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• NHibernate unintentional lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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• Are there supposed to be more restrictions on operator->* overloads?

  - by Potatoswatter

  I was perusing section 13.5 after refuting the notion that built-in operators do not participate in overload resolution, and noticed that there is no section on operator->*. It is just a generic binary operator. Its brethren, operator->, operator*, and operator[], are all required to be non-static member functions. This precludes definition of a free function overload to an operator commonly used to obtain a reference from an object. But the uncommon operator->* is left out. In particular, operator[] has many similarities. It is binary (they missed a golden opportunity to make it n-ary), and it accepts some kind of container on the left and some kind of locator on the right. Its special-rules section, 13.5.5, doesn't seem to have any actual effect except to outlaw free functions. (And that restriction even precludes support for commutativity!) So, for example, this is perfectly legal (in C++0x, remove obvious stuff to translate to C++03): #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <type_traits> using namespace std; template< class F, class S > typename common_type< F,S >::type operator->*( pair<F,S> const &l, bool r ) { return r? l.second : l.first; } template< class T > T & operator->*( pair<T,T> &l, bool r ) { return r? l.second : l.first; } template< class T > T & operator->*( bool l, pair<T,T> &r ) { return l? r.second : r.first; } int main() { auto x = make_pair( 1, 2.3 ); cerr << x->*false << " " << x->*4 << endl; auto y = make_pair( 5, 6 ); y->*(0) = 7; y->*0->*y = 8; // evaluates to 7->*y = y.second cerr << y.first << " " << y.second << endl; } I can certainly imagine myself giving into temp[la]tation. For example, scaled indexes for vector: v->*matrix_width[5] = x; Did the standards committee forget to prevent this, was it considered too ugly to bother, or are there real-world use cases?

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• CRM2011 - "The given key was not present in the dictionary"

  - by DJZorrow

  I am what you call a "n00b" in CRM plugin development. I am trying to write a plugin for Microsoft's Dynamics CRM 2011 that will create a new activity entity when you create a new contact. I want this activity entity to be associated with the contact entity. This is my current code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Microsoft.Xrm.Sdk; namespace ITPH_CRM_Deactivate_Account_SSP_Disable { public class SSPDisable_Plugin: IPlugin { public void Execute(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { // Obtain the execution context from the service provider. IPluginExecutionContext context = (IPluginExecutionContext) serviceProvider.GetService(typeof(IPluginExecutionContext)); IOrganizationServiceFactory serviceFactory = (IOrganizationServiceFactory)serviceProvider.GetService(typeof(IOrganizationServiceFactory)); IOrganizationService service = serviceFactory.CreateOrganizationService(context.UserId); if (context.InputParameters.Contains("Target") && context.InputParameters["target"] is Entity) { Entity entity = context.InputParameters["Target"] as Entity; if (entity.LogicalName != "account") { return; } Entity followup = new Entity(); followup.LogicalName = "activitypointer"; followup.Attributes = new AttributeCollection(); followup.Attributes.Add("subject", "Created via Plugin."); followup.Attributes.Add("description", "This is generated by the magic of C# ..."); followup.Attributes.Add("scheduledstart", DateTime.Now.AddDays(3)); followup.Attributes.Add("actualend", DateTime.Now.AddDays(5)); if (context.OutputParameters.Contains("id")) { Guid regardingobjectid = new Guid(context.OutputParameters["id"].ToString()); string regardingobjectidType = "account"; followup["regardingobjectid"] = new EntityReference(regardingobjectidType, regardingobjectid); } service.Create(followup); } } } But when i try to run this code: I get an error when i try to create a new contact in the CRM environment. The error is: "The given key was not present in the dictionary" (Link *1). The error pops up right as i try to save the new contact. Link *1: http://puu.sh/4SXrW.png (Translated bold text: "Error on business process") Thanks for any help or suggestions :)

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• firefox, opera 'The connection was reset' on few POST method calls on Windows and Ubuntu

  - by Gopalakrishnan Subramani

  my website works well with GET method, also few POST methods. Some pages with POST method doesn't work. Some pages with POST work. For example, login page uses POST that works fine. When I post the data on webpage, firefox says "Connecting..." and finally report connection timed out error. The same behavior happens with Opera as well. However Google Chrome works fine. At the server side, I use nginx 1.2.4 with HTTPS and uwsgi for python (flask framework) app. I use geotrust certificate. The same behavior happens with Windows 7 and Ubuntu 12.04 on firefox. I tried firefox in safemode, but no luck. Set auto-detect proxy settings. no luck. Cleared all cookies. no luck Anyone help me to fix this issue? I am posting ngix config. shame on me. I use root, I know which is not advised. need to fix soon. user root; worker_processes 4; pid /var/run/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 768; # multi_accept on; } http { ## # Basic Settings ## sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; tcp_nodelay on; keepalive_timeout 65; types_hash_max_size 2048; # server_tokens off; # server_names_hash_bucket_size 64; # server_name_in_redirect off; include /etc/nginx/mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; ## # Logging Settings ## access_log /var/log/nginx/access.log; error_log /var/log/nginx/error.log; ## # Gzip Settings ## gzip on; gzip_disable "msie6"; # gzip_vary on; # gzip_proxied any; # gzip_comp_level 6; # gzip_buffers 16 8k; # gzip_http_version 1.1; # gzip_types text/plain text/css application/json application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; ## # nginx-naxsi config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-naxsi ## #include /etc/nginx/naxsi_core.rules; ## # nginx-passenger config ## # Uncomment it if you installed nginx-passenger ## #passenger_root /usr; #passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby; ## # Virtual Host Configs ## include /etc/nginx/conf.d/*.conf; include /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/*; ssl_session_cache shared:SSL:10m; ssl_session_timeout 10m; server { listen 80; server_name www.example.com; rewrite ^(.*) https://example.com$1 permanent; } server { listen 80; server_name example.com; rewrite ^ https://$server_name$request_uri? permanent; } server { listen 443; server_name example.com; keepalive_timeout 70; ssl on; ssl_certificate /root/cc.cert; ssl_certificate_key /root/cc.key; ssl_protocols SSLv3 TLSv1 TLSv1.1 TLSv1.2; #ssl_ciphers HIGH:!aNULL:!MD5; ssl_ciphers RC4:HIGH:!aNULL:!MD5; ssl_prefer_server_ciphers on; location / { try_files $uri @app; } location @app { include uwsgi_params; uwsgi_pass unix:/tmp/uwsgi.sock; } } } #mail { # # See sample authentication script at: # # http://wiki.nginx.org/ImapAuthenticateWithApachePhpScript # # # auth_http localhost/auth.php; # # pop3_capabilities "TOP" "USER"; # # imap_capabilities "IMAP4rev1" "UIDPLUS"; # # server { # listen localhost:110; # protocol pop3; # proxy on; # } # # server { # listen localhost:143; # protocol imap; # proxy on; # } #}

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• Help with OpenVPN setup on Windows Server 2003

  - by Bill Johnson

  Hi all, Just wondering if someone can assist me further with the set-up of OpenVPN on my Windows Server 2003. I have configured Win Server as per the following guide: http://tinyurl.com/kxusv and I'm now at the stage of Creating the config files. I have a few questions that I need some assistance with. My server IP is 192.168.1.10 and my routers IP address is 192.168.1.1 (the router is a Netgear DGN2000). I have edited the server.ovpn file as per the following: push "dhcp-option DNS X.X.X.X" # Replace the Xs with the IP address of the DNS for your home network (usually your ISP's DNS) push "dhcp-option DNS X.X.X.X" # A second DNS server if you have one to include my ISP DNS and I have not edited anything else. Now my issue is with the client1.opvpn file as per the below: client dev tap #dev-node MyTAP #If you renamed your TAP interface or have more than one TAP interface then remove the # at the beginning and change "MyTAP" to its name proto udp remote YOURHOST.dyndns.org 1194 #You will need to enter you dyndns account or static IP address here. The number following it is the port you set in the server's config route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 vpn_gateway 3 #This it the IP address scheme and subnet of your normal network your server is on. Your router would usually be 192.168.1.1 resolv-retry infinite nobind persist-key persist-tun ca "C:\\Program Files\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\ca.crt" cert "C:\\Program Files\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\client1.crt" # Change the next two lines to match the files in the keys directory. This should be be different for each client. key "C:\\Program Files\\OpenVPN\\easy-rsa\\keys\\client1.key" # This file should be kept secret ns-cert-type server cipher BF-CBC # Blowfish (default) encrytion comp-lzo verb 1 To me it looks like I will need to amend the following: remote YOURHOST.dyndns.org 1194 #You will need to enter you dyndns account or static IP address here. The number following it is the port you set in the server's config route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 vpn_gateway 3 #This it the IP address scheme and subnet of your normal network your server is on. Your router would usually be 192.168.1.1 So, should the first line be the static IP of the machine that I'm applying this to? The IP address of the server (192.168.1.10) or something else? I'm also stuck on the second part 'route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 vpn_gateway 3' Should this be the router IP which is 192.168.1.1 and the subnet is 255.255.255.0 and that is all I need to alter? The final part that I'm stuggling with is Configuring the router. Basically I have a Netgear DGN2000 and as it mentions that the router should be configured to port forward port 1194 to the server’s IP address of 192.168.1.150 all I have been able to do is in 'Firewall Rules' and on 'Inbound Services', set the Service to 'Any(ALL) and Send to LAN Server point to 1923.168.1.150. I'm not sure if this is correct? It is the following stage of the help guide that I'm struggling with and really need some help with: You need to make sure the port you configured OpenVPN to listen on is forwarded on the router to the IP address of your server. On the WRT54G, port forwarding is configured in the “Applications & Gaming” section. Enter 1194 for the port, UDP for the protocol, and 192.168.1.150 for the IP address. Make sure the entry is enabled and then save the setting. Next, you need to add an entry to the router’s Routing Table. This will enable the router to properly route requests from the clients to the TAP interface of the server. On the WRT54G you would go to the “Setup” page and then the “Advanced Routing” section. Enter the follwing info to make the entry: Enter Route Name: openVPN Destination LAN IP: 192.168.10.0 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.252 Default Gateway: 192.168.1.150 Interface: LAN & Wireless Once the info has been typed in make sure you save the setting. Can anyone possibly guide me through setting this part up with my Netgear router. I see that once I have these 2 parts complete I'm there so I would really appreciate someone walking me through what is required in completing this. Much appreciated.

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• drupal (CMS) or codeigniter (MVC) for creating a new web application?

  - by ajsie

  im going to create a new web application that is very customized. it will contain images, that are fully searchable - in a very, very customized way. when you click on the pictures you can add comments and so on. it requires users to be registered, but the registration/login process will be highly customized too. at the moment im using CodeIgniter for this. But i've read a lot of posts about CMS like Drupal and it sounds like i could let it handle basic stuff, maybe design and other front end work. i have no experience with CMS, in fact, i just started to use a MVC framework like CI and was impressed of how much easier it gets to start developing. so i wonder, if i'm going to create this kind of application, could i use drupal and then add the usual stuff, as i was going to do with CodeIgniter, like controllers, views, models, config files, my own libraries and so on? how does it work on a system like Drupal. how do you code PHP with it as with any MVC framework. it sounds like it has a lot of modules, i just wonder, if i can use it as a MVC framework but have the benefit of having all these basic stuff and design ready to use? cause then it sounds like the best "library" to provide for a web application from scratch. or is it difficult to create a customized app with it? i guess it has modules like images and users, but then how could i customize these so that every image has tags on it and country information, or have every user subscribing to changes to an image, that email will be sent to users and so on? cause i guess its easy to install a module. the question is, how do i customize it. maybe i don't need all that table columns. maybe i want to add/remove business logic. what are the pros and cons with using Drupal for this? is it even the right way to go? can you make a Stackoverflow with Drupal? Facebook? Twitter? Youtube? assuming that you know php of course. share your thoughts cause im totally new on creating a web application! thanks

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• JQuery form sticks with the ajax indicator on and won't submit

  - by Steven Buick

  Hi, I'm using JQuery 1.3 to validate and submit a form to a PHP page which JSON encodes a server response to display on the original form page. I've tried submitting the form without the JQuery part and everything seems to work fine but when I add JQuery it doesn't submit and constantly displays the ajax indicator. Here's my code: $(document).ready(function(){ var options = { target: '#messagebox', url: 'updateregistration.php', type:'POST', beforeSubmit: validatePassword, success: processJson, dataType: 'json' }; $("form:not(.filter) :input:visible:enabled:first").focus(); $("#webmailForm").validate({ errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox", rules: { forename: "required", surname: "required", currentpassword: "required", directemail: { required: true, email: true }, directtelephone: "required" }, messages: { forename: { required: "Please enter your forename" }, directemail: { required: "Please enter your direct e-mail address", email: "Your e-mail address does not appear to be valid(Example: [email protected])" }, surname: { required: "Please enter your surname" }, directtelephone: { required: "Please enter your direct telephone number" }, currentpassword: { required: "Please enter your current password" } } }); $('#webmailForm').submit(function() { $('#ajaxindicator').show(); $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); return false; }); }); function processJson(data) { $("#webmailForm").fadeOut("fast"); $("#messagebox").fadeIn("fast"); $("#messagebox").css({'background-image' : 'url(../images/messageboxbackgroundgreen.png)','border-color':'#009900','border-width':'1px','border-style':'solid'}); var forename=data.forename; var surname=data.surname; var directemail=data.directemail; var directphone=data.directphone; var dateofbirth=data.dateofbirth; var companyname=data.companyname; var fulladdress=data.fulladdress; var telephone=data.telephone; var fax=data.fax; var email=data.email; var website=data.website; var fsanumber=data.fsanumber; var membertype=data.membertype; var network=data.network; $("#messagebox").html('<h3>Registration Update successful!</h3>' + '<p><strong>Member Type:</strong> ' + membertype + '<br>' + '<strong>Forename:</strong> ' + forename + '<br><strong>Surname:</strong> ' + surname + '<br><strong>Direct E-mail:</strong> ' + directemail + '<br><strong>Direct Phone:</strong> ' + directphone + '<br><strong>Date of Birth:</strong> ' + dateofbirth + '<br><strong>Company:</strong> ' + companyname + '<br><strong>Address:</strong> ' + fulladdress + '<br><strong>Telephone:</strong> ' + telephone + '<br><strong>Fax:</strong> ' + fax + '<br><strong>E-mail:</strong> ' + email + '<br><strong>Website:</strong> ' + website + '<br><strong>FSA Number:</strong> ' + fsanumber + '<br><strong>Network:</strong> ' + network + '</p>'); $('#ajaxindicator').hide(); } function validatePassword(){ var clientpassword=$("#clientpassword").val(); var currentpassword=$("#currentpassword").val(); var currentpasswordmd5=hex_md5(currentpassword); if (currentpasswordmd5!=clientpassword){ $("#messagebox").html("You input the wrong current password, please try again."); $('#ajaxindicator').hide(); return false; } } I have a disabled textbox and some hidden ones. Could this be the problem?

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• gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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• Why is CDATA needed and not working everywhere the same way?

  - by baptx

  In Firefox's and Chrome's consoles, this works (alerts script content): var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = ( function test() { var a = 1; } ); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); Using this code as a Greasemonkey script for Firefox works too. Now, if want to add a "private method" do() to test() It is not working anymore, in neither Firefox/Chrome console nor in a Greasemonkey script: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = ( function test() { var a = 1; var do = function () { var b = 2; }; } ); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); To make this work in a Greasemonkey script, I have to put all the code in a CDATA tag block: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = (<![CDATA[ function test() { var a = 1; var do = function() { var b = 2; }; } ]]>); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); This is only works in a Greasemonkey script; it throws an error from the Firefox/Chrome console. I don't understand why I should use a CDATA tag, I have no XML rules to respect here because I'm not using XHTML. To make it work in Firefox console (or Firebug), I need to do put CDATA into tags like <> and </>: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = (<><![CDATA[ function test() { var a = 1; var do = function() { var b = 2; }; } ]]></>); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); This doesn't working from the Chrome console. I've tried adding .toString() at the end like many people are doing (]]></>).toString();), but it's useless. I tried to replace <> and </> with a tag name <foo> </foo> but that didn't work either. Why doesn't my first code snippet work if I define var do = function(){} inside another function? Why should I use CDATA as a workaround even if I'm not using XHTML? And why should I add <> </> for Firefox console if it's working without in a Greasemonkey script? Finally, what is the solution for Chrome and other browsers? EDIT: My bad, I've never used do-while in JS and I've created this example in a simple text editor, so I didn't see "do" was a reserved keyword :p But problem is still here, I've not initialized the Javascript class in my examples. With this new example, CDATA is needed for Greasemonkey, Firefox need CDATA between E4X <> </> and Chrome fails: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = ( <><![CDATA[var aClass = new aClass(); function aClass() { var a = 1; var aPrivateMethod = function() { var b = 2; alert(b); }; this.aPublicMethod = function() { var c = 3; alert(c); }; } aClass.aPublicMethod();]]></> ); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); Question: why?

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• Python 2.7 list of lists manipulation functionality

  - by user3688163

  I am trying to perform several operations on the myList list of lists below and am having some trouble figuring it out. I am very new to Python. myList = [ ['Issue Id','1.Completeness for OTC','Break',3275,33,33725102303,296384802,20140107], ['Issue Id','2.Validity check1 for OTC','Break',3308,0,34021487105,0,20140107], ['Issue Id','3.Validity check2 for OTC','Break',3308,0,34021487105,0,20140107], ['Issue Id','4.Completeness for RST','Break',73376,1,8.24931E+11,44690130,20140107], ['Issue Id','5.Validity check1 for RST','Break',73377,0,8.24976E+11,0,20140107], ['Liquidity','1. OTC - Null','Break',7821 0,2.28291E+11,0,20140110], ['Liquidity','2. OTC - Unmapped','Break',7778,43,2.27712E+11,579021732.8,20140110], ['Liquidity','3. RST - Null','Break',335120,0,1.01425E+12,0,20140110], ['Liquidity','4. RST - Unmapped','Break',334608,512,1.01351E+12,735465433.1,20140110], ['Liquidity','5. RST - Valid','Break',335120,0,1.01425E+12,0,20140110], ['Issue Id','1.Completeness for OTC','Break',3292,33,32397924450,306203929,20140110], ['Issue Id','2.Validity check1 for OTC','Break',3325,0,32704128379,0,20140110], ['Issue Id','3.Validity check2 for OTC','Break',3325,0,32704128379,0,20140110], ['Issue Id','4.Completeness for RST','Break',73594,3,8.5352E+11,69614602,20140110], ['Issue Id','5.Validity check1 for RST','Break',73597,0,8.5359E+11,0,20140110], ['Unlinked Silver ID','DQ','Break',3201318,176,20000000,54974.33386,20140101], ['Missing GCI','DQ','Break',3201336,158,68000000,49351.9588,20140101], ['Missing Book','DQ Break',3192720,8774,3001000000,2740595.484,20140101], ['Matured Trades','DQ','Break',3201006,488,1371000000,152428.8348,20140101], ['Illiquid Trades','1.Completeness Check for range','Break',43122,47,88597695671,54399061.43,20140107], ['Illiquid Trades','2.Completeness Check for non','Break',39033,0,79133622401,0,20140107] ] I am trying to get the result below but do not know how to do so: newList = [ ['Issue Id','1.Completeness for OTC:2.Validity check1 for OTC:3.Validity check2 for OTC','Break',3275,33,33725102303,296384802,20140107], ['Issue Id','4.Completeness for RST:5.Validity check1 for RST','Break',73376,1,8.24931E+11,44690130,20140107], ['Liquidity','1. OTC - Null','Break:2. OTC - Unmapped','Break',7821 0,2.28291E+11,0,20140110], ['Liquidity','3. RST - Null:4. RST - Unmapped:5. RST - Valid','Break',335120,0,1.01425E+12,0,20140110], ['Issue Id','1.Completeness for OTC:2.Validity check1 for OTC:3.Validity check2 for OTC','Break',3292,33,32397924450,306203929,20140110], ['Issue Id','4.Completeness for RST:5. RST - Valid','Break',73594,3,8.5352E+11,69614602,20140110], ['Unlinked Silver ID','DQ','Break',3201318,176,20000000,54974.33386,20140101], ['Missing GCI','DQ','Break',3201336,158,68000000,49351.9588,20140101], ['Missing Book','DQ Break',3192720,8774,3001000000,2740595.484,20140101], ['Matured Trades','DQ','Break',3201006,488,1371000000,152428.8348,20140101], ['Illiquid Trades','1.Completeness Check for range','Break',43122,47,88597695671,54399061.43,20140107], ['Illiquid Trades','2.Completeness Check for non','Break',39033,0,79133622401,0,20140107] ] Rules to create newList. Create a new list in the newList list of lists if the values in the lists meet the following conditions: multiple lists that match on `myList[i][0]` and `myList[i][7]` but with have (1) sums of `myList[i][3]` and `myList[i][4]` and (2) sums of `myList[i][5]` and `myList[i][6]` that are different from each other are just listed as is in newList if multiple lists match on both `myList[i][0]` (this is the type) and `myList[i][7]` (this is the date) are the same then create a new list for each set of lists with mathcing `myList[i][0]` and `myList[i][7]` that have (1) sums of `myList[i][3]` and `myList[i][4]` and (2) sums of `myList[i][5]` and `myList[i][6]` that are different from the other lists with mathcing `myList[i][0]` and `myList[i][7]`. I also am trying to concatenate `myList[i][1]` separated by a ':' for all those lists with matching `myList[i][0]` and `myList[i][7]` and with sums of `myList[i][3]` + `myList[i][4]` and `myList[i][5]` + `myList[i][6]` that match. So essentially for this case only those lists in `myList` with sums of `myList[i][3]` + `myList[i][4]` and `myList[i][5]` + `myList[i][6]` are different from the other lists are then listed in newList. The above newList illustrates these results I am trying to achieve. If anyone has any ideas how to do this they would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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• .Net Remote Log Querying

  - by jlafay

  I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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• Make interchangeable class types via pointer casting only, without having to allocate any new objects?

  - by HostileFork

  UPDATE: I do appreciate "don't want that, want this instead" suggestions. They are useful, especially when provided in context of the motivating scenario. Still...regardless of goodness/badness, I've become curious to find a hard-and-fast "yes that can be done legally in C++11" vs "no it is not possible to do something like that". I want to "alias" an object pointer as another type, for the sole purpose of adding some helper methods. The alias cannot add data members to the underlying class (in fact, the more I can prevent that from happening the better!) All aliases are equally applicable to any object of this type...it's just helpful if the type system can hint which alias is likely the most appropriate. There should be no information about any specific alias that is ever encoded in the underlying object. Hence, I feel like you should be able to "cheat" the type system and just let it be an annotation...checked at compile time, but ultimately irrelevant to the runtime casting. Something along these lines: Node<AccessorFoo>* fooPtr = Node<AccessorFoo>::createViaFactory(); Node<AccessorBar>* barPtr = reinterpret_cast< Node<AccessorBar>* >(fooPtr); Under the hood, the factory method is actually making a NodeBase class, and then using a similar reinterpret_cast to return it as a Node<AccessorFoo>*. The easy way to avoid this is to make these lightweight classes that wrap nodes and are passed around by value. Thus you don't need casting, just Accessor classes that take the node handle to wrap in their constructor: AccessorFoo foo (NodeBase::createViaFactory()); AccessorBar bar (foo.getNode()); But if I don't have to pay for all that, I don't want to. That would involve--for instance--making a special accessor type for each sort of wrapped pointer (AccessorFooShared, AccessorFooUnique, AccessorFooWeak, etc.) Having these typed pointers being aliased for one single pointer-based object identity is preferable, and provides a nice orthogonality. So back to that original question: Node<AccessorFoo>* fooPtr = Node<AccessorFoo>::createViaFactory(); Node<AccessorBar>* barPtr = reinterpret_cast< Node<AccessorBar>* >(fooPtr); Seems like there would be some way to do this that might be ugly but not "break the rules". According to ISO14882:2011(e) 5.2.10-7: An object pointer can be explicitly converted to an object pointer of a different type.70 When a prvalue v of type "pointer to T1" is converted to the type "pointer to cv T2", the result is static_cast(static_cast(v)) if both T1 and T2 are standard-layout types (3.9) and the alignment requirements of T2 are no stricter than those of T1, or if either type is void. Converting a prvalue of type "pointer to T1" to the type "pointer to T2" (where T1 and T2 are object types and where the alignment requirements of T2 are no stricter than those of T1) and back to its original type yields the original pointer value. The result of any other such pointer conversion is unspecified. Drilling into the definition of a "standard-layout class", we find: has no non-static data members of type non-standard-layout-class (or array of such types) or reference, and has no virtual functions (10.3) and no virtual base classes (10.1), and has the same access control (clause 11) for all non-static data members, and has no non-standard-layout base classes, and either has no non-static data member in the most-derived class and at most one base class with non-static data members, or has no base classes with non-static data members, and has no base classes of the same type as the first non-static data member. Sounds like working with something like this would tie my hands a bit with no virtual methods in the accessors or the node. Yet C++11 apparently has std::is_standard_layout to keep things checked. Can this be done safely? Appears to work in gcc-4.7, but I'd like to be sure I'm not invoking undefined behavior.

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• client-side validation in custom validation attribute - asp.net mvc 4

  - by Giorgos Manoltzas

  I have followed some articles and tutorials over the internet in order to create a custom validation attribute that also supports client-side validation in an asp.net mvc 4 website. This is what i have until now: RequiredIfAttribute.cs [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true)] //Added public class RequiredIfAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private readonly string condition; private string propertyName; //Added public RequiredIfAttribute(string condition) { this.condition = condition; this.propertyName = propertyName; //Added } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { PropertyInfo propertyInfo = validationContext.ObjectType.GetProperty(this.propertyName); //Added Delegate conditionFunction = CreateExpression(validationContext.ObjectType, _condition); bool conditionMet = (bool)conditionFunction.DynamicInvoke(validationContext.ObjectInstance); if (conditionMet) { if (value == null) { return new ValidationResult(FormatErrorMessage(null)); } } return ValidationResult.Success; } private Delegate CreateExpression(Type objectType, string expression) { LambdaExpression lambdaExpression = System.Linq.Dynamic.DynamicExpression.ParseLambda(objectType, typeof(bool), expression); //Added Delegate function = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return function; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var modelClientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule { ValidationType = "requiredif", ErrorMessage = ErrorMessage //Added }; modelClientValidationRule.ValidationParameters.Add("param", this.propertyName); //Added return new List<ModelClientValidationRule> { modelClientValidationRule }; } } Then i applied this attribute in a property of a class like this [RequiredIf("InAppPurchase == true", "InAppPurchase", ErrorMessage = "Please enter an in app purchase promotional price")] //Added "InAppPurchase" public string InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice { get; set; } public bool InAppPurchase { get; set; } So what i want to do is display an error message that field InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice is required when InAppPurchase field is true (that means checked in the form). The following is the relevant code form the view: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="InAppPurchase">Does your app include In App Purchase?</label> <div class="controls"> @Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.InAppPurchase) @Html.LabelFor(o => o.InAppPurchase, "Yes") </div> </div> <div class="control-group" id="InAppPurchasePromotionalPriceDiv" @(Model.InAppPurchase == true ? Html.Raw("style='display: block;'") : Html.Raw("style='display: none;'"))> <label class="control-label" for="InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice">App Friday Promotional Price for In App Purchase: </label> <div class="controls"> @Html.TextBoxFor(o => o.InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice, new { title = "This should be at the lowest price tier of free or $.99, just for your App Friday date." }) <span class="help-inline"> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(o => o.InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice) </span> </div> </div> This code works perfectly but when i submit the form a full post is requested on the server in order to display the message. So i created JavaScript code to enable client-side validation: requiredif.js (function ($) { $.validator.addMethod('requiredif', function (value, element, params) { /*var inAppPurchase = $('#InAppPurchase').is(':checked'); if (inAppPurchase) { return true; } return false;*/ var isChecked = $(param).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { return false; } return true; }, ''); $.validator.unobtrusive.adapters.add('requiredif', ['param'], function (options) { options.rules["requiredif"] = '#' + options.params.param; options.messages['requiredif'] = options.message; }); })(jQuery); This is the proposed way in msdn and tutorials i have found Of course i have also inserted the needed scripts in the form: jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.min.js jquery.validate.min.js jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js requiredif.js BUT...client side validation still does not work. So could you please help me find what am i missing? Thanks in advance.

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• jQuery Validation in ASP.NET

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i have a strange situation may its a easy fix or something i may be missing but here is the question. i have a asp.net form with master page and my validation works great without any problem but the problems starts when i try to hook my click event to the server side, here is what i meant: i have a form with few fields on it and if the form is empty than it should STOP submitting, otherwise allow me to execute the server side script but its not happening, even my form is in invalid state (i do get error message saying i have to enter the required fileds) but still executing my server side script. i would like to execute my server side script only if the form is in valid state. here is my code: my master page <%@ Master Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="MasterPage.master.cs" Inherits="MasterPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>jQuery Validation in ASP.NET Master Page</title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2-vsdoc2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="head" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder id="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> my content page: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" Runat="Server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" Runat="Server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtName.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 2, required: true }, <%=txtEmail.UniqueID %>: { required: true, email:true } }, messages: { <%=txtName.UniqueID %>:{ required: "* Required Field *", minlength: "* Please enter atleast 2 characters *" } } }); }); </script> Name: <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" MaxLength="30" runat="server" /><br /> Email: <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmail" runat="server"></asp:TextBox><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" onclick="SubmitTheForm();" Text="Submit" /> </asp:Content> function SubmitTheForm() { SaveTheForm(); } function SaveTheForm() { debugger; var request = buildNewContactRequest(); ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "PostNewContact", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; }

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• Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

  - by Doug Chamberlain

  Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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• Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

  - by Scott Ivey

  I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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• Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

  - by abszero

  I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

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• Termite colony simulator using java

  - by ashii

  hi everyone, i hve to design a simulator that will maintain an environment, which consists of a collection of patches arranged in a rectangular grid of arbitrary size. Each patch contains zero or more wood chips. A patch may be occupied by one or more termites or predators, which are mobile entities that live within the world and behave according to simple rules. A TERMITE can pick up a wood chip from the patch that it is currently on, or drop a wood chip that it is carrying. Termites travel around the grid by moving randomly from their current patch to a neighbouring patch, in one of four possible directions. New termites may hatch from eggs, and this is simulated by the appearance of a new termite at a random patch within the environment. A PREDATOR moves in a similar way to termites, and if a predator moves onto a patch that is occupied by a termite, then the predator eats the termite. At initialization, the termites, predators, and wood chips are distributed randomly in the environment. Simulation then proceeds in a loop, and the new state of the environment is obtained at each iteration. i have designed the arena using jpanel but im not able to randomnly place wood,termite and predator in that arena. can any one help me out?? my code for the arena is as following: 01 import java.awt.*; 02 import javax.swing.*; 03 04 public class Arena extends JPanel 05 { 06 private static final int Rows = 8; 07 private static final int Cols = 8; 08 public void paint(Graphics g) 09 { 10 Dimension d = this.getSize(); 11 // don't draw both sets of squares, when you can draw one 12 // fill in the entire thing with one color 13 g.setColor(Color.WHITE); 14 // make the background 15 g.fillRect(0,0,d.width,d.height); 16 // draw only black 17 g.setColor(Color.BLACK); 18 // pick a square size based on the smallest dimension 19 int sqsize = ((d.width<d.height) ? d.width/Cols : d.height/Rows); 20 // loop for rows 21 for (int row=0; row<Rows; row++) 22 { 23 int y = row*sqsize; // y stays same for entire row, set here 24 int x = (row%2)*sqsize; // x starts at 0 or one square in 25 for (int i=0; i<Cols/2; i++) 26 { 27 // you will only be drawing half the squares per row 28 // draw square 29 g.fillRect(x,y,sqsize,sqsize); 30 // move two square sizes over 31 x += sqsize*2; 32 } 33 } 34 35 } 36 37 38 39 public void update(Graphics g) { paint(g); } 40 41 42 43 public static void main (String[] args) 44 { 45 46 JFrame frame = new JFrame("Arena"); 47 frame.setSize(600,400); 48 frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); 49 frame.setContentPane(new Arena()); 50 frame.setVisible(true); 51 } 52 53 }

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• Tab Bar and Nav Controller: Where did I go wrong in my Interface Builder wiring?

  - by editor

  Even if you don't know how I've shot myself in the foot, a story which I've tried to lay out below, if you think I've done a good job showing the parameters of my problem I'd appreciate an upvote so that I might be able to grab some attention for my question. I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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• Generating Unordered List with PHP + CodeIgniter from a MySQL Database

  - by Tim

  Hello Everyone, I am trying to build a dynamically generated unordered list in the following format using PHP. I am using CodeIgniter but it can just be normal php. This is the end output I need to achieve. <ul id="categories" class="menu"> <li rel="1"> Arts &amp; Humanities <ul> <li rel="2"> Photography <ul> <li rel="3"> 3D </li> <li rel="4"> Digital </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="5"> History </li> <li rel="6"> Literature </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="7"> Business &amp; Economy </li> <li rel="8"> Computers &amp; Internet </li> <li rel="9"> Education </li> <li rel="11"> Entertainment <ul> <li rel="12"> Movies </li> <li rel="13"> TV Shows </li> <li rel="14"> Music </li> <li rel="15"> Humor </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="10"> Health </li> And here is my SQL that I have to work with. -- -- Table structure for table `categories` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `categories` ( `id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL auto_increment, `dd_id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL, `parent_id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL, `cat_name` varchar(256) NOT NULL, `cat_order` smallint(4) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; So I know that I am going to need at least 1 foreach loop to generate the first level of categories. What I don't know is how to iterate inside each loop and check for parents and do that in a dynamic way so that there could be an endless tree of children. Thanks for any help you can offer. Tim

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• jquery mouse events masked by img in IE8 - all other platforms/browsers work fine

  - by Bruce

  Using the jQuery mouse events for mouseenter, mouseleave or hover all work swimmingly on all Mac or Windows browsers except for IE8/Windows. I am using mouseenter and mouseleave to test for hot rectangles (absolutely positioned and dimensioned divs that have no content) over an image used as hotspots to make visible the navigation buttons when different regions of the main enclosing rectangle (image) are touched by the cursor. Windows/IE jQuery never sends notifications (mouseenter our mouseleave) as the cursor enters or exits one of the target divs. If I turn off the visibility of the image everything works as expected (like it does in every other browser), so the image is effectively blocking all messages (the intention was for the image to be a background and all the divs float above it, where they can be clicked on). I understand that there's a z-index gotcha (so explicitly specifying z-index for each absolute positioned div does not work), but unclear as to how to nest or order multiple divs to allow a single set of jQuery rules to support all browsers. The image tag seems to trump all other divs and always appear in front of them... BTW: I could not use i m g as a tag in this text so it is spelled image in the following, so the input editor does not think that I am trying to pull a fast one on stackoverflow... How used? "mainview" is the background image, "zoneleft" and "zoneright" are the active areas where when the cursor enters the nav buttons "leftarrow" and rightarrow" are supposed to appear. Javascript $("div#zoneleft").bind("mouseenter",function () // enters left zone see left arrow { arrowVisibility("left"); document.getElementById("leftarrow").style.display="block"; }).bind("mouseleave",function () { document.getElementById("leftarrow").style.visibility="hidden"; document.getElementById("rightarrow").style.visibility="hidden"; }); HTML <div id="zoneleft" style="position:absolute; top:44px; left:0px; width:355px; height:372px; z-index:40;"> <div id="leftarrow" style="position:absolute; top:158px; left:0px; z-index:50;"><img src="images/newleft.png" width="59" height="56"/></div></div> <div id="zoneright" style="position:absolute; top:44px; left:355px; width:355px; height:372px; z-index:40;"> <div id="rightarrow" style="position:absolute; top:158px; left:296px; z-index:50;"> (tag named changed so that I could include it here) <image src="images/newright.png" width="59" height="56" /></div></div> </div><!-- navbuttons --> <image id="mainview" style="z-index:-1;" src="images/projectPhotos/photo1.jpg" width:710px; height:372px; /> (tag named changed so that I could include it here) </div><!--photo-->

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• OpenVPN IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel

  - by user66779

  Today I installed OpenVPN 2.3rc2 on both my windows 7 client machine and centos 6 server. This new version of OpenVPN provides full compatibility for IPv6. The Problem: I am currently able to connect to the server (through the IPv4 tunnel) and ping the IPv6 address which is assigned to my client and I can also ping the tun0 interface on the server. However, I cannot browse to any IPv6 websites. My vps provider has given me this: 2607:f840:0044:0022:0000:0000:0000:0000/64 is routed to this server (2607:f840:0:3f:0:0:0:eda). This is ifconfig after setup with OpenVPN running: eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:16:3E:12:77:54 inet addr:208.111.39.160 Bcast:208.111.39.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: 2607:f740:0:3f::eda/64 Scope:Global inet6 addr: fe80::216:3eff:fe12:7754/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:2317253 errors:0 dropped:7263 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:1977414 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:1696120096 (1.5 GiB) TX bytes:1735352992 (1.6 GiB) Interrupt:29 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 b) TX bytes:0 (0.0 b) tun0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:10.8.0.1 P-t-P:10.8.0.2 Mask:255.255.255.255 inet6 addr: 2607:f740:44:22::1/64 Scope:Global UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:739567 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:1218240 errors:0 dropped:1542 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:100 RX bytes:46512557 (44.3 MiB) TX bytes:1559930874 (1.4 GiB) So OpenVPN is sucessfully creating a tun0 interface and assigning clients IPv6 addresses using 2607:f840:44:22::/64. The first client to connect is getting 2607:f840:44:22::1000 and the second 2607:f840:44:22::1001, and so on... plus 1 each time. After connecting as the first client, I can ping from my windows client machine 2607:f740:44:22::1 and 2607:f740:44:22::1000. However, I have no access to IPv6 websites. I believe the problem is that the tun0 IPv6 addressees are not being forwarded to the eth0 interface. This is the firewall running on the server: #!/bin/sh # # iptables configuration script # # Flush all current rules from iptables # iptables -F iptables -t nat -F # # Allow SSH connections on tcp port 22 # iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 22 -j ACCEPT # # Set access for localhost # iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # # Accept connections on 1195 for vpn access from client # iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p udp --dport 1195 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p udp --sport 1195 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # # Apply forwarding for OpenVPN Tunneling # iptables -A FORWARD -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -s 10.8.0.0/24 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j SNAT --to 209.111.39.160 iptables -A FORWARD -j REJECT # # Enable forwarding # echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward # # Set default policies for INPUT, FORWARD and OUTPUT chains # iptables -P INPUT ACCEPT iptables -P FORWARD ACCEPT iptables -P OUTPUT ACCEPT # # IPv6 # IP6TABLES=/sbin/ip6tables $IP6TABLES -F INPUT $IP6TABLES -F FORWARD $IP6TABLES -F OUTPUT echo -n "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/forwarding echo -n "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/proxy_ndp echo -n "0" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/autoconf echo -n "0" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/accept_ra $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -p icmpv6 -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P INPUT ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P FORWARD ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P OUTPUT ACCEPT Server.conf: server-ipv6 2607:f840:44:22::/64 server 10.8.0.0 255.255.255.0 port 1195 proto udp dev tun ca ca.crt cert server.crt key server.key dh dh2048.pem ifconfig-pool-persist ipp.txt push "redirect-gateway def1 bypass-dhcp" push "dhcp-option DNS 208.67.222.222" push "dhcp-option DNS 208.67.220.220" keepalive 10 60 tls-auth ta.key 0 cipher AES-256-CBC comp-lzo user nobody group nobody persist-key persist-tun status openvpn-status.log log-append openvpn.log verb 5 Client.conf: client dev tun nobind keepalive 10 60 hand-window 15 remote 209.111.39.160 1195 udp persist-key persist-tun ca ca.crt key client1.key cert client1.crt remote-cert-tls server tls-auth ta.key 1 comp-lzo verb 3 cipher AES-256-CBC I'm not sure where I am going wrong, it could be the firewall, or something missing from server or client.conf. This version of OpenVPN was only released yesterday, and there's little info on the internet about how to setup an IPv6 over IPv4 vpn tunnel. I've read the manual for this new version of OpenVPN (parts pertaining to IPv6) and it provides very little info too. Thanks for any help.

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• Display problem after deletion in linked list in C

  - by LuckySlevin

  Hi, actually this was another problem but it changed so I decided to open a new question. My code is typedef struct inner_list { int count; char word[100]; inner_list*next; } inner_list; typedef struct outer_list { char word [100]; inner_list * head; int count; outer_list * next; } outer_list; void delnode(outer_list **head,char num[100])//thanks to both Nir Levy and Jeremy P. { outer_list *temp, *m; m=temp=*head; /*FIX #1*/ while(temp!=NULL) { if(strcmp(temp->word,num)==0) { if(temp==*head) { delinner(temp->head); /* FIX#2 */ *head=temp->next; free(temp); return; } else { delinner(temp->head); /* FIX#2 */ m->next=temp->next; free(temp); return; } } else { m=temp; temp= temp->next; } } printf(" ELEMENT %s NOT FOUND ", num); } void delinner(inner_list *head) { /* FIX#2 */ inner_list *temp; temp=head; while(temp!=NULL) { head=temp->next; free(temp); temp=head; } } void delnode2(outer_list *up,inner_list **head,char num[100]) { inner_list *temp2,*temp, *m; outer_list *p; p = up; while(p!=NULL){m=temp=temp2=p->head; while(temp!=NULL) { if(strcmp(temp->word,num)==0) { if(temp==(*head)) { *head=temp->next; free(temp); return; } else { m->next=temp->next; free(temp); return; } } else { m=temp; temp= temp->next; } } p=p->next; } printf(" ELEMENT %s NOT FOUND ", num); } void print_node(outer_list *parent_node) { while(parent_node!=NULL){ printf("%s\t%d\t", parent_node->word, parent_node->count); inner_list *child_node = parent_node->head; printf("list: "); if(child_node ==NULL){printf("BUARADA");} while (child_node != NULL) { printf("%s-%d", child_node->word,child_node->count); child_node = child_node->next; if (child_node != NULL) { printf("->"); } } printf("\n"); parent_node = parent_node->next; } } While deleting an element from outer list I am also trying the delete the same element from inner_list too. For example: - Let's say aaa is an element of outer_list linked list and let's point it with outer_list *p - This aaa can also be in an inner_list linked list too. (it can be in p-head or another innerlist.) Now, the tricky part again. I tried to apply the same rules with outer_list deletion but whenever i delete the head element of inner_list it gives an error. Where is the wrong thing in print_node or delnode2?

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• Strange Java Socket Behavior (Connects, but Doesn't Send)

  - by Donald Campbell

  I have a fairly complex project that boils down to a simple Client / Server communicating through object streams. Everything works flawlessly for two consecutive connections (I connect once, work, disconnect, then connect again, work, and disconnect). The client connects, does its business, and then closes. The server successfully closes both the object output stream and the socket, with no IO errors. When I try to connect a third time, the connection appears to go through (the ServerSocket.accept() method goes through and an ObjectOutputStream is successfully created). No data is passed, however. The inputStream.readUnshared() method simply blocks. I have taken the following memory precautions: When it comes time to close the sockets, all running threads are stopped, and all objects are nulled out. After every writeUnshared() method call, the ObjectOutputBuffer is flushed and reset. Has anyone encountered a similar problem, or does anyone have any suggestions? I'm afraid my project is rather large, and so copying code is problematic. The project boils down to this: SERVER MAIN ServerSocket serverSocket = new ServerSocket(port); while (true) { new WorkThread(serverSocket.accept()).start(); } WORK THREAD (SERVER) public void run() { ObjectInputBuffer inputBuffer = new ObjectInputBuffer(new BufferedInputStream(socket.getInputStream())); while (running) { try { Object myObject = inputBuffer.readUnshared(); // do work is not specified in this sample doWork(myObject); } catch (IOException e) { running = false; } } try { inputBuffer.close(); socket.close(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Could not close."); } } CLIENT public Client() { Object myObject; Socket mySocket = new Socket(address, port); try { ObjectOutputBuffer output = new ObjectOutputBuffer(new BufferedOutputStream(mySocket.getOutputStream())); output.reset(); output.flush(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Could not get an input."); mySocket.close(); return; } // get object data is not specified in this sample. it simply returns a serializable object myObject = getObjectData(); while (myObject != null) { try { output.writeUnshared(myObject); output.reset(); output.flush(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); break; } // catch } // while try { output.close(); socket.close(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Could not close."); } } Thank you to everyone who may be able to help!

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• Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

  - by Akash Kava

  Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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