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  • How to dismiss modal view controller from UITabBarController

    - by user563697
    Currently im developing an iPhone Game...When app loaded a login page is seen...when logged in...from login view controller a welcome screen view controller with tabbar(UITabbarcontroller iVar declared inside and connected to tabbarcontroller with interface builder) is presented(using presentModalViewCotroller)..There the first tab is dealing with account ..loaded from accountController NIb and view controller...inside which there's a logout button...when clicked i need to go to login page under loginview controller... Inside logout button click action method...i had coded like this [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; but on button click nothing happening... first : parent--loginviewcontroller child--welcomescreen view controller Inside welcome screen,in account tab,on logout button click: how could i dismiss the above MVC.... can anyone give me a solution as soon as possible...its urgent...

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  • Load a controller into an other controller in cakephp

    - by john
    im developing a web application, using multiple pages, each with their own controller. The problem now is that there are some variables in a controller, created for one page, that are required for an other page ( with a different controller). Therefor i need to load one controller into the other one. I did this by adding App::import('Controller', 'sections'); $sections= new sectionsController; $sections-constructClasses(); to the controller, but this doens't seem to work.. Maybe u guys have some ideas? Thnx in advance!

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  • How to filter results by multiple fields?

    - by hadees
    I am working on a survey application in ruby on rails and on the results page I want to let users filter the answers by a bunch of demographic questions I asked at the start of the survey. For example I asked users what their gender and career was. So I was thinking of having dropdowns for gender and career. Both dropdowns would default to all but if a user selected female and marketer then my results page would so only answers from female marketers. I think the right way of doing this is to use named_scopes where I have a named_scope for every one of my demographic questions, in this example gender and career, which would take in a sanitized value from the dropdown to use at the conditional but i'm unsure on how to dynamically create the named_scope chain since I have like 5 demographic questions and presumably some of them are going to be set to all.

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  • UrlRewriter.Net with URL with final dot

    - by devio
    I want to use UrlRewriter.Net as described in this blog by ScottGu. In the example below, page.aspx should display a page text stored in the database based on the title= URL parameter. After a couple of tweaks the only remaining issue seems to be that a final dot in the URL causes a 404 a sequence of two dots in the URL causes a 400 Windows 7, IIS 7 with Integrated AppPool, VS2008. Looking at the Failed Request Log, it seems that the UrlRewriter module is called after retrieving the request handler. Can these two issues be fixed, or is there a better replacement for UrlRewriter? (A related question only asks about the 404) Edit: This behavior can even be reproduced on SO, so maybe there is no work-around?

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  • Zend Framework ErrorController not working on live site?

    - by firecall
    My site is set up pretty much as per the Zend Quickstart guide. The default ErrorController works locally using MAMP. But now I've deployed it to my live site I get a blank page and a "500 Internal Server Error" according to FireBug when I go to an action that doesnt exist. On my local server I get a 404 and a nicely formatted error page. Any ideas anyone? I dont really know where to begin looking. I'm confused :/ Thanks.

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  • Asp.net Script manager conflicting with button

    - by DJPB
    Hi there. I'm working on an asp.net app and I have some controls that are created dinamically on the OnInit event. One of that controls is an asp button that has been working fine until now. When I add a ScriptManager to my page, that same button is unnable to postback. It's only working if a take the ScriptManager out. has anything like this ever appened to somebody else? Am I invalidating the page somehow? Tks ps: this is my scrip manager tag: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true" EnableScriptGlobalization="true" EnableScriptLocalization="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> //My Dynamic Button: Button button1 = new Button { ID = "button1", Text = "Ok" }; button1.Click += new EventHandler(Button1_Click);

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  • Annoying struts 2 problem

    - by Parhs
    Hello... I am using this code to include some menus to my code... <s:action namespace="/" name="get_header" executeResult="true" /> <jsp:include page="/get_menu" > <jsp:param name="menuKey" value="configuration"></jsp:param> <jsp:param name="subMenuKey" value="user.add"></jsp:param> </jsp:include> THe problem is that the menus are generated dynamically... So suppose that we have 2 Actions ActionA and get_menu Action The jsp page for the result of ActionA calls get_menu to generate the menus. So suppose that ActionA sets a variable groups and get_menu also uses a groups variable... ActionA's variable will overtake get_menu's variable. I tried many solutions and even jsp:inculde doesnt help:(...

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  • How Do I Programmatically Check if a WordPress Plugin Is Already Activated?

    - by Volomike
    I know I can use activate_plugin() from inside a given, active plugin in WordPress, to activate another plugin. But what I want to know is how do I programmatically check if that plugin is already active? For instance, this snippet of code can be temporarily added to an existing plugin's initial file to activate a partner plugin: add_action('wp','activatePlugins'); function activatePlugins() { if( is_single() || is_page() || is_home() || is_archive() || is_category() || is_tag()) { @ activate_plugin('../mypartnerplugin/thepluginsmainfile.php'); } } Then, use a Linux command line tool to spider all your sites that have this code, and it will force a page view. That page view will cause the above code to fire and activate that other plugin. That's how to programmatically activate another plugin from a given plugin as far as I can tell. But the problem is that it gets activated over and over and over again. What would be great is if I had an if/then condition and some function I could call in WordPress to see if that plugin is already activated, and only activate it once if not active.

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  • codeigniter form validation if failed send user back

    - by Momen M El Zalabany
    i have this controller(visits.php) that use 3 models to build page, then it pass 4 vars to a view. this view contain a form that submit to another page (add_user.php) my question is how can i send the user back to visits.php in case the for_validation is false ? do i have to reload visits.php allover again ?-waste of resourss- or i should just send him back in history with js or php header for example ? can u plz show me an example of how u best handle false result of form_validation ? Note that when i user header('Location: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']); i couldnt echo validation_error() :( thanks for help

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  • Need Help on OAuthException Code 2500

    - by Deepak
    I am trying to develop an Facebook application (apps.facebook.com/some_app) using PHP where I need to present some information based on user's music interests. I found that its under "user_likes games". My problems are as follows: To gain access, I have implemented the oauth dialog method as suggested in API in my index page. $auth_url = "http://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?client_id=" . $app_id . "&redirect_uri=" . urlencode($canvas_page) ."&scope=user_likes"; After successful authorization I come back to index page with "code" as parameters. http://MY_CANVAS_PAGE/?code=some base64 encoded letters Firstly I don't know if I need access_token just to read user's music interests but I have tried all the methods suggested. I couldn't move forward from this point I have a code like this (in my index page), which redirects for authorization if code parameters is not set. if(empty($code) && !isset($_REQUEST['error'])) { $_SESSION['state'] = md5(uniqid(rand(), TRUE)); //CSRF protection echo("<script> top.location.href='" . $auth_url . "'</script>"); } Currently I am just trying to get user's public information here but with no success. I have tried the signed_request method as suggested but no success $signed_request = $_REQUEST["signed_request"]; list($encoded_sig, $payload) = explode('.', $signed_request, 2); $data = json_decode(base64_decode(strtr($payload, '-_', '+/')), true); echo ("Welcome User: " . $data["user_id"]); Also tried the code found in http://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/500/ but I am getting error when trying to get the debug info using print_r($decoded_response); stdClass Object ( [error] => stdClass Object ( [message] => An active access token must be used to query information about the current user. [type] => OAuthException [code] => 2500 ) ) To get user's public info, I have tried also the suggested example in PHP SDK $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => MY_APP_ID, //registered facebook APP ID 'secret' => MY_SECRET, //secret key for APP )); $fb_user = $facebook->getUser(); if($fb_user){ try { $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); echo $user_profile['email']; } catch(FacebookApiException $e) { $fb_user = null; } } But no success. Can somebody explain me why I am getting this error and how to access the user's music interest properly. Probably I misunderstood the API. Thanks Deepak

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  • the name 'controlname' does not exist in the current context

    - by zohair
    Hi, I have a web application that I'm working on(ASP.NET2.0 with C#)[Using VS2005]. Everything was working fine, and all of a sudden I get the error: Error 1 The name 'Label1' does not exist in the current context and 43 others of the sort for each time that I used a control in my codebehind of the page. This is only happening for 1 page. And it's as if the codebehind isn't recognizing the controls. Another interesting thing is that the intellisense isn't picking up any of the controls either.. I have tried to clean the solution file, delete the obj file, exclude the files from the project then re-add them, close VS and restart it, and even restart my computer, but none of these have worked. Please Help. Thank you

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  • Passing Info From One View to Another

    - by 01010011
    EDIT 1. The results of a query from my database are displayed on my view page. Next to each unique result is a button: // first_view.php <?php echo form_open('controller/method'); ?> <?php foreach($results_found as $item): ?> <p><?php echo $item->name ?></p> <p><?php form_submit('buy','Buy This'); ?></p> When a user clicks on one of these buttons (lets say button 4), I would like to display the user's choice from the array onto another view. I've tried using this: // first_view.php <?php echo $this->session->set_userdata('choice',$item); ?> immediately before // first_view.php <?php echo form_close(); ?> thinking that the user's final choice would be stored there so I can display it on another view like this: // second_controller.php $c = $this->session->userdata('choice'); // second_view.php echo 'Your Choose: '. $c; However, what actually displays is the last result displayed on first_view.php, not what the user choose. My question is, if the user clicked on button 4, how do I get that particular choice displayed onto another view? END OF EDIT1 ORIGINAL QUESTION My view page (CodeIgniter) displays the contents of an array in the form of several links. If a user clicks on a link, I want the user to be taken to another view page (via a controller) that gives more information concerning that particular link (which is stored in that particular position in the array) My question is, how do I access and display the contents of that particular location within the array on the second view file without getting a "Undefined variable error" on the second view? Here is what I am trying to do in code form // my_controller.php $array_name['variable_name']; $this->load->view('first_view.php'); // first_view.php <?php foreach($variable_name as $vn): ?> <?php echo anchor('controller_name' $vn->info ?> // if user clicks on 3rd link <?php endforeach ?> // I want to beable to access // index 2 of the array in the // second view file so I can // display more info // second_view.php <?php $vn[2]->info ?>

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  • Making DiveIntoPython3 work in IE8 (fixing a Javascript performance issue)

    - by srid
    I am trying to fix the performance problem with Dive Into Python 3 on IE8. Visit this page in IE8 and, after a few moments, you will see the following popup: I traced down the culprit down to this line in j/dip3.js ... find("tr:nth-child(" + (i+1) + ") td:nth-child(2)"); If I disable it (and return from the function immediately), the "Stop executing this script?" dialog does not appear as the page now loads fairly fast. I am no Javascript/jquery expert, so I ask you fellow developers as to why this query is making IE slow. Is there a fix for it? Edit: you can download the entire webpage (980K) for local viewing/editing.

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  • measure rendered html in javascript without affecting the measurement

    - by drawnonward
    I am doing pagination in javascript. This is typographic pagination, not chopping up database results. For the most part it works, but I have run into a heisenberg issue where I cannot quite measure text without affecting it. I am not trying to measure text before it is rendered. I want the actual position it shows up at on screen, so I can paginate to where it is naturally wrapped. I am measuring the vertical position of characters, not the horizontal width of strings. The way I do this is similar to this answer in that I am applying a style to a block of text, then measuring the position of the newly created span. If the span does not reach the end of the page, I clear it and make a new span in a linear search. The problem is that the anti-aliased sub-pixel text layout is different when the span is applied. In rare cases, this causes the text to wrap differently when I measure it. I have only seen this when wrapping at a hyphen, and I assume it would not happen when wrapping at white space. As a concrete example, "prepared-he" is the string I am having trouble with. When I measure up to "prepare" it appears, as expected, to be within the current page. When I measure "prepared" the whole phrase wraps down to the next line, moving it to the next page, so it looks like the "d" is the character to break at. I break the text between "prepare" and "d-he" and that is wrong. Trying to evaluate individual characters opens a whole can of worms I would rather avoid. The wrapping changes because, with the new span, the line is 1 pixel wider. A solution to my problem could either be a better way to measure text using javascript, or a way to wrap text in a new element without affecting layout. I have tried setting margin-right:-1px for the class of the span being created to wrap the text. This had no noticeable effect. I am doing this in a UIWebView on the iPhone. There are some measurement related calls that are available in normal WebKit that are not available here. For example, Range does not have getBoundingClientRect or support setting an offset other than 0 in setStart or setEnd. Thank you

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  • Internet Explorer not displaying gif file

    - by INTPnerd
    My friend is making a website for a class. Some of the pages display gif image files as links. They display correctly in Firefox and Chrome but not in Internet Explorer. Anybody know why? Here is a line of html code that should display the gif links: <a href="kendo.htm"><img src="arrowprev.gif" alt="previous page arrow"/></a> | <a href="index.htm">HOME</a> | <a href="festivals.htm"><img src="arrownext.gif" alt="next page arrow"/></a> Thanks for the help!

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  • Is it possible to modify ASP.NET to no longer require runat="server"?

    - by sean2078
    I know why runat="server" is currently required (ASP.NET why runat="server"), but the consensus is that it should not be required if you incorporate a simple default into the design (I agree of course). Would it be possible to modify, extend, decompile and recreate, intercept or otherwise change the behavior of how ASP.NET parses ASPX and ASCX files so that runat="server" would no longer be required? For instance, I assume that a version of Mono could be branched to accomplish this goal. In case specific requirements are helpful, the following highlights one design: During parsing, when configured namespace tags are encountered (such as "asp"), default the element's runat property to "server" During parsing, when configured namespace tags are encountered (such as "asp"), if the element's runat property value is available, then that value should be used in place of the default New page-level setting introduced (can be set in the page directive or web.config) that specifies the default runat value for a specific namespace tag

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  • abandon session in asp.net on browser close..kill session cookie

    - by Tuviah
    So I have a website where I use session start and end events to track and limit open instances of our web application, even on the same computer. On page unload i call a session enabled page method which then called session.abandon. This triggers session end event and clears the session variable but unfortunately does not kill the session cookie!! as a result if other browser instances are open there are problems because their session state just disappeared...and much worse than this when I open the site again with the zombie session still not expired, I get multiple session start and session end events on any subsequent postbacks. This happens on all browsers. so how do I truly kill the session (force the cookie to expire)

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  • Want to set 'src' of script to my IP-Won't load in Safari or Chrome. Relative link asp.netmvc

    - by Ozaki
    I have a script that links to the server I am hosting (IP can change) usually I would just use for links: var url ='http://' + window.location.hostname + 'end of url'; But in this case it isnt appearing to be so easy. I have tried: (1) $('#scriptid').attr('src', url); as well as: (2) var script = document.createElement( 'script' ); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = url; $("#insert").append( script ); Now case (2) works loads the script runs the script. But when at the end of my script it hits the 'write data' it decides to replace the entire page with just the data. Any idea on how I can do this? Note: I am using plain html not ASP. With ASP backend that is just the way it has to be. Ok it now is <script src="myscript.js"></script> C# router.AddAsyncRoute("myscript.js"...... It workes in IE & FF. But I get blank pages in Chrome & Safari. I am using document.write to write a script onto my page. Any ideas why Chrome & Safari don't like this? I am so far assuming that in Crhome & Safari it takes longer to run the script therefore launching the document.write after the DOM has loaded therefore replacing the page with a blank one. edit the script im trying to run is a modification of: d = new dTree('d'); d.add(0,-1,'My example tree'); d.add(1,0,'Node 1','default.html'); d.add(2,0,'Node 2','default.html'); d.add(3,1,'Node 1.1','default.html'); d.add(4,0,'Node 3','default.html'); d.add(5,3,'Node 1.1.1','default.html') document.write(d); Any ideas how I can get around this? I am not to sure how to implement an appenChild in this case as the script is changing constantly with live data. So every refresh it will generally have changed some...

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  • How to handle redirection in an Ajax based application

    - by nimo
    hi all, I'm developing a Ajax based php application. As anybody knows, I'm checking whether user is logged in every php file as the first statement. And there are two ways that I should response in an event of logging failure, server redirect to the login page using header(url). CASE: If user directly enter a particular URL passing url in Ajax response asking client side page redirection or notification CASE: If user trying to perform some action through a Ajax request So my question is how can identify whether request coming from client side is a Ajax call or not ? If I know that I can handle my response accordingly. OR Is there a better way of handling above scenario ? Thank You

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  • Order By Rand by Time (HQL)

    - by Felipe
    Hi all, I'm developing a web application using asp.net Mvc 2 and NHibernate, and I'm paging data (products in a category) in my page, but this data are random, so, I'm using a HQL statement link this: string hql = "from Product p where p.Category.Id=:IdCategory order by rand()"; It's working fine, but when I page, sometimes the same product appears in the first, second, etc... pages because it's order by rand(). Is there any way to make a random order by fixed by period (time internal) ? Or any solution ? thanks Cheers

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  • jquery calendarpicker callback pass querystring

    - by user577318
    Trying to use this CalendarPicker source and docs here: http://bugsvoice.com/applications/bugsVoice/site/test/calendarPickerDemo.jsp I need to be able to pass the date selected as query string variable of "searchdate" and reload page also updating current date for calendarPicker with querystring date on page reload. This is what I have so far: jQuery(document).ready(function() { var calendarPicker = jQuery("#calendarpicker").calendarPicker({ monthNames:["Jan", "Feb", "Mar", "Apr", "May", "Jun", "Jul", "Aug", "Sep", "Oct", "Nov", "Dec"], dayNames: ["Sun", "Mon", "Tue", "Wed", "Thu", "Fri", "Sat"], years:0, months:6, days:5, showDayArrows:true, callback:function(cal) { // Simple output to test calendar date change jQuery("#output").html("Selected date: " + cal.currentDate.getFullYear()+"-"+cal.currentDate.getMonth()+"-"+cal.currentDate.getDate() ); // Not working well since it also includes arrows from datepicker as selectors jQuery(".calDay").children().click(function() { window.location.href="mysite.com?searchdate="+cal.currentDate.getFullYear()+"-"+cal.currentDate.getMonth()+"-"+cal.currentDate.getDate(); }); } }); Any help greatly appreciated. Can this be done with ajax? I am attempting to update a table of events by datepicker.

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  • How to access SharePoint web part properties?

    - by shannon.stewart
    I have created a feature for SharePoint 2007 that has a web part. I have added a custom property to the web part like so: [Personalizable(PersonalizationScope.Shared)] [WebBrowsable(true)] [Category("My Custom Properties")] [WebDisplayName("ServiceURL")] [WebDescription("The URL for the Wcf service")] public string ServiceURL { get; set; } Along with this web part, I've added a custom page that the web part will have a link to. I would like to reference the web part property from the custom page, but I don't know where these properties are stored. I've tried to access it using the code below, but both property collections don't have any properties stored. SPFeaturePropertyCollection spProperties = SPContext.Current.Site.Features[this.FeatureGuid].Properties; or SPFeaturePropertyCollection spProperties = SPContext.Current.Site.Features[this.FeatureGuid].Definition.Properties; My question is how can I get a reference to the web part property from other pages?

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  • How can I validate XML against an XSD with distinct imports and namespaces?

    - by Pedrolopes
    Hi there!! I am trying to validate a few XML files and I'm failing due to various issues with the XSD definition and the namespaces... This is public info, so no problem sharing data: the main XSD is at http://bioinformatics.ua.pt/euadr/euadr_types.xsd and it imports another XSD at the same location name common_types.xsd, I've validated them in W3C validator, and they passed. The XML <?xml version="1.0"?> <relationship xmlns="http://euadr.biosemantic.erasmusmc.org/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://euadr.biosemantic.erasmusmc.org/ http://bioinformatics.ua.pt/euadr/euadr_types.xsd"> <sourceId> <source>SMILE</source> <code>[S]1(=O)(=O)N(C(</code> </sourceId> <targetId> <source>UP</source> <code>P35354</code> </targetId> <creator>http://cgl.imim.es</creator> <observationDateTime>2010-05-12T19:03:40.097+02:00</observationDateTime> <informationSources> <informationSource> <relationshipType>BINDS</relationshipType> <interaction> <type>pIC50</type> <value>6.55</value> </interaction> <evidence> <type>OBSERVATIONAL</type> <value>1.0</value> </evidence> <databaseIds> <databaseId> <source>PDSP</source> <code> P35354</code> </databaseId> </databaseIds> </informationSource> </informationSources> </relationship> is straightforward and well-formed! I've tested a few online validators, and I'm getting the following error cvc-elt.1: Cannot find the declaration of element 'relationship'. Does anyone has any idea of what the problem is? Is it in the declaration of the namespaces? Of the XSD? Thanks in advance for your help! Cheers!

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  • How to get url parameter value of current route in view in ASP .NET MVC

    - by Dima
    For example I am on page http://localhost:1338/category/category1?view=list&min-price=0&max-price=100 And in my view I want to render some form @using(Html.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new RouteValueDictionary { { /*this is poblem place*/ } }, FormMethod.Get)) { <!--Render some controls--> <input type="submit" value="OK" /> } What I want is to get view parameter value from current page link to use it for constructing form get request. I tried @using(Html.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new RouteValueDictionary { { "view", ViewContext.RouteData.Values["view"] } }, FormMethod.Get)) but it doesn't help.

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