 server that comes with Windows Server and pull against the mail file stored on the file system. BTW, we are willing to pay for an off-the-shelf solution, if one exists. Note: I did look at this question but the answer points to a CodeProject solution that doesn't deal with attachments.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate : Opinions in Composite PK vs Surrogate PK

    - by Albert Kam
    As i understand it, whenever i use @Id and @GeneratedValue on a Long field inside JPA/Hibernate entity, i'm actually using a surrogate key, and i think this is a very nice way to define a primary key considering my not-so-good experiences in using composite primary keys, where : there are more than 1 business-value-columns combination that become a unique PK the composite pk values get duplicated across the table details cannot change the business value inside that composite PK I know hibernate can support both types of PK, but im left wondering by my previous chats with experienced colleagues where they said that composite PK is easier to deal with when doing complex SQL queries and stored procedure processes. They went on saying that when using surrogate keys will complicate things when doing joining and there are several condition when it's impossible to do some stuffs when using surrogate keys. Although im sorry i cant explain the detail here since i was not clear enough when they explain it. Maybe i'll put more details next time. Im currently trying to do a project, and want to try out surrogate keys, since it's not getting duplicated across tables, and we can change the business-column values. And when the need for some business value combination uniqueness, i can use something like : @Table(name="MY_TABLE", uniqueConstraints={ @UniqueConstraint(columnNames={"FIRST_NAME", "LAST_NAME"}) // name + lastName combination must be unique But im still in doubt because of the previous discussion about the composite key. Could you share your experiences in this matter ? Thank you !

    Read the article

  • Date format in SQLite - iphone - How ?

    - by sagar
    I know that - SQLite doesn't support Day name & month name. I have gone through this question. I have created two custom functions for it. My custom function for Converting Day name from day number ( %w day of week 0-6 with sunday==0 ) +(NSString*)dayNameStringFromDayNo:(NSString*)dayNo{ return ([dayNo isEqualToString:@"0"])?@"Sunday": ( ([dayNo isEqualToString:@"1"])?@"Monday": ( ([dayNo isEqualToString:@"2"])?@"Tuesday": ( ([dayNo isEqualToString:@"3"])?@"Wednesday": ( ([dayNo isEqualToString:@"4"])?@"Thursday": ( ([dayNo isEqualToString:@"5"])?@"Friday": @"Saturday" ) ) ) ) ); } My custom method for getting month name from month no string ( %m month: 01-12 ) +(NSString*)monthNameFromNumber:(NSString*)no{ return ([no isEqualToString:@"01"])?@"January": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"02"])?@"February": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"03"])?@"March": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"04"])?@"April": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"05"])?@"May": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"06"])?@"June": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"07"])?@"July": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"08"])?@"August": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"09"])?@"September": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"10"])?@"October": ( ([no isEqualToString:@"11"])?@"November":@"Decemeber" ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ); } But what about date following format. Sat 6th February How to get this kind of output ? Do I have to again create a custom function for it ? Thanks in advance for sharing your knowledge. Sagar.

    Read the article

  • Two-phase lookup: can I avoid "code bloat"?

    - by Pietro
    Two-phase lookup question: Is there a more synthetic way to write this code, i.e. avoiding all those "using" directives? I tried with "using CBase<T>;", but it is not accepted. #include <iostream> template <typename T> class CBase { protected: int a, b, c, d; // many more... public: CBase() { a = 123; } }; template <typename T> class CDer : public CBase<T> { // using CBase<T>; // error, but this is what I would like using CBase<T>::a; using CBase<T>::b; using CBase<T>::c; //... public: CDer() { std::cout << a; } }; int main() { CDer<int> cd; } In my real code there are many more member variables/functions, and I was wondering if it is possible to write shorter code in some way. Of course, using the CBase::a syntax does not solve the problem... Thank's! gcc 4.1 MacOS X 10.6

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556  | Next Page >