Search Results

Search found 1596 results on 64 pages for 'belongs on serverfault'.

Page 55/64 | < Previous Page | 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62  | Next Page >

  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

    Read the article

  • SQL: Join multiple tables and get a grouped sum

    - by Scienceprodigy
    I have a database with 3 tables that have related data. One table has transactions, and the other two relate to transaction categories. Basically it's financial data, so each transaction has a category (i.e. "gasoline" for a gas purchase transaction). A short version of my Transactions table looks like this- Transactions Table: ________________________________ | ID | Type | Amount | Category | --------------------------------- I also have two more tables relating a category to a categories parent. So basically, every Category entry in the Transactions Table belongs to a parent category (i.e. "gasoline" would belong to say "Automotive Expenses"). For categories, and their parent, I have two tables - Category Children: ____________________________________________ | ID | Parent Category ID | Child Category | -------------------------------------------- Category Parent: ________________________ | ID | Parent Category | ------------------------ What I'm trying to do is query the database and have it return a total spending by parent category. To get "spending" the Type of transactions must be "Debit". I tried the following statement: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category = 'category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id = category_parents._id WHERE trans_type = 'Debit' GROUP BY parent_category ORDER BY totals DESC but it gives me the following exception: 12-31 13:51:21.515: ERROR/Exception on query(4403): android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: no such column: category_children.parent_category_id: , while compiling: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category='category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id=category_parents._id where trans_type='Debit' group by parent_category order by totals desc Any help is appreciated. (EXTRA CREDIT: I also need to make another statement to do spending by child category, given the parent category)

    Read the article

  • Getting table schema from a query

    - by Appu
    As per MSDN, SqlDataReader.GetSchemaTable returns column metadata for the query executed. I am wondering is there a similar method that will give table metadata for the given query? I mean what tables are involved and what aliases it has got. In my application, I get the query and I need to append the where clause programically. Using GetSchemaTable(), I can get the column metadata and the table it belongs to. But even though table has aliases, it still return the real table name. Is there a way to get the aliase name for that table? Following code shows getting the column metadata. const string connectionString = "your_connection_string"; string sql = "select c.id as s,c.firstname from contact as c"; using(SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) using(SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(sql, connection)) { connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.KeyInfo); DataTable schema = reader.GetSchemaTable(); foreach (DataRow row in schema.Rows) { foreach (DataColumn column in schema.Columns) { Console.WriteLine(column.ColumnName + " = " + row[column]); } Console.WriteLine("----------------------------------------"); } Console.Read(); } This will give me details of columns correctly. But when I see BaseTableName for column Id, it is giving contact rather than the alias name c. Is there any way to get the table schema and aliases from a query like the above? Any help would be great!

    Read the article

  • how often should the entire suite of a system's unit tests be run?

    - by gerryLowry
    Generally, I'm still very much a unit testing neophyte. BTW, you may also see this question on other forums like xUnit.net, et cetera, because it's an important question to me. I apoligize in advance for my cross posting; your opinions are very important to me and not everyone in this forum belongs to the other forums too. I was looking at a large decade old legacy system which has had over 700 unit tests written recently (700 is just a small beginning). The tests happen to be written in MSTest but this question applies to all testing frameworks AFAIK. When I ran, via vs2008 "ALL TESTS", the final count was only seven tests. That's about 1% of the total tests that have been written to date. MORE INFORMATION: The ASP.NET MVC 2 RTM source code, including its unit tests, is available on CodePlex; those unit tests are also written in MSTest even though (an irrelevant fact) Brad Wilson later joined the ASP.NET MVC team as its Senior Programmer. All 2000 plus tests get run, not just a few. QUESTION: given that AFAIK the purpose of unit tests is to identify breakages in the SUT, am I correct in thinking that the "best practice" is to always, or at least very frequently, run all of the tests? Thank you. Regards, Gerry (Lowry)

    Read the article

  • When software problems reported are not really software problems

    - by AndyUK
    Hi Apologies if this has already been covered or you think it really belongs on wiki. I am a software developer at a company that manufactures microarray printing machines for the biosciences industry. I am primarily involved in interfacing with various bits of hardware (pneumatics, hydraulics, stepper motors, sensors etc) via GUI development in C++ to aspirate and print samples onto microarray slides. On joining the company I noticed that whenever there was a hardware-related problem this would cause the whole setup to freeze, with nobody being any the wiser as to what the specific problem was - hardware / software / misuse etc. Since then I have improved things somewhat by introducing software timeouts and exception handling to better identify and deal with any hardware-related problems that arise eg PLC commands not successfully completed, inappropriate FPGA response commands, and various other deadlock type conditions etc. In addition, the software will now log a summary of the specific problem, inform the user and exit the thread gracefully. This software is not embedded, just interfacing using serial ports. In spite of what has been achieved, non-software guys still do not fully appreciate that in these cases, the 'software' problem they are reporting to me is not really a software problem, rather the software is reporting a problem, but not causing it. Don't get me wrong, there is nothing I enjoy more than to come down on software bugs like a ton of bricks, and looking at ways of improving robustness in any way. I know the system well enough now that I almost have a sixth sense for these things. No matter how many times I try to explain this point to people, it does not really penetrate. They still report what are essentially hardware problems (which eventually get fixed) as software ones. I would like to hear from any others that have endured similar finger-pointing experiences and what methods they used to deal with them.

    Read the article

  • "Outward" border-radius in css?

    - by MaxMackie
    Currently, the links at the top of my website look like this: However, I am trying to "round" the bottom edges of the buttons to make it look like they are coming out of the page and into the ribbon at the top. I am aware that you can hack it and add a "separator" div with rounded corners between each entry, but this would be difficult to do seeing at the borders used are not all from the same div. Also, it wouldn't be easy seeing as my buttons are very close to each other. The css for the "button": .button { border-top: 3px solid #A1C1BE; border-left: 3px solid #A1C1BE; border-right: 3px solid #A1C1BE; border-bottom: 0px; padding: 5px 8px 5px 8px; margin: 0 0 -9px 0; border-radius: 5px 5px 0 0; font-size: 12px; font-family: 'PT Sans', sans-serif; background-color: #f8f8ff; color: #484848; } css for the "ribbon": #top-wrapper { border-bottom: 5px solid #A1C1BE; width: 100%; background-color: #59554E; padding: 10px 0 0 0; color: #C0C0A8; } As you can see, the thicker border belongs to the ribbon which stretches the length of the webpage, whereas the thinner blue border is part of the button.

    Read the article

  • selectively show wordpress posts based on category

    - by Andy
    Hi, Currently I'm using the following code as part of sidebar code for Wordpress (the code works fine): <ul class="linklist"> <?php $recentPosts = new WP_Query(); $recentPosts->query('showposts=12'); while ($recentPosts->have_posts()) : $recentPosts->the_post(); ?> <li><a href="<?php the_permalink() ?>" rel="bookmark" title="Link to <?php the_title(); ?>"> <?php the_title(); ?></a> </li> <?php endwhile;?> </ul> It shows the last 12 posts. But what I'm looking for is the following; first check what category the current post (the post that is showing based on the permalink) belongs to, and then only list the latest posts that belong to that same category. What should be edited? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

    - by Omnipresent
    I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

    Read the article

  • Branch view for a file that has been split into multiple files

    - by ScottJ
    I have a large source file in Perforce that has been split up into several smaller files in a branch. I want to create a branch view that can handle this, but perforce (2009.1) only sees the last of the multiple files. For example, I created: p4 integrate //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/huge_file.c Later I split the huge file into smaller ones: p4 integrate //depot/new/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_one.c p4 integrate //depot/new/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_two.c p4 integrate //depot/new/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_three.c Then edit each of those (including //depot/new/huge_file.c) and submit. Now I make changes to //depot/original/huge_file.c and I want to integrate those changes to //depot/new. If I do this manually, it works fine: p4 integrate //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/huge_file.c p4 integrate //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_one.c p4 integrate //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_two.c p4 integrate //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_three.c But I don't want to do that every time I integrate -- this kind of thing belongs in a branch view. Unfortunately if the branch view includes the same source file multiple times, the subsequent lines override the earlier ones. How can I create a branch view like this: //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/huge_file.c //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_one.c //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_two.c //depot/original/huge_file.c //depot/new/small_file_three.c When I integrate using this branch spec, I get only small_file_three.c integrated.

    Read the article

  • How to store some of the entity's values in another table using hibernate?

    - by nimcap
    Hi guys, is there a simple way to persist some of the fields in another class and table using hibernate. For example, I have a Person class with name, surname, email, address1, address2, city, country fields. I want my classes to be: public class Person { private String name; private String surname; private String email; private Address address; // .. } public class Address { private Person person; // to whom this belongs private String address1; private String address2; private String city; private Address country; // .. } and I want to store Address in another table. What is the best way to achieve this? Edit: I am using annotations. It does not have to be the way I described, I am looking for best practices. PS. If there is a way to make Address immutable (to use as a value object) that is even better, or maybe not because I thought everything from wrong perspective :)

    Read the article

  • using dummy row with NOT NULL to solve DEFAULT NULL

    - by Tony38
    I know having DEFAULT NULLS is not a good practice but I have many optional lookup values which are FK in the system so to solve this issue here is what i am doing: I use NOT NULL for every FK / lookup colunms. I have the first row in every lookup table which is PK id = 1 as a dummy row with just "none" in all the columns. This way I can use NOT NULL in my schema and if needed reference to the none row values PK =1 for FKs which do not have any lookup value. Is this a good design or any other work arounds? EDIT: I have: Neighborhood table Postal table. Every neighborhood has a city, so the FK can be NOT NULL. But not every postal code belongs to a neighborhood. Some do, some don't depending on the country. So if i use NOT NULL for the FK between postal and neighborhood then I will be screwed as there has to be some value entered. So what i am doing in essence is: have a row in every table to be a dummy row just to link the FKs. This way row one in neighborhood table will be: n_id = 1 name =none etc... In postal table I can have: postal_code = 3456A3 FK (city) = Moscow FK (neighborhood_id)=1 as a NOT NULL. If I don't have a dummy row in the neighborhood lookup table then I have to declare FK (neighborhood_id) as a Default null column and store blanks in the table. This is an example but there is a huge number of values which will have blanks then in many tables.

    Read the article

  • SQL Query Math Gymnastics

    - by keruilin
    I have two tables of concern here: users and race_weeks. User has many race_weeks, and race_week belongs to User. Therefore, user_id is a fk in the race_weeks table. I need to perform some challenging math on fields in the race_weeks table in order to return users with the most all-time points. Here are the fields that we need to manipulate in the race_weeks table. races_won (int) races_lost (int) races_tied (int) points_won (int, pos or neg) recordable_type(varchar, Robots can race, but we're only concerned about type 'User') Just so that you fully understand the business logic at work here, over the course of a week a user can participate in many races. The race_week record represents the summary results of the user's races for that week. A user is considered active for the week if races_won, races_lost, or races_tied is greater than 0. Otherwise the user is inactive. So here's what we need to do in our query in order to return users with the most points won (actually net_points_won): Calculate each user's net_points_won (not a field in the DB). To calculate net_points, you take (1000 * count_of_active_weeks) - sum(points__won). (Why 1000? Just imagine that every week the user is spotted a 1000 points to compete and enter races. We want to factor-out what we spot the user because the user could enter only one race for the week for 100 points, and be sitting on 900, which we would skew who actually EARNED the most points.) This one is a little convoluted, so let me know if I can clarify further.

    Read the article

  • Some web pages (especially Apple documentation) cause heavy CPU usage in Windows IE8

    - by Mark Lutton
    Maybe this belongs in Server Fault instead, but some of you may have noticed this issue (particularly those developing on Mac, using a Windows machine to read the reference material). I posted the same question on a Microsoft forum and got one answer from someone who reproduced the problem, so it's not just my machine. No solution yet. Ever since this month's security updates, I find that many web pages cause the CPU to run at maximum for as long as the web page is visible. This happens in both IE7 and IE8 on at least three different computers (two with Windows XP, one with Vista). Here is one of the pages, running on XP with IE 8: http://learning2code.blogspot.com/2007/11/update-using-subversion-with-xcode-3.html Here is one that does it in Vista with IE8: http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/Cocoa/Reference/Foundation/Classes/NSString_Class/Reference/NSString.html You can leave the page open for hours and the CPU is still at high usage. This doesn't happen every time. It is not always reproduceable. Sometimes it is OK the second or third time it loads. In IE7 the high usage is in ieframe.dll, version 7.0.6000.16890. In IE8 the high usage is in iertutil.dll, version 8.0.6001.18806.

    Read the article

  • Managing inverse relationships without CoreData

    - by Nathaniel Martin
    This is a question for Objective-J/Cappuccino, but I added the cocoa tag since the frameworks are so similar. One of the downsides of Cappuccino is that CoreData hasn't been ported over yet, so you have to make all your model objects manually. In CoreData, your inverse relationships get managed automatically for you... if you add an object to a to-many relationship in another object, you can traverse the graph in both directions. Without CoreData, is there any clean way to setup those inverse relationships automatically? For a more concrete example, let's take the typical Department and Employees example. To use rails terminology, a Department object has-many Employees, and an Employee belongs-to a Department. So our Department model has an NSMutableSet (or CPMutableSet ) "employees" that contains a set of Employees, and our Employee model has a variable "department" that points back to the Department model that owns it. Is there an easy way to make it so that, when I add a new Employee model into the set, the inverse relationship (employee.department) automatically gets set? Or the reverse: If I set the department model of an employee, then it automatically gets added to that department's employee set? Right know I'm making an object, "ValidatedModel" that all my models subclass, which adds a few methods that setup the inverse relationships, using KVO. But I'm afraid that I'm doing a lot of pointless work, and that there's already an easier way to do this. Can someone put my concerns to rest?

    Read the article

  • Events and references pattern

    - by serhio
    In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

    Read the article

  • Semantically linking to code snippets

    - by Tim
    What's the most simple and semantic way of presenting code snippets in HTML? Possible XHTML syntax <a href="code_sample.php" type="text/x-php"> Example of widget creation </a> Example of linked file (code_sample.php): // Create a new widget $widget = new widget(); Pros: Semantically uses title to describe the source code being referenced Up to the client to render snippet Having very many custom server-side implementations tells me it should be standardized Browsers can have plug-ins for copy+paste, download, etc Seems to me this is where it belongs (not in Javascript) Degradation: non-compliant browsers receive a link to the associated content Cons: Not semantic enough? Seems wrong to replace hyperlinks with source code for presentation <object> might be better, but wouldn't degrade as nicely. Background I'm trying to create a "personal" XHTML standard for storing notes (wow, this is probably among the nerdiest things I've said). Since notes are just "scratch" it needs to be very lightweight. SO's markdown is very lightweight but not semantic enough for my needs. Plus, now I'm just curious. What's the most ideal syntax for linking to client-rendered code-snippets?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic select menu Rails, Javascript HABTM

    - by Jack
    Hi, I am following a tutorial in one of Ryan Bates' Railscasts here. Basically I want a form where there are 2 drop down menus, the contents of one are dependent on the other. I have Years and Courses, where Years HABMT Courses and Courses HABTM Years. In the tutorial, the javascript is as follows: var states = new Array(); <% for state in @states -%> states.push(new Array(<%= state.country_id %>, '<%=h state.name %>', <%= state.id %>)); <% end -%> function countrySelected() { country_id = $('person_country_id').getValue(); options = $('person_state_id').options; options.length = 1; states.each(function(state) { if (state[0] == country_id) { options[options.length] = new Option(state[1], state[2]); } }); if (options.length == 1) { $('state_field').hide(); } else { $('state_field').show(); } } document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { countrySelected(); $('person_country_id').observe('change', countrySelected); }); Where I guess country has many states and state belongs to country. I think what I need to do is edit the first for statement to somehow loop through all of the courses for each year_id, but don't know how to do this. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • problem with binarysearch algorithm

    - by arash
    hi friends,the code below belongs to binary search algorithm,user enter numbers in textbox1 and enter the number that he want to fing with binarysearch in textbox2.i have a problem with it,that is when i enter for example 15,21 in textbox1 and enter 15 in textbox2 and put brakpoint on the line i commented below,and i understood that it doesnt put the number in textbox2 in searchnums(commented),for more explanation i comment in code.thanks in advance public void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int searchnums = Convert.ToInt32(textBox2.Text);//the problem is here,the value in textbox2 doesnt exist in searchnums and it has value 0. int result = binarysearch(searchnums); MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); } public int binarysearch(int searchnum) { string[] source = textBox1.Text.Split(','); int[] nums = new int[source.Length]; for (int i = 0; i < source.Length; i++) { nums[i] = Convert.ToInt32(source[i]); } int first =0; int last = nums.Length; int mid = (int)Math.Floor(nums.Length / 2.0); while (1<= nums.Length) { if (searchnum < nums[mid]) { last = mid - 1; } if (searchnum > nums[mid]) { first = mid + 1; } else { return nums[mid]; } } return -1; }

    Read the article

  • How to write a file that called from a database on a page?

    - by Mehmet Kaleli
    Hi. I have a "news" page that belongs to a company. All news have a header, detail and html page and they come from database. So i have to print those html pages in a repeater on my "news.aspx". But i couldnt write dynamically. How can i do it or is there anyway else? <asp:Repeater ID="news" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="news_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="newsid" runat="server" Value='<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsid") %>' /> <tr> <td class="haberler-sayfasi-habermetni" style="width:580px;padding-bottom:30px;"> <h1 class="haberler-sayfasi-haberbasligi" style="background-image:url(images/haber-ikon.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat;padding-left:25px;"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsheader") %>/h1> <br /> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsspot") %> <br /><br /> <% **Response.WriteFile('dynamical filename with path');** %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

    Read the article

  • ldap login form works, but need to add active-directory group access

    - by Brad
    I created a form that asks you to log in, then verifies the user/pass against the ldap server/active-directory, if successful, it creates a session, which will be checked on every page. Now I want to check the session, which is the username of the person who is logged in, and do a search for them using ldap_search, so I can check what group they belong to and pass that group thru a function to verify that they can view that page. Each page will accessible to a certain group or groups of users, which those groups are defined within Active Directory. I am unsure on how I can do that using ldap_search, or maybe that is just one piece of the puzzle I am trying to solve. Any help is appreciated - thank you! In the example code below, it is seeing if the user belongs to the student active-directory group (I do not know if this code works, but it should give you an idea of what I want to accomplish). $filter = "CN=StudentCN=Users,dc=domain,dc=control"; $result = ldap_search($ldapconn,$filter,$valid_session_username); if($result == TRUE) { print $valid_session_username.' does have access to this page'; } else { print $valid_session_username.' does NOT have access to this page'; }

    Read the article

  • Disposing ActiveX resources owned by another thread

    - by Stefan Teitge
    I've got a problem problem with threading and disposing resources. I've got a C# Windows Forms application which runs expensive operation in a thread. This thread instantiates an ActiveX control (AxControl). This control must be disposed as it uses a high amount of memory. So I implemented a Dispose() method and even a destructor. After the thread ends the destructor is called. This is sadly called by the UI thread. So invoking activexControl.Dispose(); fails with the message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW", as the object belongs to another thread. How to do this correctly or is it just a bad design I use? (I stripped the code down to the minimum including removing any safety concerns.) class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { // do stuff here, e.g. open a form new Thread(new ThreadStart(RunStuff); // do more stuff } private void RunStuff() { DoStuff stuff = new DoStuff(); stuff.PerformStuff(); } } class DoStuff : IDisposable { private AxControl activexControl; DoStuff() { activexControl = new AxControl(); activexControl.CreateControl(); // force instance } ~DoStuff() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { activexControl.Dispose(); } public void PerformStuff() { // invent perpetuum mobile here, takes time } }

    Read the article

  • Changing Apache2.2.11 httpd.conf has no effect

    - by Adrian
    Hi, Hopefully someone can help here. I recently installed wampserver ver 2.0 with Apache ver 2.2.11. My issue is, I have some large php scripts which timeout at the default 5 min (300 sec) browser limit (I'm using ie8). It is critcal I get this limit extended. I have tried changing the httpd.conf file to include the following: TimeOut 1200 My objective was to set the timeout at 1200 seconds, or 20 min. I had just chosen a random location to place this directive within the httpd.conf file as I cannot locate any documentation to suggest it belongs in a specific place within the file. Regardless, the changes I make appear in the httpd.conf file that can be found in the system tray for wampserver, however they have no effect - the browser still times out after 5 minutes. I thought perhaps I had the capitals incorrect, so I changed to: Timeout 1200 This change had no effect either. Can someone please help, this is very frustrating. Maybe the command can only be used within a specific module? If so, I have no idea which one, nor do I know the syntax to specify this. Regards Adrian.

    Read the article

  • Problem with linking in gcc

    - by chitra
    I am compiling a program in which a header file is defined in multiple places. Contents of each of the header file is different, though the variable names are the same internal members within the structures are different . Now at the linking time it is picking up from a library file which belongs to a different header not the one which is used during compilation. Due to this I get an error at link time. Since there are so many libraries with the same name I don't know which library is being picked up. I have lot of oems and other customized libraries which are part of this build. I checked out the options in gcc which talks about selecting different library files to be included. But no where I am able to see an option which talks about which libraries are being picked up the linker. If the linker is able to find more than one library file name, then which does the linker pick up is something which I am not able to understand. I don't want to specify any path, rather I want to understand how the linker is resolving the multiple libraries that it is able to locate. I tried putting -v option, but that doesn't list out the path from which the gcc picks up the library. I am using gcc on linux. Any help in this regard is highly appreciated. Regards, Chitra

    Read the article

  • DRYing up Rails Views with Nested Resources

    - by viatropos
    What is your solution to the problem if you have a model that is both not-nested and nested, such as products: a "Product" can belong_to say an "Event", and a Product can also just be independent. This means I can have routes like this: map.resources :products # /products map.resources :events do |event| event.resources :products # /events/1/products end How do you handle that in your views properly? Note: this is for an admin panel. I want to be able to have a "Create Event" page, with a side panel for creating tickets (Product), forms, and checking who's rsvp'd. So you'd click on the "Event Tickets" side panel button, and it'd take you to /events/my-new-event/tickets. But there's also a root "Products" tab for the admin panel, which could list tickets and other random products. The 'tickets' and 'products' views look 90% the same, but the tickets will have some info about the event it belongs to. It seems like I'd have to have views like this: products/index.haml products/show.haml events/products/index.haml events/products/show.haml But that doesn't seem DRY. Or I could have conditionals checking to see if the product had an Event (@product.event.nil?), but then the views would be hard to understand. How do you deal with these situations? Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

    - by J Jones
    I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62  | Next Page >