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  • How do I prevent the concurrent execution of a javascript function?

    - by RyanV
    I am making a ticker similar to the "From the AP" one at The Huffington Post, using jQuery. The ticker rotates through a ul, either by user command (clicking an arrow) or by an auto-scroll. Each list-item is display:none by default. It is revealed by the addition of a "showHeadline" class which is display:list-item. HTML for the UL Looks like this: <ul class="news" id="news"> <li class="tickerTitle showHeadline">Test Entry</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry2</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry3</li> </ul> When the user clicks the right arrow, or the auto-scroll setTimeout goes off, it runs a tickForward() function: function tickForward(){ var $active = $('#news li.showHeadline'); var $next = $active.next(); if($next.length==0) $next = $('#news li:first'); $active.stop(true, true); $active.fadeOut('slow', function() {$active.removeClass('showHeadline');}); setTimeout(function(){$next.fadeIn('slow', function(){$next.addClass('showHeadline');})}, 1000); if(isPaused == true){ } else{ startScroll() } }; This is heavily inspired by Jon Raasch's A Simple jQuery Slideshow. Basically, find what's visible, what should be visible next, make the visible thing fade and remove the class that marks it as visible, then fade in the next thing and add the class that makes it visible. Now, everything is hunky-dory if the auto-scroll is running, kicking off tickForward() once every three seconds. But if the user clicks the arrow button repeatedly, it creates two negative conditions: Rather than advance quickly through the list for just the number of clicks made, it continues scrolling at a faster-than-normal rate indefinitely. It can produce a situation where two (or more) list items are given the .showHeadline class, so there's overlap on the list. I can see these happening (especially #2) because the tickForward() function can run concurrently with itself, producing different sets of $active and $next. So I think my question is: What would be the best way to prevent concurrent execution of the tickForward() method? Some things I have tried or considered: Setting a Flag: When tickForward() runs, it sets an isRunning flag to true, and sets it back to false right before it ends. The logic for the event handler is set to only call tickForward() if isRunning is false. I tried a simple implementation of this, and isRunning never appeared to be changed. The jQuery queue(): I think it would be useful to queue up the tickForward() commands, so if you clicked it five times quickly, it would still run as commanded but wouldn't run concurrently. However, in my cursory reading on the subject, it appears that a queue has to be attached to the object its queue applies to, and since my tickForward() method affects multiple lis, I don't know where I'd attach it.

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  • How to honor/inherit user's language settings in WinForm app

    - by msorens
    I have worked with globalization settings in the past but not within the .NET environment, which is the topic of this question. What I am seeing is most certainly due to knowledge I have yet to learn so I would appreciate illumination on the following. Setup: My default language setting is English (en-us specifically). I added a second language (Danish) on my development system (WinXP) and then opened the language bar so I could select either at will. I selected Danish on the language bar then opened Notepad and found the language reverted to English on the language bar. I understand that the language setting is per application, so it seemed that Notepad set the default back to English. (I found that strange since Windows and thus Notepad is used all over the world.) Closing Notepad returned the setting on the language bar to Danish. I then launched my open custom WinForm application--which I know does not set the language--and it also reverted from English to Danish when opened, then back to Danish when terminated! Question #1A: How do I get my WinForm application upon launch to inherit the current setting of the language bar? My experiment seems to indicate that each application starts with the system default and requires the user to manually change it once the app is running--this would seem to be a major inconvenience for anyone that wants to work with more than one language! Question #1B: If one must, in fact, set the language manually in a multi-language scenario, how do I change my default system language (e.g. to Danish) so I can test my app's launch in another language? I added a display of the current language in my application for this next experiment. Specifically I set a MouseEnter handler on a label that set its tooltip to CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.Name so each time I mouse over I thought I should see the current language setting. Since setting the language before I launch my app did not work, I launched it then set the language to Danish. I found that some things (like typing in a TextBox) did honor this Danish setting. But mousing over the instrumented label still showed en-us! Question #2A: Why does CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.Name not reflect the change from my language bar while other parts of my app seem to recognize the change? (Trying CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture.Name produced the same result.) Question #2B: Is there an event that fires upon changes on the language bar so I could recognize within my app when the language setting changes?

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  • Global Entity Framework Context in WPF Application

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am in the middle of development of a WPF application that is using Entity Framework (.NET 3.5). It accesses the entities in several places throughout. I am worried about consistency throughout the application in regard to the entities. Should I be instancing separate contexts in my different views, or should I (and is a a good way to do this) instance a single context that can be accessed globally? For instance, my entity model has three sections, Shipments (with child packages and further child contents), Companies/Contacts (with child addresses and telephones), and disk specs. The Shipments and EditShipment views access the DiskSpecs, and the OptionsView manages the DiskSpecs (Create, Edit, Delete). If I edit a DiskSpec, I have to have something in the ShipmentsView to retrieve the latest specs if I have separate contexts right? If it is safe to have one overall context from which the rest of the app retrieves it's objects, then I imagine that is the way to go. If so, where would that instance be put? I am using VB.NET, but I can translate from C# pretty good. Any help would be appreciated. I just don't want one of those applications where the user has to hit reload a dozen times in different parts of the app to get the new data. Update: OK so I have changed my app as follows: All contexts are created in Using Blocks to dispose of them after they are no longer needed. When loaded, all entities are detatched from context before it is disposed. A new property in the MainViewModel (ContextUpdated) raises an event that all of the other ViewModels subscribe to which runs that ViewModels RefreshEntities method. After implementing this, I started getting errors saying that an entity can only be referenced by one ChangeTracker at a time. Since I could not figure out which context was still referencing the entity (shouldn't be any context right?) I cast the object as IEntityWithChangeTracker, and set SetChangeTracker to nothing (Null). This has let to the current problem: When I Null the changeTracker on the Entity, and then attach it to a context, it loses it's changed state and does not get updated to the database. However if I do not null the change tracker, I can't attach. I have my own change tracking code, so that is not a problem. My new question is, how are you supposed to do this. A good example Entity query and entity save code snipped would go a long way, cause I am beating my head in trying to get what I once thought was a simple transaction to work. Any help would elevate you to near god-hood.

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  • StructureMap Autowiring with two different instances of the same interface

    - by Lambda
    For the last two days, i tried my best to learn something about StructureMap, using an old project of mine as an concrete implementation example. I tried to simplify my question as much as possible. While i will post my examples in vb.net, answers with examples in C# are also okay. The project includes an interfaces called IDatabase which connects itself to a Database. The important part looks like this. Public Interface IDatabase Function Connect(ByVal ConnectionSettings As ConnectionSettings) As Boolean ReadOnly Property ConnectionOpen As Boolean [... more functions...] End Interface Public Class MSSQLConnection Implements IDatabase Public Function Connect(ByVal ConnectionSettings As ConnectionSettings) As Boolean Implements IDatabase.Connect [... Implementation ...] End Function [... more implementations...] End Class ConnectionSettings is a structure that has all the information needed to connect to a Database. I want to open the Database Connection once and use it for every single connection in the project, so i register a instance in the ObjectFactory. dim foo = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(Of MSSQLConnection)() dim bar as ConnectionSettings foo.connect(bar) ObjectFactory.Configure(Sub(x) x.For(Of IDatabase).Use(foo)) Up until this part, everything works like a charm. Now, i get to a point where i hav e classes that need an additional instance of IDatabase because they connect to a second database. Public Class ExampleClass Public Sub New(ByVal SameOldDatabase as IDatabase, ByVal NewDatabase as IDatabase) [...] Magic happens here [...] End Sub End Class I want this second IDatabase to behave much like the first one. I want it to use a concrete, single instance and want to connect it to a different database invoking Connect with a different ConnectionSettings. The problem is: While i'm pretty sure it's somewhow possible, (my initial idea was registering ExampleClass with alternative constructor arguments), i actually want to do it without registering ExampleClass. This probably involves more configuration, but i have no idea how to do it. So, basically, it comes down to this question: How do i configurate the ObjectFactory in a way that the autowiring always invokes the constructor with object Database1 for the first IDatabase parameter and object Database2 for the second one (if there is one?)

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  • Sockets server design advice

    - by Rob
    We are writing a socket server in c# and need some advice on the design. Background: Clients (from mobile devices) connect to our server app and we leave their socket open so we can send data back down to them whenever we need to. The amount of data varies but we generally send/receive data from each client every few seconds, so it's quite intensive. The amount of simultaneous connections can range from 50-500 (and more in the future). We have already written a server app using async sockets and it works, however we've come across some stumbling blocks and we need to make sure that what we're doing is correct. We have a collection which holds our client states (we have no socket/connection pool at the moment, should we?). Each time a client connects we create a socket and then wait for them to send us some data and in receiveCallBack we add their clientstate object to our connections dictionary (once we have verified who they are). When a client object then signs off we shutdown their socket and then close it as well as remove them from our collection of clients dictionary. Presumably everything happens in the right order, everything works as expected. However, almost everyday it stops accepting connections, or so we think, either that or it connects but doesn't actually do anything past that and we can't work out why it's just stopping. There are few things that we'r'e unsure about 1) Should we be creating some kind of connection pool as opposed to just a dictionary of client sockets 2) What happens to the sockets that connect but then don't get added to our dictionary, they just linger around in memory doing nothing, should we create ANOTHER dictionary that holds the sockets as soon as they are created? 3) What's the best way of finding if clients are no longer connected? We've read some many methods but we're not sure of the best one to use, send data or read data, if so how? 4) If we loop through the connections dictonary to check for disposed clients, should we be locking the dictionary, if so how does this affect other clients objects trying to use it at the same time, will it throw an error or just wait? 5) We often get disposedSocketException within ReceiveCallBack method at random times, does this mean we are safe to remove that socket from the collection? We can't seem to find any production type examples which show any of this working. Any advice would be greatly received

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  • Need help manipulating WAV (RIFF) Files at a byte level

    - by Eric
    I'm writing an an application in C# that will record audio files (*.wav) and automatically tag and name them. Wave files are RIFF files (like AVI) which can contain meta data chunks in addition to the waveform data chunks. So now I'm trying to figure out how to read and write the RIFF meta data to and from recorded wave files. I'm using NAudio for recording the files, and asked on their forums as well on SO for way to read and write RIFF tags. While I received a number of good answers, none of the solutions allowed for reading and writing RIFF chunks as easily as I would like. But more importantly I have very little experience dealing with files at a byte level, and think this could be a good opportunity to learn. So now I want to try writing my own class(es) that can read in a RIFF file and allow meta data to be read, and written from the file. I've used streams in C#, but always with the entire stream at once. So now I'm little lost that I have to consider a file byte by byte. Specifically how would I go about removing or inserting bytes to and from the middle of a file? I've tried reading a file through a FileStream into a byte array (byte[]) as shown in the code below. System.IO.FileStream waveFileStream = System.IO.File.OpenRead(@"C:\sound.wav"); byte[] waveBytes = new byte[waveFileStream.Length]; waveFileStream.Read(waveBytes, 0, waveBytes.Length); And I could see through the Visual Studio debugger that the first four byte are the RIFF header of the file. But arrays are a pain to deal with when performing actions that change their size like inserting or removing values. So I was thinking I could then to the byte[] into a List like this. List<byte> list = waveBytes.ToList<byte>(); Which would make any manipulation of the file byte by byte a whole lot easier, but I'm worried I might be missing something like a class in the System.IO name-space that would make all this even easier. Am I on the right track, or is there a better way to do this? I should also mention that I'm not hugely concerned with performance, and would prefer not to deal with pointers or unsafe code blocks like this guy. If it helps at all here is a good article on the RIFF/WAV file format.

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  • SQL Server to PostgreSQL - Migration and design concerns

    - by youwhut
    Currently migrating from SQL Server to PostgreSQL and attempting to improve a couple of key areas on the way: I have an Articles table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Articles]( [server_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [article_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [article_title] [varchar](400) NOT NULL, [category_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [size] [bigint] NOT NULL ) Data (comma delimited text files) is dumped on the import server by ~500 (out of ~1000) servers on a daily basis. Importing: Indexes are disabled on the Articles table. For each dumped text file Data is BULK copied to a temporary table. Temporary table is updated. Old data for the server is dropped from the Articles table. Temporary table data is copied to Articles table. Temporary table dropped. Once this process is complete for all servers the indexes are built and the new database is copied to a web server. I am reasonably happy with this process but there is always room for improvement as I strive for a real-time (haha!) system. Is what I am doing correct? The Articles table contains ~500 million records and is expected to grow. Searching across this table is okay but could be better. i.e. SELECT * FROM Articles WHERE server_ref=33 AND article_title LIKE '%criteria%' has been satisfactory but I want to improve the speed of searching. Obviously the "LIKE" is my problem here. Suggestions? SELECT * FROM Articles WHERE article_title LIKE '%criteria%' is horrendous. Partitioning is a feature of SQL Server Enterprise but $$$ which is one of the many exciting prospects of PostgreSQL. What performance hit will be incurred for the import process (drop data, insert data) and building indexes? Will the database grow by a huge amount? The database currently stands at 200 GB and will grow. Copying this across the network is not ideal but it works. I am putting thought into changing the hardware structure of the system. The thought process of having an import server and a web server is so that the import server can do the dirty work (WITHOUT indexes) while the web server (WITH indexes) can present reports. Maybe reducing the system down to one server would work to skip the copying across the network stage. This one server would have two versions of the database: one with the indexes for delivering reports and the other without for importing new data. The databases would swap daily. Thoughts? This is a fantastic system, and believe it or not there is some method to my madness by giving it a big shake up. UPDATE: I am not looking for help with relational databases, but hoping to bounce ideas around with data warehouse experts.

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  • .NET MVC Ajax Form - How do you hide it?

    - by Tommy
    Ok, everything is 'functionally' working with what I am attempting to accomplish and once again, I am sure this is something dumb, but I cannot figure out how to do this one thing. I have an edit form for an entity, lets say a car. This 'car' can have 0 - many passengers. So on my edit form, I have all the fields for the car, then a list view showing each passenger (partial). I also have a 'add new passenger' button that will render a new partial view that allows you to enter a passenger. This has a cancel link and an add button to submit an Ajax form. When you add a passenger, the passenger is automatically added to the list, but I need the enter passenger form to go away. I have tried using the onSuccess and onComplete functions to hide the div that the form is in, but both render just the partial view HTML elements (white screen, text) and not the partialView in the context of the entire page. Sources: 1) Main Edit View <script type="text/javascript"> Function hideForm(){ document.getElementById('newPassenger').style.display = 'none'; } </script> <h2>Edit</h2> <%-- The following line works around an ASP.NET compiler warning --%> <%= ""%> <%Html.RenderPartial("EditCar", Model)%> <h2>Passengers for this car</h2> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Add New Passenger", "AddPassenger", New With {.ID = Model.carID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <div id="newPassenger"></div> <div id="passengerList"> <%Html.RenderPartial("passengerList", Model.Passengers)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") %> </div> 2) AddPassenger View. The cancel link below is an action that returns nothing, thus removing the information in the div. <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("AddPassengerToCar", New With {.id = ViewData("carID")}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "passengerList", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <%=Html.DropDownList("Passengers")%> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Cancel", "CancelAddControl", _ New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%><% end using %>

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  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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  • Contract developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • algorithm optimization: returning object and sub-objects from single SQL statement in PHP

    - by pocketfullofcheese
    I have an object oriented PHP application. I have a simple hierarchy stored in an SQL table (Chapters and Authors that can be assigned to a chapter). I wrote the following method to fetch the chapters and the authors in a single query and then loop through the result, figuring out which rows belong to the same chapter and creating both Chapter objects and arrays of Author objects. However, I feel like this can be made a lot neater. Can someone help? function getChaptersWithAuthors($monographId, $rangeInfo = null) { $result =& $this->retrieveRange( 'SELECT mc.chapter_id, mc.monograph_id, mc.chapter_seq, ma.author_id, ma.monograph_id, mca.primary_contact, mca.seq, ma.first_name, ma.middle_name, ma.last_name, ma.affiliation, ma.country, ma.email, ma.url FROM monograph_chapters mc LEFT JOIN monograph_chapter_authors mca ON mc.chapter_id = mca.chapter_id LEFT JOIN monograph_authors ma ON ma.author_id = mca.author_id WHERE mc.monograph_id = ? ORDER BY mc.chapter_seq, mca.seq', $monographId, $rangeInfo ); $chapterAuthorDao =& DAORegistry::getDAO('ChapterAuthorDAO'); $chapters = array(); $authors = array(); while (!$result->EOF) { $row = $result->GetRowAssoc(false); // initialize $currentChapterId for the first row if ( !isset($currentChapterId) ) $currentChapterId = $row['chapter_id']; if ( $row['chapter_id'] != $currentChapterId) { // we're on a new row. create a chapter from the previous one $chapter =& $this->_returnFromRow($prevRow); // set the authors with all the authors found so far $chapter->setAuthors($authors); // clear the authors array unset($authors); $authors = array(); // add the chapters to the returner $chapters[$currentChapterId] =& $chapter; // set the current id for this row $currentChapterId = $row['chapter_id']; } // add every author to the authors array if ( $row['author_id'] ) $authors[$row['author_id']] =& $chapterAuthorDao->_returnFromRow($row); // keep a copy of the previous row for creating the chapter once we're on a new chapter row $prevRow = $row; $result->MoveNext(); if ( $result->EOF ) { // The result set is at the end $chapter =& $this->_returnFromRow($row); // set the authors with all the authors found so far $chapter->setAuthors($authors); unset($authors); // add the chapters to the returner $chapters[$currentChapterId] =& $chapter; } } $result->Close(); unset($result); return $chapters; } PS: the _returnFromRow methods simply construct an Chapter or Author object given the SQL row. If needed, I can post those methods here.

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  • Cascade Saves with Fluent NHibernate AutoMapping - Old Anwser Still Valid?

    - by Glenn
    I want to do exactly what this question asks: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/586888/cascade-saves-with-fluent-nhibernate-automapping Using Fluent Nhibernate Mappings to turn on "cascade" globally once for all classes and relation types using one call rather than setting it for each mapping individually. The answer to the earlier question looks great, but I'm afraid that the Fluent Nhibernate API altered its .WithConvention syntax last year and broke the answer... either that or I'm missing something. I keep getting a bunch of name space not found errors relating to the IOneToOnePart, IManyToOnePart and all their variations: "The type or namespace name 'IOneToOnePart' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" I've tried the official example dll's, the RTM dll's and the latest build and none of them seem to make VS 2008 see the required namespace. The second problem is that I want to use the class with my AutoPersistenceModel but I'm not sure where to this line: .ConventionDiscovery.AddFromAssemblyOf() in my factory creation method. private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile(DbFile)) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings .Add(AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Shelf>(type => type.Namespace.EndsWith("Entities")) .Override<Shelf>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.Products).Cascade.All(); }) ) )//emd mappings .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory();//finalizes the whole thing to send back. } Below is the class and using statements I'm trying using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using FluentNHibernate.Conventions; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; namespace TestCode { public class CascadeAll : IHasOneConvention, IHasManyConvention, IReferenceConvention { public bool Accept(IOneToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IOneToManyPart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToManyPart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IManyToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IManyToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } } }

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  • How to get the clicked element in a dynamically built JQuery Treeview?

    - by Alexander
    I have a product database with several product categories. Each category has a number of sub-categories, which has sub-sub-categories, which has... Well, quite some levels deep. The tree is too huge to load at once, so I need to built it dynamically as users select specific product categories. Here's a snapshot of the product tree. Initially, only the first level is loaded. The second level (Cat. 1.1 and cat. 1.2) is added when the user clicks on cat. 1: <ul id="navigation"> <li id="625212">Product cat. 1 <ul> <li id="625213">Product cat. 1.1 <ul></ul> </li> <li id="625109">Product cat. 1.2 <ul></ul> </li> </ul> </li> <li id="624990">Product cat. 2 <ul></ul> </li> </ul> I intend to extend the tree as users click on specific product categories. I can get the list of sub-categories from a URL that takes the parent product category ID as input and outputs HTML in the format needed by treeview. I cannot use PHP and have to make this work with the .click() event. Here's the code that I have: $(document).ready(function(){ function doSomethingWithData(htmldata, id) { var branches = $(htmldata).appendTo("#navigation #"+id+" ul"); $("#navigation").treeview({ add: branches }); } $("#navigation").treeview({ collapsed: true, unique: true, persist: "location" }); $("#navigation li[id]").click(function() { var id=$(this).attr("id"); if ($("#"+$(this).attr("id")+" ul li").size()==0) { $.get('someurl?id='+$(this).attr("id"), function(data) { doSomethingWithData(data, id); } ) } }); }); The problem I'm having is with the click-event. When clicking on cat 1.1. to extend it one level deeper, it still returns the ID of the top level product category. How can I change the click events so that it will return the ID of the clicked <LI> instead of the top one? If the product category does not have any sub-categories, how can I remove the <UL></UL> and thus inidcating that the tree cannot be expanded any further?

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  • PriorityQueue update problems

    - by Bharat
    After going through a bunch of questions here on SO, I still have no idea what exactly is going wrong with my code and would appreciate some help. I'm trying to implement a priority queue based on f-costs for an A* algorithm, and while the algorithm works fine for short pathfinding distances, it seems to go wrong when there's an obstacle or when the distance between start and goal points is greater than about 30 squares (although sometimes it screws up for less too). while(!m_qOpenList.isEmpty()) { m_xCurrent=m_qOpenList.poll(); m_xCurrent.setBackground(Color.red); m_qClosedList.add(m_xCurrent); if(m_xCurrent.getStatus()==2) { System.out.println("Target Reached"); solved=true; break; } iX=m_xCurrent.getXCo(); iY=m_xCurrent.getYCo(); for(i=iX-1;i<=iX+1;i++) for(j=iY-1;j<=iY+1;j++) { if(i<0||j<0||i>m_iMazeX||j>m_iMazeX||(i==iX&&j==iY) || m_xNode[i][j].getStatus()==4|| m_qClosedList.contains(m_xNode[i][j])) continue; m_xNode[i][j].score(m_xCurrent,m_xGoal); m_qOpenList.add(m_xNode[i][j]); } } It's quite rudimentary as I'm just trying to get it to work for now. m_qOpenList is the PriorityQueue. The problem is that when I debug the program, at some point (near an obstacle), a Node with a fcost of say 84 has higher priority than a node with an fcost of 70. I am not attempting to modify the values once they're on the priority queue. You'll notice that I add at the end of the while loop (I read somewhere that the priorityqueue reorders itself when stuff is added to it), and poll right after that at the beginning. Status of 2 means the Node is the goal, and a status of 4 means that it is unwalkable. public int compareTo(Node o) { if(m_iF<o.m_iF) return -1; if(m_iF>o.m_iF) return 1; return 0; } And that's the compareTo function. Can you see a problem? =(

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  • debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

    - by NateS
    Originally posted on Server Fault, where it was suggested this question might better asked here. We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

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  • Switching DataSources in ReportViewer in WinForms

    - by Mike Wills
    I have created a winform for the users to view view the many reports I am creating for them. I have a drop down list with the report name which triggers the appropriate fields to display the parameters. Once those are filled, they press Submit and the report appears. This works the first time they hit the screen. They can change the parameters and the ReportViewer works fine. Change to a different report, and the I get the following ReportViewer error: An error occurred during local report processing. An error has occurred during the report processing. A data source instance has not been supplied for the data source "CgTempData_BusMaintenance". As far as the process I use: I set reportName (string) the physical RDLC name. I set the dataSource (string) as the DataSource Name I fill a generic DataTable with the data for the report to run from. Make the ReportViewer visible Set the LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" = reportName; Clear the LocalReport.DataSources.Clear() Add the new LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); RefreshReport() on the ReportViewer. Here is the portion of the code that setups up and displays the ReportViewer: /// <summary> /// Builds the report. /// </summary> private void BuildReport() { DataTable dt = null; ReportingCG rcg = new ReportingCG(); if (reportName == "GasUsedReport.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_FuelLog"; CgTempData.FuelLogDataTable DtFuelLog = rcg.BuildFuelUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtFuelLog; } else if (reportName == "InventoryCost.rdlc") { CgTempData.InventoryUsedDataTable DtInventory; dataSource = "CgTempData_InventoryUsed"; DtInventory = rcg.BuildInventoryUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtInventory; } else if (reportName == "VehicleMasterList.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_VehicleMaster"; CgTempData.VehicleMasterDataTable DtVehicleMaster = rcg.BuildVehicleMasterTable(); dt = DtVehicleMaster; } else if (reportName == "BusCosts.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_BusMaintenance"; dt = rcg.BuildBusCostsTable(fromDate, toDate); } // Setup the DataSource this.reportViewer1.Visible = true; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" + reportName; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Clear(); this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); this.reportViewer1.RefreshReport(); } Any ideas how to remove all of the old remaining data? Do I dispose the object and recreate it?

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  • Ray-Box Intersection during Scene traversal with matrix transforms

    - by Myx
    Hello: There are a few ways that I'm testing my ray-box intersections: Using the ComputeIntersectionBox(...) method, that takes a ray and a box as arguments and computes the closest intersection of the ray and the box. This method works by forming a plane with each of the faces of the box and finding an intersection with each of the planes. Once an intersection is found, a check is made whether or not the point is on the surface of the box by checking that the intersection point is between the corner points. When I look at rays after running this algorithm on two different boxes, I obtain the correct intersections. Using ComputeIntersectionScene(...) method without using the matrix transformations on a scene that has two spheres, a dodecahedron (a triangular mesh), and two boxes. ComputeIntersectionScene(...) recursively traverses all of the nodes of the scene graph and computes the closest intersection with the given ray. This test in particular does not apply any transformations that parent nodes may have that also need to be applied to their children. With this test, I also obtain the correct intersections. Using ComputeIntersectionScene(...) method WITH the matrix transformations. This test works like the one above except that before finding an intersection between the ray and a node in the scene, the ray is transformed into the node's coordinate frame using the inverse of the node's transformation matrix and after the intersection has been computed, this intersection is transformed back into the world coordinates by applying the transformation matrix to the intersection point. When testing with the third method on the same scene file as described in 2, testing with 4 rays (thus one ray intersects the one sphere, one ray the the other sphere, one ray one box, and one ray the other box), only the two spheres get intersected and the two boxes do not get intersections. When I debug looking into my ComputeIntersectionBox(...) method, it actually tells me that the ray intersects every plane on the box but each intersection point does not lie on the box. This seems to be strange behavior, since when using test 2 without transformations, I obtain the correct box intersections (thus, I believe my ray-box intersection to be correct) and when using test 3 WITH transformations, I obtain the correct sphere intersections (thus, I believe my transformed ray should be OK). Any suggestions where I could be going wrong? Thank you in advance.

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  • Class Problem (c++ and prolog)

    - by Joshua Green
    I am using the C++ interface to Prolog (the classes and methods of SWI-cpp.h). For working out a simple backtracking that john likes mary and emma and sara: likes(john, mary). likes(john, emma). likes(john, ashley). I can just do: { PlFrame fr; PlTermv av(2); av[0] = PlCompound("john"); PlQuery q("likes", av); while (q.next_solution()) { cout << (char*)av[1] << endl; } } This works in a separate code, so the syntax is correct. But I am also trying to get this simple backtracking to work within a class: class UserTaskProlog { public: UserTaskProlog(ArRobot* r); ~UserTaskProlog(); protected: int cycles; char* argv[1]; ArRobot* robot; void logTask(); }; This class works fine, with my cycles variable incrementing every robot cycle. However, when I run my main code, I get an Unhandled Exception error message: UserTaskProlog::UserTaskProlog(ArRobot* r) : robotTaskFunc(this, &UserTaskProlog::logTask) { cycles = 0; PlEngine e(argv[0]); PlCall("consult('myFile.pl')"); robot->addSensorInterpTask("UserTaskProlog", 50, &robotTaskFunc); } UserTaskProlog::~UserTaskProlog() { robot->remSensorInterpTask(&robotTaskFunc); // Do I need a destructor here for pl? } void UserTaskProlog::logTask() { cycles++; cout << cycles; { PlFrame fr; PlTermv av(2); av[0] = PlCompound("john"); PlQuery q("likes", av); while (q.next_solution()) { cout << (char*)av[1] << endl; } } } I have my opening and closing brackets for PlFrame. I have my frame, my query, etc... The exact same code that backtracks and prints out mary and emma and sara. What am I missing here that I get an error message? Here is what I think the code should do: I expect mary and emma and sara to be printed out once, every time cycles increments. However, it opens SWI-cpp.h file automatically and points to class PlFrame. What is it trying to tell me? I don't see anything wrong with my PlFrame class declaration. Thanks,

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  • Enable real fixed positioning on Samsung Android browsers

    - by Mr. Shiny and New ??
    The Android browser, since 2.2, supports fixed positioning, at least under certain circumstances such as when scaling is turned off. I have a simple HTML file with no JS, but the fixed positioning on three Samsung phones I've tried is simply wrong. Instead of true fixed positioning, the header scrolls out of view then pops back into place after the scrolling is done. This doesn't happen on the Android SDK emulator for any configuration I've tested (2.2, 2.3, 2.3 x86, 4.0.4). It also doesn't happen when using the WebView in an app on the Samsung phones: in those cases the positioning works as expected. Is there a way to make the Samsung Android "stock" browser use real fixed positioning? I've tested: 1. Samsung Galaxy 551, Android 2.2 2. Samsung Galaxy S, Android 2.3 3. Samsung Galaxy S II, Android 2.3 Sample code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no,width=device-width,height=device-height"> <style> h1 { position: fixed; top: 0; left: 0; height: 32px; background-color: #CDCDCD; color: black; font-size: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding: 2px; width: 100%; margin: 0;} p { margin-top: 36px; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>Header</h1> <p>Long text goes here</p> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is that the grey header fills the top of the screen and stays put no matter how much you scroll. On Samsung Android browsers it seems to scroll out of view then pop back into place once the scrolling is done, as if the fixed-positioning is being simulated using Javascript, which it isn't. Edit Judging by the comments and "answers" it seems that maybe I wasn't clear on what I need. I am looking for a meta tag or css rule/hack or javascript toggle which turns off Samsung's broken fixed-positioning and turns on the Android browser's working fixed-positioning. I am not looking for a Javascript solution that adds broken fixed-positioning to a browser that has no support whatsoever; the Samsung fixed-positioning does that already, it just looks stupid.

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  • NoHostAvailableException With Cassandra & DataStax Java Driver If Large ResultSet

    - by hughj
    The setup: 2-node Cassandra 1.2.6 cluster replicas=2 very large CQL3 table with no secondary index Rowkey is a UUID.randomUUID().toString() read consistency set to ONE Using DataStax java driver 1.0 The request: Attempting to do a table scan by "SELECT some-col from schema.table LIMIT nnn;" The fail: Once I go beyond a certain nnn LIMIT, I start to get NoHostAvailableExceptions from the driver. It reads like this: com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException: All host(s) tried for query failed (tried: /10.181.13.239 ([/10.181.13.239] Unexpected exception triggered)) at com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException.copy(NoHostAvailableException.java:64) at com.datastax.driver.core.ResultSetFuture.extractCauseFromExecutionException(ResultSetFuture.java:214) at com.datastax.driver.core.ResultSetFuture.getUninterruptibly(ResultSetFuture.java:169) at com.jpmc.es.rtm.storage.impl.EventExtract.main(EventExtract.java:36) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) at com.intellij.rt.execution.application.AppMain.main(AppMain.java:120) Caused by: com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException: All host(s) tried for query failed (tried: /10.181.13.239 ([/10.181.13.239] Unexpected exception triggered)) at com.datastax.driver.core.RequestHandler.sendRequest(RequestHandler.java:98) at com.datastax.driver.core.RequestHandler$1.run(RequestHandler.java:165) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1110) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:603) Given: This is probably not the most enlightened thing to do to a large table with millions of rows, but this is how I learn what not to do, so I would really appreciate someone who could volunteer how this kind of error can be debugged. For example, when this happens, there are no indications that the nodes in the cluster ever had an issue with the request (there is nothing in the logs on either node that indicate any timeout or failure). Also, I enabled the trace on the driver, which gives you some nice autotrace (ala Oracle) info as long as the query succeeds. But in this case, the driver blows a NoHostAvailableException and no ExecutionInfo is available, so tracing has not provided any benefit in this case. I also find it interesting that this does not seem to be recorded as a timeout (my JMX consoles tell me no timeouts have occurred). So, I am left not understanding WHERE the failure is actually occurring. I am left with the idea that it is the driver that is having a problem, but I don't know how to debug it (and I would really like to). I have read several posts from folks that state that query'g for resultSets 10000 rows is probably not a good idea, and I am willing to accept this, but I would like to understand what is causing the exception and where the exception is happening. FWIW, I also tried bumping the timeout properties in the cassandra.yaml, but this made no difference whatsoever. I welcome any suggestions, anecdotes, insults, or monetary contributions for my registration in the house of moron-developers. Regards!!

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  • boost::asio buffer impossible to convert parameter from char to const mutable_buffer&

    - by Ekyo777
    visual studio tells me "error C2664: 'boost::asio::mutable_buffer::mutable_buffer(const boost::asio::mutable_buffer&)': impossible to convert parameter 1 from 'char' to 'const boost::asio::mutable_buffer&' at line 163 of consuming_buffers.hpp" I am unsure of why this happen nor how to solve it(otherwise I wouldn't ask this ^^') but I think it could be related to those functions.. even tough I tried them in another project and everything worked fine... but I can hardly find what's different so... here comes code that could be relevant, if anything useful seems to be missing I'll be glad to send it. packets are all instances of this class. class CPacketBase { protected: const unsigned short _packet_type; const size_t _size; char* _data; public: CPacketBase(unsigned short packet_type, size_t size); ~CPacketBase(); size_t get_size(); const unsigned short& get_type(); virtual char* get(); virtual void set(char*); }; this sends a given packet template <typename Handler> void async_write(CPacketBase* packet, Handler handler) { std::string outbuf; outbuf.resize(packet->get_size()); outbuf = packet->get(); boost::asio::async_write( _socket , boost::asio::buffer(outbuf, packet->get_size()) , handler); } this enable reading packets and calls a function that decodes the packet's header(unsigned short) and resize the buffer to send it to another function that reads the real data from the packet template <typename Handler> void async_read(CPacketBase* packet, Handler handler) { void (CTCPConnection::*f)( const boost::system::error_code& , CPacketBase*, boost::tuple<Handler>) = &CTCPConnection::handle_read_header<Handler>; boost::asio::async_read(_socket, _buffer_data , boost::bind( f , this , boost::asio::placeholders::error , packet , boost::make_tuple(handler))); } and this is called by async_read once a packet is received template <typename Handler> void handle_read_header(const boost::system::error_code& error, CPacketBase* packet, boost::tuple<Handler> handler) { if (error) { boost::get<0>(handler)(error); } else { // Figures packet type unsigned short packet_type = *((unsigned short*) _buffer_data.c_str()); // create new packet according to type delete packet; ... // read packet's data _buffer_data.resize(packet->get_size()-2); // minus header size void (CTCPConnection::*f)( const boost::system::error_code& , CPacketBase*, boost::tuple<Handler>) = &CTCPConnection::handle_read_data<Handler>; boost::asio::async_read(_socket, _buffer_data , boost::bind( f , this , boost::asio::placeholders::error , packet , handler)); } }

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  • When does the .NET FormAuthentication ticket get checked and how do I tap into this event?

    - by Mustafakidd
    Hello everyone - We are attempting to integrate an ASP.NET MVC site with our client's SSO system using PingFederate. I would like to use the built in FormsAuthentication framework to do this. The way I've gone about it so far is: Set up my Web.config so that my FormsAuthentication LoginURL goes to my site's "BeginAuthentication" action on a "Security" controller. From this action, I set up some session variables (what URL was being accessed, for example, since Ping won't send this info back to me), and then redirect to our client's login page on an external site (www.client.com/Login for example). From here, the authentication takes place and a cookie is generated on the same domain as the one that our application is running on which contains the unique identifier of the authenticated user, I've set it up so that once this happens, the Ping server will redirect to my "EndAuthentication" action on my "Security" controller. In this action, I call my membership class's "ValidateUser" method which takes this unique identifier from the cookie and loads in the user on our application that this ID refers to. I save that logged in user in our Session (Session["LoggedInAs"], for example) and expire the cookie that contains the id of the authenticated user that the SSO system provided for me. All of this works well. The issue I'm wondering about is what happens after our user has already authenticated and manually goes back to our client's login page (www.client.com/login) and logs in as another user. If they do that, then the flow from #2 above to number 3 happens as normal - but since there already exists an authenticated user on our site, it seems as though the FormsAuthentication system doesn't bother kicking off anything so I don't get a chance to check for the cookie I'm looking for to login as this new user. What I'd like to do is, somewhere in my Global.asax file (probably FormsAuthenticate_OnAuthenticate), check to see if the cookie that the SSO system sends to me exists, and if so, sign out of the application using FormsAuthentication.SignOut(). Another issue that seems to be related is that if I let my Session expire, the FormsAuthentication still seems to think I am authenticated and it lets me access a page even though no currently logged in user exists in my Session, so the page doesn't render correctly. Should I tap into the Session_End event and do FormsAuthentication.SignOut() here as well? Basically, I want to know when the authentication ticket created by System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) gets checked in the flow of a request so that I can determine whether I need to SignOut() and force revalidation or not. Thanks for any help. Sorry for the length of this message, trying to be as detailed as possible. Mustafa

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  • trouble with utf-8 chars & apache2 rewrite rules

    - by tixrus
    I see the post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2565864/validating-utf-8-in-htaccess-rewrite-rule and I think that is great, but a more fundamental problem I am having first: I needed to expand to handle utf-8 chars for query string parameters, names of directories, files, and used in displays to users etc. I configured my Apache with DefaultCharset utf-8 and also my php if that matters. My original rewrite rule filtered everything except regular A-Za-z and underscore and hyphen. and it worked. Anything else would give you a 404 (which is what I want!) Now, however it seems that everything matches, including stuff I don't want, however, although it seems to match it doesn't go in the query string unless it is a regular A-Za-z_- character string. I find this confusing, because the rule says put whatever you matched into the query string: Here is the original rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/([A-Za-z_-]+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] and here is the revised rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/(\w+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] I made the change because somewhere I read that \w matches ALL the alpha chars where as A-Zetc. only matches the ones without accents and stuff. It doesn't seem to matter which of those rules I use: Here is what happens: In the application I have this: echo $_GET['g']; If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/USA it echoes out "USA" and works fine. If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/México it echoes nothing for that and warns me that index g is not defined and of course doesn't get resources for Mexico. if I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/fuzzle/buzzle/j.qle it does the same thing. This last case should be a 404! And it does this no matter which of the above rules I use. I configured a rewrite log RewriteLogLevel 5 RewriteLog /opt/local/apache2/logs/puzzles.httpd.rewrite but it is empty. Here is from the regular access log (it gives a status of 200) [26/May/2010:11:21:42 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M%C3%A9xico HTTP/1.1" 200 342 [26/May/2010:11:21:54 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M/l.foo HTTP/1.1" 200 342 What can I do to get these $%#$@(*#@!!! characters but not slash, dot or other non-alpha into my program, and once there, will it decode them correctly??? Would posix char classes work any better? Is there anything else I need to configure?

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  • NSObject release destroys local copy of object's data

    - by Spider-Paddy
    I know this is something stupid on my part but I don't get what's happening. I create an object that fetches data & puts it into an array in a specific format, since it fetches asynchronously (has to download & parse data) I put a delegate method into the object that needs the data so that the data fetching object copies it's formatted array into an array in the calling object. The problem is that when the data fetching object is released, the copy it created in the caller is being erased, code is: In .h file @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *imagesDataSource; In .m file // Fetch item details ImagesParser *imagesParserObject = [[ImagesParser alloc] init:self]; [imagesParserObject getArticleImagesOfArticleId:(NSInteger)currentArticleId]; [imagesParserObject release] <-- problematic release // Called by parser when images parsing is finished -(void)imagesDataTransferComplete:(ImagesParser *)imagesParserObject { self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // copy array to local variable // If there are more pics, they must be assembled in an array for possible UIImageView animation NSInteger picCount = [imagesDataSource count]; if(picCount > 1) // 1 image is assumed to be the pic already displayed { // Build image array NSMutableArray *tempPicArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Temp space to hold images while building for(int i = 0; i < picCount; i++) { // Get Nr from only article in detailDataSource & pic name (Small) from each item in imagesDataSource NSString *picAddress = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://some.url.com/shopdata/image/article/%@/%@", [[detailDataSource objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Nr"], [[imagesDataSource objectAtIndex:i] objectForKey:@"Small"]]; NSURL *picURL = [NSURL URLWithString:picAddress]; NSData *picData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:picURL]; [tempPicArray addObject:[UIImage imageWithData:picData]]; } imagesArray = [tempPicArray copy]; // copy makes immutable copy of array [tempPicArray release]; currentPicIndex = 0; // Assume first pic is pic already being shown } else imagesArray = nil; // No need for a needless pic array // Remove please wait message [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I put in tons of NSLog lines to keep track of what was going on & self.imagesDataSource is populated with the returned array but when the parser object is released self.imagesDataSource becomes empty. I thought self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; is supposed to make an independant object, like as if it was alloc, init'ed, so that self.imagesDataSource is not just a pointer to the parser's array but is it's own array. So why does the release of the parser object clear the copy of the array. (I checked & double checked that it's not something overwriting self.imagesDataSource, commenting out [imagesParserObject release] consistently fixes the problem) Also, I have exactly the same problem with self.detailDataSource which is declared & populated in the exact same way as self.imagesDataSource I thought that once I call the parser I could release it because the caller no longer needs to refer to it, all further activity is carried out by the parser object through it's delegate method, what am I doing wrong?

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  • load google annotated chart within jquery ui tab content via ajax method

    - by twmulloy
    Hi, I am encountering an issue with trying to load a google annotated chart (http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/annotatedtimeline.html) within a jquery ui tab using content via ajax method (http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/#ajax). If instead I use the default tabs functionality, writing out the code things work fine: <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Chart</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('visualization', '1', {'packages':['annotatedtimeline']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('date', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'cloudofinc.com'); data.addColumn('string', 'header'); data.addColumn('string', 'text') data.addColumn('number', 'All Clients'); data.addRows([ [new Date('May 12, 2010'), 2, '2 New Users', '', 3], [new Date('May 13, 2010'), 0, undefined, undefined, 0], [new Date('May 14, 2010'), 0, undefined, undefined, 0], ]); var chart = new google.visualization.AnnotatedTimeLine(document.getElementById('chart_users')); chart.draw(data, { displayAnnotations: false, fill: 10, thickness: 1 }); } </script> <div id='chart_users' style='width: 100%; height: 400px;'></div> </div> </div> But if I use the ajax method for jquery ui tab and point to the partial for the tab, it doesn't work completely. The page renders and once the chart loads, the browser window goes white. However, you can see the tab partial flash just before the chart appears to finish rendering (the chart never actually displays). I have verified that the partial is indeed loading properly without the chart. <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="ajax/tabs-1">Chart</a></li> </ul> </div>

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