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  • Simple Select Statement on MySQL Database Hanging

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a very simple sql select statement on a very large table, that is non-normalized. (Not my design at all, I'm just trying to optimize while simultaneously trying to convince the owners of a redesign) Basically, the statement is like this: SELECT FirstName, LastName, FullName, State FROM Activity Where (FirstName=@name OR LastName=@name OR FullName=@name) AND State=@state; Now, FirstName, LastName, FullName and State are all indexed as BTrees, but without prefix - the whole column is indexed. State column is a 2 letter state code. What I'm finding is this: When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = '%' the search is really fast and yields results immediately. When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = 'FL' the search takes 5 minutes (and usually this means the web service times out...) When I remove the FirstName and LastName comparisons, and only use the FullName and State, both cases above work very quickly. When I replace FirstName, LastName, FullName, and State searches, but use LIKE for each search, it works fast for @name='John Smith%' and @state='%', but slow for @name='John Smith%' and @state='FL' When I search against 'John Sm%' and @state='FL' the search finds results immediately When I search against 'John Smi%' and @state='FL' the search takes 5 minutes. Now, just to reiterate - the table is not normalized. The John Smith appears many many times, as do many other users, because there is no reference to some form of users/people table. I'm not sure how many times a single user may appear, but the table itself has 90 Million records. Again, not my design... What I'm wondering is - though there are many many problems with this design, what is causing this specific problem. My guess is that the index trees are just too large that it just takes a very long time traversing the them. (FirstName, LastName, FullName) Anyway, I appreciate anyone's help with this. Like I said, I'm working on convincing them of a redesign, but in the meantime, if I someone could help me figure out what the exact problem is, that'd be fantastic.

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  • Why won't .attr('checked','checked') set?

    - by Jason
    I have the following snippet of code (I'm using jQuery 1.4.2): $.post('/Ads/GetAdStatsRow/', { 'ad_id': id }, function(result) { $('#edit_ads_form tbody').prepend(result); $(result).find('td.select-ad input').attr('checked','checked').click(); }); Assume that the post works correctly and returns a correct pre-built <tr> with some <td>s. Here's the weirdness: the $(result).find() line finds the correct input (which is a checkbox, as it's the only input in the cell) and runs the chained click() function correctly, but it REFUSES to set the box as checked, which I need to happen. Here's a crazy twist, too... when I get super specific and change the $(result).find() line to this (the id of the checkbox): $('#ad_' + id).click(); It checks the box, but doesn't run the click() function! If I set it to $('#ad_' + id).attr('checked','checked').click(); it runs the click function as though the box were checked, but the box remains unchecked, and if I do $('#ad_' + id).click().attr('checked','checked'); it does nothing at all. What in the world could be the matter with this? I'm running out of hair.... Thanks!

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  • Machine Learning Algorithm for Predicting Order of Events?

    - by user213060
    Simple machine learning question. Probably numerous ways to solve this: There is an infinite stream of 4 possible events: 'event_1', 'event_2', 'event_4', 'event_4' The events do not come in in completely random order. We will assume that there are some complex patterns to the order that most events come in, and the rest of the events are just random. We do not know the patterns ahead of time though. After each event is received, I want to predict what the next event will be based on the order that events have come in in the past. The predictor will then be told what the next event actually was: Predictor=new_predictor() prev_event=False while True: event=get_event() if prev_event is not False: Predictor.last_event_was(prev_event) predicted_event=Predictor.predict_next_event(event) The question arises of how long of a history that the predictor should maintain, since maintaining infinite history will not be possible. I'll leave this up to you to answer. The answer can't be infinte though for practicality. So I believe that the predictions will have to be done with some kind of rolling history. Adding a new event and expiring an old event should therefore be rather efficient, and not require rebuilding the entire predictor model, for example. Specific code, instead of research papers, would add for me immense value to your responses. Python or C libraries are nice, but anything will do. Thanks! Update: And what if more than one event can happen simultaneously on each round. Does that change the solution?

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  • Problem with sitecore home page

    - by Mirage
    hi guys i am new to site core and asp.net and iis. I have installed all on my server 2008. When i got to /localhost/sitecore/Website/sitecore. i get following error. Can anyone help me what is this and what should i need to do Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. Source Error: Line 2575: <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> Line 2576: </httpHandlers> Line 2577: <membership defaultProvider="sitecore"> -- this line shows errr Line 2578: <providers> Line 2579: <clear />

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  • Reliable strtotime() result for different languages

    - by Maksee
    There was always a strange bug in Joomla when adding new article with back-end displayed with a language other than English (for me it's Russian). The field "Finish Publishing" started to be current date instead of "Never" equivalent in Russian. For a site in php4 finally found that strtotime function returns different results for arbitrary words. For "Never" it always -1 and joomla relies on this result in the JDate implementation. But in other case it sometimes returns a valid date. For russian translation of Never (???????) it is the case, but also for single "N" it is the case, so if one decided to change the string to some other he or she would face the same issue. So the code below <?php echo "Res:".strtotime("N")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Nev")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Neve")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Never")."<br>"; ?> Outputs: Res:1271120400 Res:-1 Res:-1 Res:-1 So what are the solutions would be in this case? I would like not to write language-specific date.php handler, but to modify date method of JDate class, but what are language-neutral changes would be in order to detect invalid string. Thank you

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  • PostgreSQL: Auto-partition a table

    - by Adam Matan
    Hi, I have a huge database which holds pairs of numbers (A,B), each ranging from 0 to 10,000 and stored as floats. e.g., (1, 9984.4), (2143.44, 124.243), (0.55, 0), ... Since the PostgreSQL table which stores these pairs grew quite large, I have decided to partition it into inheriting sub-tables. I intend to create 100 such tables, each storing a range of 1000x1000. The problem is that these numbers tend to come in large chunks of nearby numbers. It means that in the future, some tables will be nearly empty and some will hold a very large portion of the database. Unfortunately, the distribution of future pairs is yet unknown. I am looking for a way to automatically repartition my table. That means that if a certain subtable holds more than a specific number of pairs, it will be automatically partitioned into four sub-sub tables, and so on. My questions are: Is recursive partitioning and inheritance possible in PostgreSQL 8.3? Will indexes and query plans understand it? What's the best way to split a subtable once it grew too large? I should point out that this isn't a live database, so a downtime of few hours every week is totally acceptable. Thanks in advance, Adam

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  • realloc() & ARC

    - by RynoB
    How would I be able to rewrite the the following utility class to get all the class string values for a specific type - using the objective-c runtime functions as shown below? The ARC documentation specifically states that realloc should be avoided and I also get the following compiler error on this this line: classList = realloc(classList, sizeof(Class) * numClasses); "Implicit conversion of a non-Objective-C pointer type 'void *' to '__unsafe_unretained Class *' is disallowed with ARC" The the below code is a reference to the original article which can be found here. + (NSArray *)classStringsForClassesOfType:(Class)filterType { int numClasses = 0, newNumClasses = objc_getClassList(NULL, 0); Class *classList = NULL; while (numClasses < newNumClasses) { numClasses = newNumClasses; classList = realloc(classList, sizeof(Class) * numClasses); newNumClasses = objc_getClassList(classList, numClasses); } NSMutableArray *classesArray = [NSMutableArray array]; for (int i = 0; i < numClasses; i++) { Class superClass = classList[i]; do { superClass = class_getSuperclass(superClass); if (superClass == filterType) { [classesArray addObject:NSStringFromClass(classList[i])]; break; } } while (superClass); } free(classList); return classesArray; } Your help will be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • vlad the deployer: why do I need a scm folder?

    - by egarcia
    I'm learning to use vlad the deployer and I've got a question. Since I'm still learning I don't know what is pertinent to the question and what isn't, so please bear with me if I'm a little verbose. I've got 2 environments for a new application (test and production) besides my development machine. I've figured out this way to do the initial setup in my vlad.rake: namespace :test task :set set :domain, 'test.myserver.com' end end namespace :production task :set set :domain, 'www.myserver.com' end end This way I can have environment-specific stuff inside the namespaces, and still have shared tasks. For example, this would be the initial setup for test: rake vlad:test:set vlad:setup vlad:update This creates the following folders on my test server: releases/ scm/ shared/ current -> symlink to last release (inside the releases folder) My question is: what's the point of the scm folder? Every time I do vlad:update, the following happens: svn checkout on the scm/ folder above svn export on the /releases/{date} folder update current symlink So scm is a copy of my repository... but then there's an "export" copy of the repository on /releases/{date}. And that is the one used by the application... scm doesn't seem to be used by anyone? Wouldn't I be just fine without the scm folder?

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  • Drag-n-Drop on contentEditable elements

    - by Raybiez
    There are numerous WYSIWYG editors available on the internet, but I'm yet to find one that implements some form of drag-n-drop implementation. It is easy to create one's own editor, but I want to the user to be able to drag elements (ie. tokens) from outside the editable area and have them drop it at a location of their choice inside the editable area. It is easy to inject html at a specific location of an editable element, but how do one determine where the caret should be when the user is dragging a DIV over some element in the editable area. To better illustrate what I'm trying to explain, see the following scenario. The editable area (either an IFRAME in edit mode or a DIV with its contentEditable attribute set to true) already contains the following text: "Dear , please take note of ...." The user now drags an element representing some token from a list of elements, over the editable area, moving the cursor over the text until the caret appear just before the comma (,) in the text as shown above. When the user releases the mouse button at that location, HTML will be injected which could result in something like this: "Dear {UserFirstName}, please take note of ...". I do not know if anyone has ever done anything similar to this, or at least know of how one would go about doing this using JavaScript. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Optimal Serialization of Primitive Types

    - by Greg Dean
    We are beginning to roll out more and more WAN deployments of our product (.Net fat client w/ IIS hosted Remoting backend). Because of this we are trying to reduce the size of the data on the wire. We have overridden the default serialization by implementing ISerializable (similar to this), we are seeing anywhere from 12% to 50% gains. Most of our efforts focus on optimizing arrays of primitive types. I would like to know if anyone knows of any fancy way of serializing primitive types, beyond the obvious? For example today we serialize an array of ints as follows: [4-bytes (array length)][4-bytes][4-bytes] Can anyone do significantly better? The most obvious example of a significant improvement, for boolean arrays, is putting 8 bools in each byte, which we already do. Note: Saving 7 bits per bool may seem like a waste of time, but when you are dealing with large magnitudes of data (which we are), it adds up very fast. Note: We want to avoid general compression algorithms because of the latency associated with it. Remoting only supports buffered requests/responses(no chunked encoding). I realize there is a fine line between compression and optimal serialization, but our tests indicate we can afford very specific serialization optimizations at very little cost in latency. Whereas reprocessing the entire buffered response into new compressed buffer is too expensive.

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  • IIS, Web services, Time out error

    - by Eduard
    Hello, We’ve got problem with ASP.NET web application that uses web services of other system. I’ll describe our system architecture: we have web application and Windows services that uses the same web services. - Windows service works all the time and sends information to these web services once an hour. - Web application is designed for users to send the same information in manual behavior. The problem is when user sometimes tries to send information in manual behavior in the web application, .NET throws exception „The operation has timed out” (web?). At that time Windows service successfully sends all necessary information to these web services. IT stuff that supports these web services asserts that there was no any request from our web application at that time. Then we have restarted IIS (iisreset) and everything has started to work fine. This situation repeats all the time. There is no anti-virus or firewall on the server. My suggestion is that there is something wrong with IIS, patches, configuration or whatever? The only specific thing is that there are requests that can least 2 minutes (web service response wait time). We tried to reproduce this situation on our local test servers, but everything works fine. OS: Windows Server 2003 R2 .NET: 3.5

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  • How to setup prawn on heroku when installed as a git submodule

    - by brad
    I have a rails app that I am trying to deploy to heroku. This app generates pdfs using prawn. I installed prawn as a git submodule rather than as a gem as this is what is recommended on the prawn website (here). This has not worked well with heroku so far though. As stated on heroku's application constraints page submodules are not supported so I followed their instructions to track the submodule in the main project and tried again. This has not worked and when I access my application I get the following error: App failed to start An error happened during the initialization of your app. This may be due to a typo, wrong number of arguments, or calling a function that doesn’t exists. Check the stack trace below for specific details. Make sure the app is working locally in production mode, by running it with RAILS_ENV (for Rails apps) or RACK_ENV (for Sinatra or other rack apps) set to production. e.g. RAILS_ENV=production script/server. Original Error /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require': /disk1/home/slugs/208590_03c9c22_67f5/mnt/app/controllers/invoices_controller.rb:37: syntax error, unexpected ')' (SyntaxError) ).to_pdf(@invoice) (and then a whole lot more that I'll spare you from) The .to_pdf function described in the last line is called in a controller in exactly the way described in the prawn how-to that I linked to above so my interpretation of the error message is that prawn is not being installed/detected. Does anyone know how I can address this? I'm new to heroku so have little idea how to approach this. Is the submodule approach for prawn dead in the water from the get-go? Do I need to install it as a gem instead. I'd rather keep it as a submodule just because that works for now and I don't want to break it.

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  • Unit testing JSON output module, best practices

    - by Banang
    I am currently working on a module that takes one of our business objects and returns a json representation of that object to the caller. Due to limitations in our environment I am unable to use any existing json writer, so I have written my own, which is then used by the business object writer to serialize my objects. The json writer is tested in a way similar to this @Test public void writeEmptyArrayTest() { String expected = "[ ]"; writer.array().endArray(); assertEquals(expected, writer.toString()); } which is only manageable because of the small output each instruction produces, even though I keep feeling there must be a better way. The problem I am now facing is writing tests for the object writer module, where the output is much larger and much less manageable. The risk of spelling mistakes in the expected strings mucking up my tests seem too great, and writing code in this fashion seems both silly and unmanageable in a long term perspective. I keep feeling like I want to write tests to ensure that my tests are behaving correctly, and this feeling worries me. Therefore, is there a better way of doing this? Surely there must be? Does anyone know of any good literature in regard to this specific case (doesn't have to be json, but you know what I mean)? Grateful for all help.

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  • Setting nested object to null when combobox has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • WPF DataValidation on a DataTemplate object in an ItemsControl

    - by Matt H.
    I have two datatemplates, both very similar... here is one of them: <DataTemplate x:Key="HeadingTemplate"> <Grid x:Name="mainHeadingGrid" Margin="5,5,30,0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Margin="30,3,10,0" Foreground="Black" FontWeight="Bold" HorizontalAlignment="Left" TextWrapping="Wrap"> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource myHeadingConverter}" ConverterParameter="getRNHeadingTitle" Mode="TwoWay"> <Binding Path="num"/> <Binding Path="name"/> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> <TextBox Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding Path=moreInfo}"/> </Grid> </DataTemplate> I use an selector in my ItemsControl to choose between the two, based on the object it is bound to. I want to use validation to check through all of the properties and put a big exclamation point in front of the whole datatemplate as it is displayed in the itemscontrol. how do I do this? All of the examples I've found explain how to set a ValidationRule on a specific control in the datatemplate, in that control's binding. I want to apply my validation rule to the entire template... Help! :)

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  • Localization approach for XSLT + RESX in ASP.NET

    - by frankadelic
    I have an ASP.NET web app where the back end data (XML format) is transformed using XSLT, producing XHTML which is output into the page. Simplified code: XmlDocument xmlDoc = MyRepository.RetrieveXmlData(keyValue); XslCompiledTransform xsl = new XslCompiledTransform(); xsl.Load(pathToXsl, XsltSettings.TrustedXslt, null); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); xsl.Transform(xmlDoc, null, stringWriter); myLiteral.Text = stringWriter.ToString(); Currently my XSL file contains the XHTML markup elements, as well as text labels, which are currently in English. for example: <p>Title:<br /> <xsl:value-of select="title"/> </p> <p>Description:<br /> <xsl:value-of select="desc"/> </p> I would like the text labels (Title and Description above) to be localized. I was thinking of using .NET resource files (.resx), but I don't know how the resx string resources would get pulled in to the XSLT when the transformation takes place. I would prefer not to have locale-specific copies of the XSLT file, since that means a lot of duplicate transformation logic. (NOTE: the XML data is already localized, so I don't need to change that)

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  • FluentNHibernate Overrides: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf non-generic version

    - by ThiagoAlves
    Hi, I have a repository class that inherits from a generic implementation: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonRepository : Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository<Person> } The generic repository implementation uses Fluent NHibernate conventions. They're working fine. One of those conventions is that all properties are not nullable. Now I need to define that specific properties may be nullable outside the conventions. Fluent NHibernate has an interesting override mechanism: public namespace RepositoryImplementation { public class PersonMappingOverride : IAutoMappingOverride<Person> { public void Override(FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping<Funcionario> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.PhoneNumber).Nullable(); } } } Now I need to register the override class into Fluent NHibernate. I have the following code in the Web.Generics.GenericNHibernateRepository generic class: AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Person>() .Where(type => type.Namespace == "Entities") .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); The problem is: UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf is a generic method, and I can't do something like that: .UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<PersonMappingOverride>(); Because that would cause a circular reference. I don't want the generic repository to know the either repository or the mapping override class, because they vary from project to project. I see another solution: in the GenericNHibernateRepository class I can do this.GetType() and get the repository implementation type (e.g.: PersonRepository). However I can't call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf() passing a type. Is there another way to configure overrides in FluentNHibernate? If not, how could I call UseOverridesFromAssemblyOf<T> without making the generic repository depend upon the repository implementation or the mapping override class? (Source: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Auto_mapping#Overrides)

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  • Read-only view of a Java list with more general type parameter

    - by Michael Rusch
    Suppose I have class Foo extends Superclass. I understand why I can't do this: List<Foo> fooList = getFooList(); List<Superclass> supList = fooList; But, it would seem reasonable for me to do that if supList were somehow "read-only". Then, everything would be consistent as everything that would come out of an objList would be a Foo, which is a Superclass. I could probably write a List implementation that would take an underlying list and a more general type parameter, and would then return everything as the more general type instead of the specific type. It would work like the return of Collections.unmodifiableList() except that the type would be made more general. Is there an easier way? The reason I'm considering doing this is that I am implementing an interface that requires that I return an (unmodifiable) List<Superclass>, but internally I need to use Foos, so I have a List<Foo>. I can't just cast.

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  • Nested URLs and Rewrite rules in Apache2

    - by Radha Krishna. S.
    Hi, I need some help with rewrite rules and nested URLs. I am using TikiWiki for my website and am in the process of setting up SE friendly URLs for my projects. Specifically, I have the following rewrite rule for www.example.com/projects to point to a page that lists out all the projects hosted in example. RewriteRule ^Projects$ articles?type=Project [L] This works fine. Now, I would like to point www.example.com/projects/project1 to point to a specific project. I have this rewrite rule RewriteRule ^(Projects/Project1)$ tiki-read_article.php?articleId=6 This works, but partially. The content is all rendered as text but the theme - images/ css etc all go for a toss - the page is completely in text. I understand that this happens 'cause the relative paths in the theme/ css/ images all refer to Projects as the base folder instead of the root of the website. I don't want to touch the CMS portion - change the theme/ css/ image paths in the files, more for reasons of upgradability. Can someone help me understand and write a rule so that the above nested URL works? Regards, Radha

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  • Versioning SharePoint binary Workflow ASPX task forms

    - by Janis Veinbergs
    Hello. As noted by some developers, workflow versioning is somekind of headache in SharePoint. I`m wondering is there a way I can version my aspx forms? For sure, i can version code behind assemblies, but if markup changes for any of my files in LAYOUTS folder? Is there versioning available for files or do i have to choose new filename for my form? Sorry, i should have been more specific. Yes, i have files under version control (i can restore previous versions etc), but i`m not talking about this kind of version control. But by deploying new Workflow Version, i must not delete old one, because it is still running on many items in SharePoint, but rather , as noted in previous links, deploy new one so i don't break execution of workflows. But workflows will still break if i don't preserve old aspx forms used by users to interact with workflows. So i must ensure that Assemblies with old version numbers used by old workflow exists (this one is ok, i just changed assembly version number and deployed to GAC) I must ensure that old workflow still uses old aspx form used users to interact with workflow, but new workflow version should use new aspx form with more options (how to do this?).

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  • Frame Accurate Browser Launchable Video Player ... ?

    - by cliftonc
    I have a requirement where I need to enable playback (full screen) of a h.264 MPEG4 (thanks for the correction!) video from a local network, launchable from a browser link on a Windows workstation, and be frame accurate. By frame accurate I mean that I need to be able to scrub through the video in the same way you would with a vtr, stop at a frame, and then move backwards and forwards frame by frame (it is for a very specific compliance requirement where have to be able to check every frame if there is something that is potentially against broadcasting guidelines). The application itself is used to capture notes while viewing the material, so the end model is for a dual monitor workstation, with a web form in one, the video playing full screen in the second (no issue launching the video and manually having to move it to the second screen), and then the user controls the video via keyboard shortcuts or a jog shuttle. I have looked at QT, but the java bindings seem to be dead or nearly so, flash isn't frame accurate, VLC given its streaming heritage seems to be only able to move forward by a frame and not backwards, and all I have left are commercial offerings that in my experience are difficult and expensive to change. Any ideas of where I should look or alternative options? Any advice appreciated!

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  • Understanding floating point problems

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    Could someone here please help me understand how to determine when floating point limitations will cause errors in your calculations. For example the following code. CalculateTotalTax = function (TaxRate, TaxFreePrice) { return ((parseFloat(TaxFreePrice) / 100) * parseFloat(TaxRate)).toFixed(4); }; I have been unable to input any two values that have caused for me an incorrect result for this method. If I remove the toFixed(4) I can infact see where the calculations start to lose accuracy (somewhere around the 6th decimal place). Having said that though, my understanding of floats is that even small numbers can sometimes fail to be represented or have I misunderstood and can 4 decimal places (for example) always be represented accurately. MSDN explains floats as such... This means they cannot hold an exact representation of any quantity that is not a binary fraction (of the form k / (2 ^ n) where k and n are integers) Now I assume this applies to all floats (inlcuding those used in javascript). Fundamentally my question boils down to this. How can one determine if any specific method will be vulnerable to errors in floating point operations, at what precision will those errors materialize and what inputs will be required to produce those errors? Hopefully what I am asking makes sense.

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  • Question about MySQLdb, OS X 10.5, and authentication

    - by timpone
    I'm a noob at Python and have been having problems with MySQLdb and OS X Leopard 10.5. I have a php app that is doing db access just fine with pdo but also want to access with Python. When I use the same credentials with MySQLdb as php, I get the following error: File "build/bdist.macosx-10.5-i386/egg/MySQLdb/connections.py", line 188, in __init__ _mysql_exceptions.OperationalError: (1045, "Access denied for user 'arc_db'@'localhost' (using password: YES)") The authentication piece works fine on my ubuntu server (installed via apt-get) implying that it is something specific to my OS X MySQLdb install. Looking at some postings, I thought it would be my local build of MySQLdb which seems to be problematic with OS X. But I am able to import fine: Python 2.5.1 (r251:54863, Feb 6 2009, 19:02:12) [GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Inc. build 5465)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import MySQLdb >>> Also, wanting to create a positive, I am able to access and return results from a database tilted test_something (which presumably bypasses the MySQL's authtentication - not sure exactly how though). Trying to figure out a little more what is going on, I turn on logging for mysql and get the following (added my own comments): 100609 19:09:45 3 Connect Access denied for user 'arc_db'@'localhost' (using password: YES) //not worked 100609 19:10:02 4 Connect arc_db@localhost on arc_development //did work I'm not really sure what the 3 or 4 means but presumably a sucess or failue. So, I guess what would be the next step? Am I doing some obvious stupid python mistake (very likely)? Is there a better way for me to prove that this should / can be working? Is there any way to determine what MySQLdb is sending exactly in its authentication message to MySQL? thanks

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  • How to tell what name RIA Services/EF Model uses for Associations?

    - by Nick Gotch
    Hi, I'm working on a C#.NET 3.5 WCF RIA Services app and having an issue with my Entity Framework model. My entity Foo is mapped to a DB table and has a primary key called FooId. My Bar is mapped to a DB view. I've selectively designed this view to generate a composite key in the EF using two of the columns (by making sure they were non-nullable and the others are all nullable. This was done using NULLIF and ISNULL in the view design.) I'm able to add this view to the model with no problem but I keep running into an issue when I try to map an association between the two. Foo should contain many Bars but I keep getting the following error when I add the association: Unable to retrieve AssociationType for association 'FK_Bar_Foo' According to this page, it looks like this might work if I can properly name the association (since RIA Services looks for specific names.) I've tried several variants of names that match the pattern of other associations with no success. Does anyone know if there's a place I can look to find out what name it's looking for? Thanks,

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  • Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in .NET

    - by Michael Covelli
    Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

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