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  • Problem with jQuery and ASP.Net MVC 2

    - by robert_d
    I have a problem with jQuery, here is how my web app works Search.aspx web page which contains a form and jQuery script posts data to Search() action in Home controller after user clicks button1 button. Search.aspx: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<GLSChecker.Models.WebGLSQuery>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Search</h2> <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.Url) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Url, new { size = "50" } ) %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Url) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.Location) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Location, new { size = "50" } ) %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Location) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.KeywordLines) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextAreaFor(model => model.KeywordLines, 10, 60, null)%> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.KeywordLines)%> </div> <p> <input id ="button1" type="submit" value="Search" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery("#button1").click(function (e) { window.setInterval(refreshResult, 5000); }); function refreshResult() { jQuery("#divResult").load("/Home/Refresh"); } </script> <div id="divResult"> </div> </asp:Content> [HttpPost] public ActionResult Search(WebGLSQuery queryToCreate) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View("Search"); queryToCreate.Remote_Address = HttpContext.Request.ServerVariables["REMOTE_ADDR"]; Session["Result"] = null; SearchKeywordLines(queryToCreate); Thread.Sleep(15000); return View("Search"); }//Search() After button1 button is clicked the above script from Search.aspx web page runs. Search() action in controller runs for longer period of time. I simulate this in testing by putting Thread.Sleep(15000); in Search()action. 5 sec. after Submit button was pressed, the above jQuery script calls Refresh() action in Home controller. public ActionResult Refresh() { ViewData["Result"] = DateTime.Now; return PartialView(); } Refresh() renders this partial <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" % <%= ViewData["Result"] % The problem is that in Internet Explorer 8 there is only one request to /Home/Refresh; in Firefox 3.6.3 all requests to /Home/Refresh are made but nothing is displayed on the web page. Another problem with Firefox is that requests to /Home/Refresh are made every second not every 5 seconds. I noticed that after I clear Firefox cache the script works well first time button1 is pressed, but after that it doesn't work. I would be grateful for helpful suggestions.

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  • In an ASP.NET MVC site, where would the JQuery code go?

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm just getting started with ASP.NET MVC. I'm going to be using JQuery on the website I'm making, but I'm not really sure about one thing: where would JQuery code be placed? This concerns two things: Where do I import the JQuery JavaScript file? (I've been thinking that the Master page would be a good place to do this; am I right, or do I have to import it in each view?) Should all my JQuery code be referenced from the Master page (i.e., I store my code that uses JQuery in a separate .js file and reference it in a <script> tag)? Thanks in advance.

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  • How Do I Programmatically Check if a WordPress Plugin Is Already Activated?

    - by Volomike
    I know I can use activate_plugin() from inside a given, active plugin in WordPress, to activate another plugin. But what I want to know is how do I programmatically check if that plugin is already active? For instance, this snippet of code can be temporarily added to an existing plugin's initial file to activate a partner plugin: add_action('wp','activatePlugins'); function activatePlugins() { if( is_single() || is_page() || is_home() || is_archive() || is_category() || is_tag()) { @ activate_plugin('../mypartnerplugin/thepluginsmainfile.php'); } } Then, use a Linux command line tool to spider all your sites that have this code, and it will force a page view. That page view will cause the above code to fire and activate that other plugin. That's how to programmatically activate another plugin from a given plugin as far as I can tell. But the problem is that it gets activated over and over and over again. What would be great is if I had an if/then condition and some function I could call in WordPress to see if that plugin is already activated, and only activate it once if not active.

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  • Handling session between two pages in iframe-based facebook app.

    - by Ray Yun
    I'm a newbie to iframe based facebook application and stuck with session related problems. There are just two pages in my app. First page got many fb_sig_* parameters from facebook platform but when I click a anchor to next page, those fb_sig_* were lost because this is just direct request from end user's browser not from facebook. So I found that http://forum.developers.facebook.com/viewtopic.php?id=52885. It was told that I should not using cookie and always append every fb_sig* to every anchor. This can be the only solution for my problems? Any side effect like session expiry problem?

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  • How to filter results by multiple fields?

    - by hadees
    I am working on a survey application in ruby on rails and on the results page I want to let users filter the answers by a bunch of demographic questions I asked at the start of the survey. For example I asked users what their gender and career was. So I was thinking of having dropdowns for gender and career. Both dropdowns would default to all but if a user selected female and marketer then my results page would so only answers from female marketers. I think the right way of doing this is to use named_scopes where I have a named_scope for every one of my demographic questions, in this example gender and career, which would take in a sanitized value from the dropdown to use at the conditional but i'm unsure on how to dynamically create the named_scope chain since I have like 5 demographic questions and presumably some of them are going to be set to all.

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  • Sanity Check: change event not firing first time using keyboard

    - by macca1
    I've done a good amount of research on this and found a bunch of reported problems and solutions but the general consensus seems that all change problems in IE6 were fixed in jQuery 1.4.2. I'm having an issue where a change event is not firing in jQuery 1.4.2, but it did fire successfully in jQuery 1.3.2. This is in IE6. I'm about to submit a bug for this, but for my sanity I wanted to post it here first to see if there's something dumb I'm missing. I don't understand why this is working this way... <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE>jQuery 1.4.2 Problem </TITLE> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script> $(document).ready( function() { $("#firstBox").change(function() { alert("CHANGE"); }); // ONLOAD of document autofocus into the first element... $("form").find(":input:visible:first").focus() }); </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <form> <select id="firstBox"> <option value="" selected="selected">--</option> <option value="1">One</option> <option value="2">Two</option> </select> <br><br> <input size="10" id="secondBox"> </form> </BODY> </HTML> Simple enough, right? Onload of the page, give the first element focus. Onchange of the first element, alert. If you use the mouse, it works as expected. The page loads, the focus is in the drop down, you change the option, you get the alert. The problem is if you use the keyboard. The page loads, the focus is in the drop down, you press the down arrow. The option changes. Tab off the field, no alert. Weird. To make it even weirder, if you tab back into the field and change it again (all using the keyboard), the change event DOES fire after tab out this time. Any ideas?

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  • The width of a list that contains an embedded matrix grows unexpectedly

    - by Greg Lorenz
    I have a report in reporting services 2005 that includes a list with an embedded matrix and am attempting to put a border on the list, however, when I run the report in visual studio the matrix is growing past the end of the page and therefore the boarder is growing with it causing it to grow into the second page. It appears that there was supposedly a fix for this in reporting services 2000 service pack 1 but I am still experianceing the issue in 2005. The list has a details group that limits the records on a row to 4 using the following expression: =ceiling(rownumber("list1")/4), the matrix has a column group that should recycle those based on the rownumber determined by the list using the following expression: =rowNumber("list1_Details_Group") I have also attempted to put the list in a rectangle in hopes to stop the matrix from growing to no avail. How do I effectivly stop the matrix form growing past the space allowed by the list control?

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  • How to let users edit list<T> content?

    - by iTayb
    I'm making an aspx page that can edit books. A book is an complex class with lots of properties. I've made an edit page for most of them, however I'm having trouble with showing edit options for my Sellers Proprety. It is an list<Seller> object. Seller is as follows: public class Seller { private string sellerName; private double price; } How can I print a list to the screen, and let the clinet edit it, then load it back to the object? Thank you very much.

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  • Using jquery with nested masterpages

    - by diver-d
    Hi everyone, Can anyone show me how to use jquery in an asp.net nested masterpage. I have my main masterpage where I have added the link to the jquery libaray and also the validation framework. I have then created another masterpage with some styling and created a aspx page based on that masterpage. How can I attach the validation framework to textboxes within my page? I have tried $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtPostCode.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true }, <%=txtContactEmail.UniqueID %>: { required: true, email:true } }, messages: { <%=txtPostCode.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } } }); However nothing happens. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • measure rendered html in javascript without affecting the measurement

    - by drawnonward
    I am doing pagination in javascript. This is typographic pagination, not chopping up database results. For the most part it works, but I have run into a heisenberg issue where I cannot quite measure text without affecting it. I am not trying to measure text before it is rendered. I want the actual position it shows up at on screen, so I can paginate to where it is naturally wrapped. I am measuring the vertical position of characters, not the horizontal width of strings. The way I do this is similar to this answer in that I am applying a style to a block of text, then measuring the position of the newly created span. If the span does not reach the end of the page, I clear it and make a new span in a linear search. The problem is that the anti-aliased sub-pixel text layout is different when the span is applied. In rare cases, this causes the text to wrap differently when I measure it. I have only seen this when wrapping at a hyphen, and I assume it would not happen when wrapping at white space. As a concrete example, "prepared-he" is the string I am having trouble with. When I measure up to "prepare" it appears, as expected, to be within the current page. When I measure "prepared" the whole phrase wraps down to the next line, moving it to the next page, so it looks like the "d" is the character to break at. I break the text between "prepare" and "d-he" and that is wrong. Trying to evaluate individual characters opens a whole can of worms I would rather avoid. The wrapping changes because, with the new span, the line is 1 pixel wider. A solution to my problem could either be a better way to measure text using javascript, or a way to wrap text in a new element without affecting layout. I have tried setting margin-right:-1px for the class of the span being created to wrap the text. This had no noticeable effect. I am doing this in a UIWebView on the iPhone. There are some measurement related calls that are available in normal WebKit that are not available here. For example, Range does not have getBoundingClientRect or support setting an offset other than 0 in setStart or setEnd. Thank you

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  • How change column names randomly in gridview?

    - by James123
    I am struggling to show different views of gridview with database values. Here is my requirement. Database Table: I need to show one drop downlist with three values 1,2,3. If user selects 3 i Need to show a grid like below Age,AnnualSales and Assortment are names which are coming dynamically from database. High,Medium and Core all are values Here my question is I need to show same attribute names. Like If the name changes from "Assortment" to "Location" I need to show it in different page index . In page index 2 i need to show like below. Please help with solution

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  • CI pagination, POST problem

    - by Gwood
    Okay, I am pretty new in CI and I am stuck on pagination. I am performing this pagination on a record set that is result of a query. Now everything seems to be working fine. But there’s some problem probably with the link. I am displaying 10 results per page. Now if the results are less than 10 then it’s fine. Or If I pull up the entire records in the table it works fine. But in case the result is more than 10 rows, then the first 10 is perfectly displayed, and when I click on the pagination link to get to the next page the next page displays the rest of the results from the query as well as, other records in the table. ??? I am confused.. Any help?? Here’s the model code I am using .... function getTeesLike($field,$param) { $this-db-like($field,$param); $this-db-limit(10, $this-uri-segment(3)); $query=$this-db-get(‘shirt’); if($query-num_rows()0){ return $query-result_array(); } } function getNumTeesfromQ($field,$param) { $this-db-like($field,$param); $query=$this-db-get(‘shirt’); return $query-num_rows(); } And here’s the controller code .... $KW=$this-input-post(‘searchstr’); $this-load-library(‘pagination’); $config[‘base_url’]=‘http://localhost/cit/index.php/tees/show/’; $config[‘total_rows’]=$this-T-getNumTeesfromQ(‘Title’,$KW); $config[‘per_page’]=‘10’; $this-pagination-initialize($config); $data[‘tees’]=$this-T-getTeesLike(‘Title’,$KW); $data[‘title’]=‘Displaying Tees data’; $data[‘header’]=‘Tees List’; $data[‘links’]=$this-pagination-create_links(); $this-load-view(‘tee_res’, $data); //What am I doing wrong here ???? Pls help ... I guess the problem is with the $KW=$this-input-post(‘searchstr’); .. Because if I hard code a value for $KW it works fine. May be I should use POST differently ..but how do I pass the value from the form without POSTING it , its CI so not GET ... ??????

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  • How to dismiss modal view controller from UITabBarController

    - by user563697
    Currently im developing an iPhone Game...When app loaded a login page is seen...when logged in...from login view controller a welcome screen view controller with tabbar(UITabbarcontroller iVar declared inside and connected to tabbarcontroller with interface builder) is presented(using presentModalViewCotroller)..There the first tab is dealing with account ..loaded from accountController NIb and view controller...inside which there's a logout button...when clicked i need to go to login page under loginview controller... Inside logout button click action method...i had coded like this [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; but on button click nothing happening... first : parent--loginviewcontroller child--welcomescreen view controller Inside welcome screen,in account tab,on logout button click: how could i dismiss the above MVC.... can anyone give me a solution as soon as possible...its urgent...

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  • How to solve Python memory leak when using urrlib2?

    - by b_m
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple Python script for my mobile phone to periodically load a web page using urrlib2. In fact I don't really care about the server response, I'd only like to pass some values in the URL to the PHP. The problem is that Python for S60 uses the old 2.5.4 Python core, which seems to have a memory leak in the urrlib2 module. As I read there's seems to be such problems in every type of network communications as well. This bug have been reported here a couple of years ago, while some workarounds were posted as well. I've tried everything I could find on that page, and with the help of Google, but my phone still runs out of memory after ~70 page loads. Strangely the Garbege Collector does not seem to make any difference either, except making my script much slower. It is said that, that the newer (3.1) core solves this issue, but unfortunately I can't wait a year (or more) for the S60 port to come. here's how my script looks after adding every little trick I've found: import urrlib2, httplib, gc while(true): url = "http://something.com/foo.php?parameter=" + value f = urllib2.urlopen(url) f.read(1) f.fp._sock.recv=None # hacky avoidance f.close() del f gc.collect() Any suggestions, how to make it work forever without getting the "cannot allocate memory" error? Thanks for advance, cheers, b_m update: I've managed to connect 92 times before it ran out of memory, but It's still not good enough. update2: Tried the socket method as suggested earlier, this is the second best (wrong) solution so far: class UpdateSocketThread(threading.Thread): def run(self): global data while 1: url = "/foo.php?parameter=%d"%data s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) s.connect(('something.com', 80)) s.send('GET '+url+' HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n') s.close() sleep(1) I tried the little tricks, from above too. The thread closes after ~50 uploads (the phone has 50MB of memory left, obviously the Python shell has not.) UPDATE: I think I'm getting closer to the solution! I tried sending multiple data without closing and reopening the socket. This may be the key since this method will only leave one open file descriptor. The problem is: import socket s=socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) socket.connect(("something.com", 80)) socket.send("test") #returns 4 (sent bytes, which is cool) socket.send("test") #4 socket.send("test") #4 socket.send("GET /foo.php?parameter=bar HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n") #returns the number of sent bytes, ok socket.send("GET /foo.php?parameter=bar HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n") #returns 0 on the phone, error on Windows7* socket.send("GET /foo.php?parameter=bar HTTP/1.0\r\n\r\n") #returns 0 on the phone, error on Windows7* socket.send("test") #returns 0, strange... *: error message: 10053, software caused connection abort Why can't I send multiple messages??

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  • XSS as attack vector even if XSS data not stored?

    - by Klaas van Schelven
    I have a question about XSS Can forms be used as a vector for XSS even if the data is not stored in the database and used at a later point? i.e. in php the code would be this: <form input="text" value="<?= @$_POST['my_field'] ?>" name='my_field'> Showing an alert box (demonstrate that JS can be run) on your own browser is trivial with the code above. But is this exploitable across browsers as well? The only scenario I see is where you trick someone into visiting a certain page, i.e. a combination of CSRF and XSS. "Stored in a database and used at a later point": the scenario I understand about CSS is where you're able to post data to a site that runs JavaScript and is shown on a page in a browser that has greater/different privileges than your own. But, to be clear, this is not wat I'm talking about above.

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  • Facebook Graph problem

    - by attar
    I'm trying to get basic informations from an facebook page with this code: <?php $fb = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/exemplename", "rb"); $fb_array=json_decode($fb,true); echo $fb_array['id']; echo $fb_array['name']; echo $fb_array['picture']; ?> This work perfect on xampp local server but when i upload on webserver it just show a blank page. Anyone knows the reason why it doesn't work on webserver ?

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  • How to access SharePoint web part properties?

    - by shannon.stewart
    I have created a feature for SharePoint 2007 that has a web part. I have added a custom property to the web part like so: [Personalizable(PersonalizationScope.Shared)] [WebBrowsable(true)] [Category("My Custom Properties")] [WebDisplayName("ServiceURL")] [WebDescription("The URL for the Wcf service")] public string ServiceURL { get; set; } Along with this web part, I've added a custom page that the web part will have a link to. I would like to reference the web part property from the custom page, but I don't know where these properties are stored. I've tried to access it using the code below, but both property collections don't have any properties stored. SPFeaturePropertyCollection spProperties = SPContext.Current.Site.Features[this.FeatureGuid].Properties; or SPFeaturePropertyCollection spProperties = SPContext.Current.Site.Features[this.FeatureGuid].Definition.Properties; My question is how can I get a reference to the web part property from other pages?

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  • Solving a SQL Server Deadlock situation

    - by mjh41
    I am trying to find a solution that will resolve a recurring deadlock situation in SQL server. I have done some analysis on the deadlock graph generated by the profiler trace and have come up with this information: The first process (spid 58) is running this query: UPDATE cds.dbo.task_core SET nstate = 1 WHERE nmboxid = 89 AND ndrawerid = 1 AND nobjectid IN (SELECT nobjectid FROM ( SELECT nobjectid, count(nobjectid) AS counting FROM cds.dbo.task_core GROUP BY nobjectid) task_groups WHERE task_groups.counting > 1) The second process (spid 86) is running this query: INSERT INTO task_core (…) VALUES (…) spid 58 is waiting for a Shared Page lock on CDS.dbo.task_core (spid 86 holds a conflicting intent exclusive (IX) lock) spid 86 is waiting for an Intent Exclusive (IX) page lock on CDS.dbo.task_core (spid 58 holds a conflicting Update lock)

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  • ValidateInput Attribute Doesn't Seem To Work in ASP.NET MVC

    - by JC Grubbs
    I'm trying to get around the "potentially dangerous Request.Form value" error and I'm having no luck. Yes, yes, I've read all the other StackOverflow related questions and none of them seem to get me closer to an answer. I am using [ValidateInput(false)] on all related controller actions...and I've checked many times. I'm using ValidateRequest='false' in all the related ASPX views. I am using ASP.NET MVC 2 Preview 1, but I don't think that's an issue since the error is being generated lower in the framework; Page.ProcessRequest to be exact. I can't see anything I'm doing wrong, I even set <page validateRequest='false'> in the web.config and that didn't solve it either. HELP!!!!!

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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • Swapping an image during web development

    - by detly
    I'm trying to see what a certain webpage would look like if I replaced a certain image with another. Rather than upload the image, edit the site, etc, each time I tweak it, I'd like to know if there's a way to change the image in the page to my local version while viewing the remote page. I use Firebug for debugging web development usually, but I'm open to any other tool that might do this. (It is absolutely impossible to search for this and find anything but questions about dynamic image swapping on a deployed website, so sorry if this is a duplicate.)

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  • [ASP.NET] A CustomValidator doesn't need to have it's ControlToValidate property set, so...

    - by pkiyan
    Hi: I've just finished reading up on the CustomValidator control and I have a question. In the book I'm reading, it says that a CustomValidator doesn't need to have it's ControlToValidate property set and it gives a few examples of that usage. But in one example where ControlToValidate isn't used, the OnServerValidate function has a timer (5 seconds) that you need to beat by entering your 'answer' into a textbox. If it takes you longer than 5 seconds, the CustomValidator's error message pops up next to the textbox (it's like a timed question/answer game) . How did the CustomValidator know to place the message next to the textbox (there's no association between the two, that I know of)? I wanted to test this, so I put a couple more textboxes on the page and the error message always showed up next to the last textbox I placed on the page. Thanks.

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  • What is viewstate in JSF, and how is it used?

    - by MatthieuF
    In JSF, there is a viewstate associated with each page, which is passed back and forth with submits etc. I know that viewstate is calculated using the states of the various controls on the page, and that you can store it either client side or server side. The question is: how is this value used? Is it used to validate the values sent at submit, to ensure that the same request is not sent twice? Also, how is it calculated - I realise that richfaces may be calculated differently from myfaces, but an idea would be nice. Thanks.

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  • Tomcat Clustering and HTTPS Issue

    - by Angelo
    Hi I have two instances of Tomcat 6 with content accessible via HTTP and HTTPS for other pages. I have configured the instances this way: 1) Instance one to listen on port 8080(Http) and 8443(Https) 2) Instance two to listen on port 7080(Http) and 7443(Https) I have mod_proxy configured with Apache 2.2 to do clustering. The requests are coming in properly and all works well for HTTP traffic but when you are in the app and it becomes HTTPS then i get the page cannot be found when tomcat tries to serve the page. Now if I access the two tomcat instances directly bypassing the load balancer then everything is fine. So http/https is configured properly on tomcat but not on Apache. I have a feeling i must configure Apache to handle this(or mod_proxy). Thanks,

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  • How to handle redirection in an Ajax based application

    - by nimo
    hi all, I'm developing a Ajax based php application. As anybody knows, I'm checking whether user is logged in every php file as the first statement. And there are two ways that I should response in an event of logging failure, server redirect to the login page using header(url). CASE: If user directly enter a particular URL passing url in Ajax response asking client side page redirection or notification CASE: If user trying to perform some action through a Ajax request So my question is how can identify whether request coming from client side is a Ajax call or not ? If I know that I can handle my response accordingly. OR Is there a better way of handling above scenario ? Thank You

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