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  • Error doing an MSBuild on a CLR Storedprocedure project on Build Server

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, When building a CLR Storedprocedure Project using MSBuild on our build server (Team City) we're getting the following error: error MSB4019: The imported project "C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\SqlServer.targets" was not found. Confirm that the path in the declaration is correct, and that the file exists on disk I've checked to see if the file exists on disk and sure enough it doesn't. I've checked on my own machine and it does exist. I don't really want to start copying over files manually to the build server. Here's the line from the csproj file which is being imported to the proj file: <Import Project="$(MSBuildToolsPath)\Microsoft.CSharp.targets" /> <Import Project="$(MSBuildToolsPath)\SqlServer.targets" /> Here's the line from the proj file which is begin run by our Team City Server: <Import Project="..\$(ProjectName).csproj"/> My question is really: Where does this file comes from? Is it part of the Visual Studio install for example.. Or is there some re-distribution package somewhere to allow me to compile this project on our build server? Thanks BTW.. if i just copy the file onto the Build server it does actually work. Dave

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  • Correct method to search for AD user by email address from .NET

    - by BrianLy
    I'm having some issues with code that is intended to find a user in Active Directory by searching on their email address. I have tried 2 methods but I'm sometimes finding that the FindOne() method will not return any results on some occasions. If I look up the user in the GAL in Outlook I see the SMTP email address listed. My end goal is to confirm that the user exists in AD. I only have the email address as search criteria, so no way to use first or last name. Method 1: Using mail property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(mail=" + email + ")"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); Method 2: proxyAddresses property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(proxyAddresses=SMTP:" + email + ")"; // I've also tried with =smtp: search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); I've tried changing the case of the email address input but it still does not return a result. Is there a problem here with case sensitivity? If so, what is the best way to resolve it?

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  • JQuery: Toggle submit button according to if terms are agreed with or not

    - by Svish
    I have a checkbox with id terms and a submit button in my form with class registration. I would like the submit button to be disabled initially, and then to be toggled on and off whenever the user toggle on and off the terms checkbox. I would also like to have a confirmation dialog pop up when the submit button is clicked and that if it is confirmed the submit button will be disabled again (to prevent duplicate clicking). I have gotten the last part and the first part working (I think), but I can't figure out how to get the toggling working. This is what I have so far: $(document).ready(function() { // Disable submit button initially $('form.registration input[type=submit]').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); // Toggle submit button whenever the terms are accepted or rejected $('#terms').change(function() { if($('#terms:checked').val() !== null) $('input[type=submit]', this).attr('disabled', ''); else $('input[type=submit]', this).attr('disabled', 'disabled'); }); // Ask for confirmation on submit and disable submit button if ok $('form.registration').submit(function() { if(confirm('Have you looked over your registration? Is everything correct?')) { $('input[type=submit]', this).attr('disabled', 'disabled'); return true; } return false; }); }); Could someone help me make this work? I'm a total JQuery newb at the moment, so any simplifications and fixes are welcome as well.

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  • Change Data Capture or Change Tracking - Same as Traditional Audit Trail Table?

    - by HardCode
    Before I delve into the abyss of Microsoft documentation any deeper, I'd like to know if someone experienced with Change Data Capture and Change Tracking know if one or both of these can be used to replace the traditional ... "Audit trail table copy of the 'real table' (all of the fields of the original table, plus date/time, user ID, and DML action field) inserted into by Triggers" ... setup for a database table audit trail, where the trigger populates the audit trail table (which is all manual work). The MSDN overview documentation explains at a high level what Change Data Capture and Change Tracking are, but it isn't clear enough to me, and doesn't state outright, that these tools can be used to replace the traditional audit trail tables we've made so often. Can someone with any experience using Change Data Capture and Change Tracking save me a lot of time, or confirm that I am spending time looking at the right tool? The critical part of our audit trail is capturing all changes to a table's fields (on INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE), when it happened, and who did it. These changes are commonly provided to an end user chronologically via an audit trail report. Which is another question ... Change Data Capture or Change Tracking is the solution, I'd assume that this data can be queried just like data from a normal table? EDIT: I need a permanent audit trail, irregardless of time. I see that Change Data Capture has to do with the transaction logs, so this sounds finite to me.

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  • Which coding system should I use in Emacs?

    - by Vivi
    I am a newbie in Emacs, and I am not a programmer. I have just tried to save a simple *.rtf file with some websites and tips on how to use emacs and I got These default coding systems were tried to encode text in the buffer `notes.rtf': (iso-latin-1-dos (315 . 8216) (338 . 8217) (1514 . 8220) (1525 . 8221)) However, each of them encountered characters it couldn't encode: iso-latin-1-dos cannot encode these: ‘ ’ “ ” .... etc, etc, etc Now what is that? Now it is asking me to chose an encoding system Select coding system (default chinese-iso-8bit): I don't even know what an encoding system is, and I would rather not have to choose one every time I try and save a document... Is there any way I can set an encoding system that will work with all my files so I don't have to worry about this? I saw another question and asnswer elsewhere in this website (see it here) and it seems that if I type the following (defun set-coding-system () (setq buffer-file-coding-system 'utf-8-unix)) (add-hook 'find-file-hook 'set-coding-system) then I can have Emacs do this, but I am not sure... Can someone confirm this to me? Thanks so much :)

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  • OpenGl texture mapping blocking colours on FreeType?

    - by Dororo
    I'm using FreeType in order to allow fonts to be used in OpenGL. However, I'm having a problem where I cannot change the font colour whenever I do texture mapping. No matter what I select using glColor3f it will just come out white. The texture works fine. glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glColor3f(0.5,0.0,0.5); glPushMatrix(); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_REPLACE); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texName); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); glTexCoord2f(0,1); glVertex2f(-16,-16); glTexCoord2f(0,0); glVertex2f(-16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,0); glVertex2f(16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,1); glVertex2f(16,-16); glEnd(); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glDisable(GL_BLEND); glPopMatrix(); glColor3f(1,0,0); print(our_font, -300+screenWidth/2.0, screenHeight/2.0, "fifty two - %7.2f", spin); This is the problem code, I can confirm that drawing a polygon beneath this code will indeed make it red. The text is not changing to red though which it should; if you remove the texture mapping above it will turn red again, I can only think it is a problem with enabling and disabling and I've forgotten to do something...?

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  • Why is the 'Named Domain Class' tool missing in the DSL Designer category in the toolbox ?

    - by Gishu
    I have the Domain-Specific development with VS DSL Tools book by Cook, Jones, et.all The book and various tutorials online mention a NamedDomainClass tool that should be present in the DSL Designer toolbox. I have installed VS 2010 beta 2 on Win XP - however this tool is missing in the toolbox. I've created a project using the Minimal project template as mentioned in the book. I have 12 tools showing up including the Domain Class tool. I've searched online and apparently no one else has this problem. Can someone confirm that it's missing in VS 2010 Beta 2? If not how can I get it to show up ? Is there any way in which I can add a Domain class instance and tweak it so that it becomes a Named Domain Class? The book mentions that there is some must-be-unique validation and serialization changes that are done by the NamedDomainClass tool. I've tried 'Choose Items' context menu on the DSL Designer category. These tools apparently are added dynamically ; do not show up in the lists on the dialog that comes up.

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Can memory be cleaned up?

    - by Tom
    I am working in Delphi 5 (with FastMM installed) on a Win32 project, and have recently been trying to drastically reduce the memory usage in this application. So far, I have cut the usage nearly in half, but noticed something when working on a separate task. When I minimized the application, the memory usage shrunk from 45 megs down to 1 meg, which I attributed to it paging out to disk. When I restored it and restarted working, the memory went up only to 15 megs. As I continued working, the memory usage slowly went up again, and a minimize and restore flushed it back down to 15 megs. So to my thinking, when my code tells the system to release the memory, it is still being held on to according to Windows, and the actual garbage collection doesn't kick in until a lot later. Can anyone confirm/deny this sort of behavior? Is it possible to get the memory cleaned up programatically? If I keep using the program without doing this manual flush, I get an out of memory error after a while, and would like to eliminate that. Thanks.

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  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

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  • can a OOM be caused by not finding enough contiguous memory?

    - by raticulin
    I start some java code with -Xmx1024m, and at some point I get an hprof due to OOM. The hprof shows just 320mb, and give me a stack trace: at java.util.Arrays.copyOfRange([CII)[C (Arrays.java:3209) at java.lang.String.<init>([CII)V (String.java:215) at java.lang.StringBuilder.toString()Ljava/lang/String; (StringBuilder.java:430) ... This comes from a large string I am copying. I remember reading somewhere (cannot find where) what happened is these cases is: process still has not consumed 1gb of memory, is way below even if heap still below 1gb, it needs some amount of memory, and for copyOfRange() it has to be continuous memory, so even if it is not over the limit yet, it cannot find a large enough piece of memory on the host, it fails with an OOM. I have tried to look for doc on this (copyOfRange() needs a block of continuous memory), but could not find any. The other possible culprit would be not enough permgen memory. Can someone confirm or refute the continuous memory hypothesis? Any pointer to some doc would help too.

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  • Android SQLite database locale, locking, and version

    - by gdoten
    In some books and online I see these method calls being made after a database is created: db.setLocale(Locale.getDefault()); db.setLockingEnabled(true); db.setVersion(DB_VERSION); Why is this done? As far as I can tell, after creating a new database, the system adds a table named android_metadata with one field named locale and that table has one row with the locale field set to "en_US". Now I assume the column has that value because I am using a U.S. phone, and if I were using a phone from a different region then the locale field would be set appropriately. Can anyone confirm this? I'm guessing that the setLocale method would only be useful in the case that you install a pre-built database onto a phone and then want to change the locale to match the phone's locale. Sound right? The documentation for setLockingEnabled says it defaults to true so there's no need to make that call, right? Lastly, what's with the call to setVersion? I can't find a table that contains this information so I've been assuming that the database file itself stores the version number somewhere. So when I create a database, which requires you to have already specified the version number in the call to the SQLiteOpenHelper constructor, there's no point in calling setVersion. Again, perhaps this method exists for the case of installing a pre-built database to a device and you then wish to change the database's version (though I can't think of when doing this would make sense). Thanks for any insight!

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  • Using VSTO in a standalone application to access Excel sheets

    - by chiccodoro
    Dear all, tried to research on that but sometimes I seem to lack some googling skills... I want to develop a (standalone) WinForms application which uses automation for communicating with Excel. I already know how to use the Interop, but I thought the VSTO tools would provide a more comfortable or sophisticated way to do that. My idea was: I could build a new standalone project with the excel references prepared. I could use a more sophisticated object model supplied by VSTO to communicate with Excel. However, my findings so far make me think that: VSTO can only be used to build add-ins/worksheets for Excel, not to build standalone application. There is no more sophisticated object model than the one provided by the Interop (which has such ugly things as a locale bug, a "Open(Missing, Missing, Missing...)" method and so on. I found a Worksheet and a Workbook class in the VSTO namespace, but as far as I understand it, these always refer to the CS classes for sheets and workbook which you implement when defining an Excel add-in or a workbook extension. - They cannot be used as comfortable wrappers in a standalone application. Can anybody confirm these statements or correct me where I am wrong? Further, if there should be a way to use VSTO and its "Workbook" class to load an excel workbook from a standalone application, then how do I do that? Thx, chiccodoro

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  • unable to place breakpoints in eclipse

    - by anjanb
    I am using eclipse europa (3.5) on windows vista home premium 64-bit using JDK 1.6.0_18 (32 BIT). Normally, I am able to put breakpoints just fine; However, for a particular class which is NOT part of the project (this class is inside a .JAR file (.JAR file is part of the project) ), although I have attached a source directory to this .JAR file, I am unable to place a breakpoint in this class. If I double-click on the breakpoint pane(left border), I notice that a class breakpoint is placed. I was wondering if there was NO debug info; However, found that this particular class was compiled using ant/javac task using debug="true" and debuglevel="lines,vars,source". I even ran jad on this class to confirm that it indeed contained the debug info. So, why is eclipse preventing me from placing a breakpoint ? EDIT : Just so everyone understands the context, this is a webapp running under tomcat 6.0. I am remote debugging the application from eclipse after having started tomcat outside. The application is working just fine. I am trying to understand the behavior of the above class which I'm unable to do since eclipse is not letting me set a BP. P.S : I saw a few threads here talking about BPs not being hit but in my case, I am unable to place the BP! P.P.S : I tried JDK 1.6.0_16 before trying out 1.6.0_18. Thanks for any pointers.

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  • Why does 12:20 PM parse to 0:20 on the next day?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I'm using java.text.SimpleDateFormat to parse string representations of date/time values inside an XML document. I'm seeing all times that have an hour value of 12 shifted by 12 hours into the future, i. e. 20 minutes past noon gets parsed to mean 20 minutes past midnight the following day. I wrote a unit test which seems to confirm that the error is made upon parsing (I checked the return values from getTime() with the linux shell command date). Now I'm wondering: is there a bug in the parse() method? is there something wrong with the input string? am I using the wrong format string for the input? The input data is taken from Yahoo's YWeather service. Here's the test and its output: public class YWeatherReaderTest { public static final String[] rgDateSamples = { "Thu, 08 Apr 2010 12:20 PM CEST", "Thu, 08 Apr 2010 12:20 AM CEST" }; public void dateParsing() throws ParseException { DateFormat formatter = new SimpleDateFormat("EEE, dd MMM yyyy K:m a z", Locale.US); for (String dtsSrc : YWeatherReaderTest.rgDateSamples) { Date dt = formatter.parse(dtsSrc); String dtsDst = formatter.format(dt); System.out.println(dtsSrc); System.out.println(dtsDst); System.out.println(); } } } Thu, 08 Apr 2010 12:20 PM CEST Fri, 09 Apr 2010 0:20 AM CEST Thu, 08 Apr 2010 12:20 AM CEST Thu, 08 Apr 2010 0:20 PM CEST The second output line of the second iteration is slightly weird, because 00:20 isn't PM. The milliseconds value of the Date object, however, corresponds to the (wrong) time of 20 minutes past noon.

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  • alternative to JQuery form.submit() to do ajax post

    - by BluntTool
    Hello, I have a mvc2 application with a view like this <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("UserApprove", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "statusLights", OnSuccess = "HideButtons" }, new { id = "UserApprove" })) {%> <input type="button" value="Approve" onclick="$('#dialogApprove').dialog('open')" /> <div id="dialogApprove" title="Confirm"> <p> Are you sure you want to approve this request? </p> </div> <% } %> FYI, the controller returns a partial view back. I used to not have the jquery dialog and just simple a <input type="Submit" value="Approve" /> that used to work fine I added the jquery dialog and I have something like this to initialize the dialog. $("#dialogApprove").dialog({ autoOpen: false, draggable: true, resizable: false, buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close") }, "Approve": function() { $("#UserApprove").submit(); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); The $("#UserApprove").submit(); does not seem to be doing an ajax post. It comes back with just the text from the partial view returned in a new page. I dont want to use the jquery form plugin which has .ajaxSubmit(). Is there any other way to force an ajax post from the jquery dialog "approve" button?

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  • cakephp Activation Email Sending slow

    - by Michael
    Hi all, I have a simple email sender for user account activation. Depending on which email address I use, I get significantly different response times: University email - 1 minute, Gmail - 3-4 hours, Yahoo - 1 or 2 days -- which seems bizarre. Has anyone else seen this phenomenon? EDIT: There weren't many responses (even for a bounty), but I'll try to explain my problem more clearly. This probably isn't greylsting -- If I so a simple: php mail ($to, $subject, $body) // this delivers instantly. My cakephp code: function __sendActivationEmail($id) { $User = $this->User->read ( null, $id ); $this->set ( 'suffix_url', $User ['User'] ['id'] . '/' . $this->User->getActivationHash () ); $this->set ( 'username', $User ['User'] ['username'] ); $this->Email->to = $User ['User'] ['email']; $this->Email->subject = 'Test.com - ' . __ ( 'please confirm your email address', true ); $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'user_confirm'; $this->Email->sendAs = 'text'; $this->Email->delivery = 'mail'; $this->Email->send (); } Causes delays from 13 minutes (ok; we'll deal with it) to 5-6 hours (less okay, since this is an activation email). For some of my users, it works instantly, but for other users (of the same service provider, i.e., gmail, it sees these delays). Any clues?

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  • jsf immediate="true" question regarding binding to session bean

    - by jamiebarrow
    Hi, I have a listing page that goes to an add page. The add page has a name textbox whose value is bound to a session scoped bean. The listing page has an add button that goes via an action method to the add page. This action method clears the object that the name textbox is bound to. I also have a cancel button on the add page, which is bound to an action method that again clears the value that the name textbox is bound to. If nothing is set to immediate, this all works fine. However, if I set the cancel button to immediate, if I enter values in the name field, and then click cancel, the action method is fired and clears the object in the backing bean and goes to the listing page. If I then click add, the action method clears the object again (ignore if it's best method or not) and then goes to the add page. I would now expect the add page's name textbox to be empty, but it's not?! Surely, since the add button is not immediate, the values should be re-bound and empty? Below is the relevant XHTML for the add button on the listing page <h:commandButton id="addButton" value="Add" action="#{myBean.gotoAdd}"/> Below is the relevant XHTML for the input box on the add page (myBean is session scoped), followed by that of the cancel button on the add page.: <h:inputText id="newName" value="#{myBean.newObject.name}" binding="#{myBean.newNameInput}" styleClass="name" /> <h:commandButton id="cancelButton" value="Cancel" immediate="true" action="#{myBean.cancelAdd}" onclick="return confirm('You sure?');"/>

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  • Unit testing and mocking email sender in Python with Google AppEngine

    - by CVertex
    I'm a newbie to python and the app engine. I have this code that sends an email based on request params after some auth logic. in my Unit tests (i'm using GAEUnit), how do I confirm an email with specific contents were sent? - i.e. how do I mock the emailer with a fake emailer to verify send was called? class EmailHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def bad_input(self): self.response.set_status(400) self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'text/plain' self.response.out.write("<html><body>bad input </body></html>") def get(self): to_addr = self.request.get("to") subj = self.request.get("subject") msg = self.request.get("body") if not mail.is_email_valid(to_addr): # Return an error message... # self.bad_input() pass # authenticate here message = mail.EmailMessage() message.sender = "[email protected]" message.to = to_addr message.subject = subj message.body = msg message.send() self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'text/plain' self.response.out.write("<html><body>success!</body></html>") And the unit tests, import unittest from webtest import TestApp from google.appengine.ext import webapp from email import EmailHandler class SendingEmails(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.application = webapp.WSGIApplication([('/', EmailHandler)], debug=True) def test_success(self): app = TestApp(self.application) response = app.get('http://localhost:8080/[email protected]&body=blah_blah_blah&subject=mySubject') self.assertEqual('200 OK', response.status) self.assertTrue('success' in response) # somehow, assert email was sent

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  • WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

    - by Totophil
    There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

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  • MVC2 Client Validation isn't working when getting form from ajax call

    - by devlife
    I'm trying to use MVC2 client-side validation in a partial view that is rendered via $.get. However, the client validation isn't working. I'm not quite sure what the deal is. [Required(ErrorMessage = "Email is required")] public string Email { get; set; } <% using ( Ajax.BeginForm( new AjaxOptions { Confirm = "You sure?" } ) ) { %> <%: Html.TextBoxFor( m => m.Email, new { @class = "TextBox150" } )%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor( m => m.Email )%> <input type="submit" value="Add/Save" style="float: right;" /> <% } %> I'm not doing anything special to render the the partial view. Just putting the html into a div and showing it in a modal popup. On a side note, does anyone know if it's possible to submit the form with client validation without a submit button?

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  • Is a confirmation screen necessary for an order form?

    - by abeger
    In a discussion about how to streamline an order form on our site, the idea of eliminating the confirmation screen. So, instead of filling out the form, clicking "Submit", seeing a summary on a confirmation screen and clicking "Confirm", the user would simply fill out the form, hit "Submit", and the order's done. The theory is that fewer clicks and fewer screens means less time to order and therefore the ordering experience is easier. The opposing opinion says that without the confirmation screen, user error increases and people just end up canceling/changing orders after the fact. I'm looking for more input from the SO community. Have you ever done this? How has it worked out, compared to a traditional confirmation screen setup? Are there examples of a true "one click and done" setup on the web (does Amazon's 1-click have a confirmation screen? I've never been courageous enough to try it)? EDIT: Just to clarify, when I say "confirmation screen", I mean a second step where the customer reviews the order before placing it. Even if we did do away with it, the user would still receive a message saying "your order has been placed".

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  • jquery .submit live click runs more than once

    - by fxuser
    I use the following code to run my form ajax requests but when i use the live selector on a button i can see the ajax response fire 1 time, then if i re-try it 2 times, 3 times, 4 times and so on... I use .live because i also have a feature to add a post and that appears instantly so the user can remove it without refreshing the page... Then this leads to the above problem... using .click could solve this but it's not the ideal solution i'm looking for... jQuery.fn.postAjax = function(success_callback, show_confirm) { this.submit(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); if (show_confirm == true) { if (confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this item? You can\'t undo this.')) { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } } else { $.post(this.action, $(this).serialize(), $.proxy(success_callback, this)); } return false; }) return this; }; $(document).ready(function() { $(".delete_button").live('click', function() { $(this).parent().postAjax(function(data) { if (data.error == true) { } else { } }, true); }); });? EDIT: temporary solution is to change this.submit(function(e) { to this.unbind('submit').bind('submit',function(e) { the problem is how can i protect it for real because people who know how to use Firebug or the same tool on other browsers can easily alter my Javascript code and re-create the problem

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  • dialing on iphone/ipod touch not working with documented procedures

    - by dave
    I'm trying to set up an iphone app to the phone number of a various sports store using the tel:// url passing method- I am developing on an ipod touch- usually on the touch you see the error message "Unsupported URL - This URL wasn't loaded tel://99887766" when you try and dial a number. I cant get this message to appear on the simulator or the ipod touch. do I need to do some sort of fancy signing before the app will dial properly? I am using this code: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@", [selectedBar phoneNumber]]]]; and I've tried adding the slashes: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel://%@", [selectedBar phoneNumber]]]]; but neither work. I have also tried this way: [[UIApplication application] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"tel://99887766"]]; and this way: NSMutableString *phone = [[@"+ 12 34 567 89 01" mutableCopy] autorelease]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@"(" withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@")" withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@", phone]]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:url]; No matter what i do i can't get any response from the simulator / ipod touch that it is dealing with a phone number- When I press the button associated with this code, it doesnt crash, it's like its processed it and decided not to do anything. i even put an NSLog(@"button called"); in just before the code to confirm the button was working, which it is.

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  • If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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