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• Large public datasets?

  - by Jason

  I am looking for some large public datasets, in particular: Large sample web server logs that have been anonymized. Datasets used for database performance benchmarking. Any other links to large public datasets would be appreciated. I already know about Amazon's public datasets at: http://aws.amazon.com/publicdatasets/

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• quartz: preventing concurrent instances of a job in jobs.xml

  - by Jason S

  This should be really easy. I'm using Quartz running under Apache Tomcat 6.0.18, and I have a jobs.xml file which sets up my scheduled job that runs every minute. What I would like to do, is if the job is still running when the next trigger time rolls around, I don't want to start a new job, so I can let the old instance complete. Is there a way to specify this in jobs.xml (prevent concurrent instances)? If not, is there a way I can share access to an in-memory singleton within my application's Job implementation (is this through the JobExecutionContext?) so I can handle the concurrency myself? (and detect if a previous instance is running) update: After floundering around in the docs, here's a couple of approaches I am considering, but either don't know how to get them to work, or there are problems. Use StatefulJob. This prevents concurrent access... but I'm not sure what other side-effects would occur if I use it, also I want to avoid the following situation: Suppose trigger times would be every minute, i.e. trigger#0 = at time 0, trigger #1 = 60000msec, #2 = 120000, #3 = 180000, etc. and the trigger#0 at time 0 fires my job which takes 130000msec. With a plain Job, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 while job trigger #0 is still running. With a StatefulJob, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 in order, immediately after #0 finishes at 130000. I don't want that, I want #1 and #2 not to run and the next trigger that runs a job should take place at #3 (180000msec). So I still have to do something else with StatefulJob to get it to work the way I want, so I don't see much of an advantage to using it. Use a TriggerListener to return true from vetoJobExecution(). Although implementing the interface seems straightforward, I have to figure out how to setup one instance of a TriggerListener declaratively. Can't find the docs for the xml file. Use a static shared thread-safe object (e.g. a semaphore or whatever) owned by my class that implements Job. I don't like the idea of using singletons via the static keyword under Tomcat/Quartz, not sure if there are side effects. Also I really don't want them to be true singletons, just something that is associated with a particular job definition. Implement my own Trigger which extends SimpleTrigger and contains shared state that could run its own TriggerListener. Again, I don't know how to setup the XML file to use this trigger rather than the standard <trigger><simple>...</simple></trigger>.

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• How do you concat multiple rows into one column in SQL Server?

  - by Jason

  I've searched high and low for the answer to this, but I can't figure it out. I'm relatively new to SQL Server and don't quite have the syntax down yet. I have this datastructure (simplified): Table "Users" | Table "Tags": UserID UserName | TagID UserID PhotoID 1 Bob | 1 1 1 2 Bill | 2 2 1 3 Jane | 3 3 1 4 Sam | 4 2 2 ----------------------------------------------------- Table "Photos": | Table "Albums": PhotoID UserID AlbumID | AlbumID UserID 1 1 1 | 1 1 2 1 1 | 2 3 3 1 1 | 3 2 4 3 2 | 5 3 2 | I'm looking for a way to get the all the photo info (easy) plus all the tags for that photo concatenated like CONCAT(username, ', ') AS Tags of course with the last comma removed. I'm having a bear of a time trying to do this. I've tried the method in this article but I get an error when I try to run the query saying that I can't use DECLARE statements... do you guys have any idea how this can be done? I'm using VS08 and whatever DB is installed in it (I normally use MySQL so I don't know what flavor of DB this really is... it's an .mdf file?)

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• CAML query with nonexistent field

  - by Jason Hocker

  We need to have a web service that queries a sharepoint list using CAML, but we do not know what version of the list that we are using. Version introduced a new field we want to use in the query if it is present, but just ignore that otherwise. If I put it in the query on the old version, we get no results. How should I check if the field exists before setting up the query?

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• 3 or 4 monitors with Nvidia and Ubuntu

  - by Jason

  I saw that you are (were?) running 4 monitors with Ubuntu 8.10 and two Nvidia cards (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/27113/how-to-use-3-monitors). I was curious if you were doing this with Xinerama, a hacked up TwinView config, or multiple X screens, or some other method? Does it work with compiz? I intend to run my Dell 30" in the middle with two 1280x1024 on the sides and continue to use one X screen, and run compiz, on Ubuntu 9.04. Currently, I am using 2 monitors with twinview and compiz, which runs fantastic. I just can't get the third monitor running (unless I enable it in its own X screen, and then enable Xinerama to enable windows to be dragged as if all one X screen, but this breaks compiz, and I don't care much for having separate X screen). I am very interested in knowing how you set up 4 monitors with 2 GPU's. Thanks!

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• php regex for strong password validation

  - by Jason

  Hello, I've seen around the web the following regex (?=^.{8,}$)((?=.*\d)|(?=.*\W+))(?![.\n])(?=.*[A-Z])(?=.*[a-z]).*$ which validates only if the string: * contain at least (1) upper case letter * contain at least (1) lower case letter * contain at least (1) number or special character * contain at least (8) characters in length I'd like to know how to convert this regex so that it checks the string to * contain at least (2) upper case letter * contain at least (2) lower case letter * contain at least (2) digits * contain at least (2) special character * contain at least (8) characters in length well if it contains at least 2 upper,lower,digits and special chars then I wouldn't need the 8 characters length. special characters include: `~!@#$%^&*()_-+=[]\|{};:'".,/<? thanks in advance.

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• How can I read a DBF file with incorrectly defined column data types using ADO.NET?

  - by Jason

  I have a several DBF files generated by a third party that I need to be able to query. I am having trouble because all of the column types have been defined as characters, but the data within some of these fields actually contain binary data. If I try to read these fields using an OleDbDataReader as anything other than a string or character array, I get an InvalidCastException thrown, but I need to be able to read them as a binary value or at least cast/convert them after they are read. The columns that actually DO contain text are being returned as expected. For example, the very first column is defined as a character field with a length of 2 bytes, but the field contains a 16-bit integer. I have written the following test code to read the first column and convert it to the appropriate data type, but the value is not coming out right. The first row of the database has a value of 17365 (0x43D5) in the first column. Running the following code, what I end up getting is 17215 (0x433F). I'm pretty sure it has to do with using the ASCII encoding to get the bytes from the string returned by the data reader, but I'm not sure of another way to get the value into the format that I need, other that to write my own DBF reader and bypass ADO.NET altogether which I don't want to do unless I absolutely have to. Any help would be greatly appreciated. byte[] c0; int i0; string con = @"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=C:\ASTM;Extended Properties=dBASE III;User ID=Admin;Password=;"; using (OleDbConnection c = new OleDbConnection(con)) { c.Open(); OleDbCommand cmd = c.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM astm2007"; OleDbDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { c0 = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(dr.GetValue(0).ToString()); i0 = BitConverter.ToInt16(c0, 0); } dr.Dispose(); }

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• How do I implement repository pattern and unit of work when dealing with multiple data stores?

  - by Jason

  I have a unique situation where I am building a DDD based system that needs to access both Active Directory and a SQL database as persistence. Initially this wasnt a problem because our design was setup where we had a unit of work that looked like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Commit() } and our repositories looked like this: public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Save(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } In this setup our load and save would handle the mapping between both data stores because we wrote it ourselves. The unit of work would handle transactions and would contain the Linq To SQL data context that the repositories would use for persistence. The active directory part was handled by a domain service implemented in infrastructure and consumed by the repositories in each Save() method. Save() was responsible with interacting with the data context to do all the database operations. Now we are trying to adapt it to entity framework and take advantage of POCO. Ideally we would not need the Save() method because the domain objects are being tracked by the object context and we would just need to add a Save() method on the unit of work to have the object context save the changes, and a way to register new objects with the context. The new proposed design looks more like this: public interface IUnitOfWork { void BeginTransaction() void Save() void Commit() } public interface IRepository<T> { T GetByID() void Add(T entity) void Delete(T entity) } This solves the data access problem with entity framework, but does not solve the problem with our active directory integration. Before, it was in the Save() method on the repository, but now it has no home. The unit of work knows nothing other than the entity framework data context. Where should this logic go? I argue this design only works if you only have one data store using entity framework. Any ideas how to best approach this issue? Where should I put this logic?

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• WCF timeout exception detailed investigation

  - by Jason Kealey

  We have an application that has a WCF service (*.svc) running on IIS7 and various clients querying the service. The server is running Win 2008 Server. The clients are running either Windows 2008 Server or Windows 2003 server. I am getting the following exception, which I have seen can in fact be related to a large number of potential WCF issues. System.TimeoutException: The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9320000. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. ---> System.TimeoutException: The HTTP request to 'http://www.domain.com/WebServices/myservice.svc/gzip' has exceeded the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. I have increased the timeout to 30min and the error still occurred. This tells me that something else is at play, because the quantity of data could never take 30min to upload or download. The error comes and goes. At the moment, it is more frequent. It does not seem to matter if I have 3 clients running simultaneously or 100, it still occurs once in a while. Most of the time, there are no timeouts but I still get a few per hour. The error comes from any of the methods that are invoked. One of these methods does not have parameters and returns a bit of data. Another takes in lots of data as a parameter but executes asynchronously. The errors always originate from the client and never reference any code on the server in the stack trace. It always ends with: at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) On the server: I've tried (and currently have) the following binding settings: maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" It does not seem to have an impact. I've tried (and currently have) the following throttling settings: <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="1500" maxConcurrentInstances="1500" maxConcurrentSessions="1500"/> It does not seem to have an impact. I currently have the following settings for the WCF service. [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single)] I ran with ConcurrencyMode.Multiple for a while, and the error still occurred. I've tried restarting IIS, restarting my underlying SQL Server, restarting the machine. All of these don't seem to have an impact. I've tried disabling the Windows firewall. It does not seem to have an impact. On the client, I have these settings: maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" <system.net> <connectionManagement> <add address="*" maxconnection="16"/> </connectionManagement> </system.net> My client closes its connections: var client = new MyClient(); try { return client.GetConfigurationOptions(); } finally { client.Close(); } I have changed the registry settings to allow more outgoing connections: MaxConnectionsPerServer=24, MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server=32. I have now just recently tried SvcTraceViewer.exe. I managed to catch one exception on the client end. I see that its duration is 1 minute. Looking at the server side trace, I can see that the server is not aware of this exception. The maximum duration I can see is 10 seconds. I have looked at active database connections using exec sp_who on the server. I only have a few (2-3). I have looked at TCP connections from one client using TCPview. It usually is around 2-3 and I have seen up to 5 or 6. Simply put, I am stumped. I have tried everything I could find, and must be missing something very simple that a WCF expert would be able to see. It is my gut feeling that something is blocking my clients at the low-level (TCP), before the server actually receives the message and/or that something is queuing the messages at the server level and never letting them process. If you have any performance counters I should look at, please let me know. (please indicate what values are bad, as some of these counters are hard to decypher). Also, how could I log the WCF message size? Finally, are there any tools our there that would allow me to test how many connections I can establish between my client and server (independently from my application) Thanks for your time! Extra information added June 20th: My WCF application does something similar to the following. while (true) { Step1GetConfigurationSettingsFromServerViaWCF(); // can change between calls Step2GetWorkUnitFromServerViaWCF(); DoWorkLocally(); // takes 5-15minutes. Step3SendBackResultsToServerViaWCF(); } Using WireShark, I did see that when the error occurs, I have a five TCP retransmissions followed by a TCP reset later on. My guess is the RST is coming from WCF killing the connection. The exception report I get is from Step3 timing out. I discovered this by looking at the tcp stream "tcp.stream eq 192". I then expanded my filter to "tcp.stream eq 192 and http and http.request.method eq POST" and saw 6 POSTs during this stream. This seemed odd, so I checked with another stream such as tcp.stream eq 100. I had three POSTs, which seems a bit more normal because I am doing three calls. However, I do close my connection after every WCF call, so I would have expected one call per stream (but I don't know much about TCP). Investigating a bit more, I dumped the http packet load to disk to look at what these six calls where. 1) Step3 2) Step1 3) Step2 4) Step3 - corrupted 5) Step1 6) Step2 My guess is two concurrent clients are using the same connection, that is why I saw duplicates. However, I still have a few more issues that I can't comprehend: a) Why is the packet corrupted? Random network fluke - maybe? The load is gzipped using this sample code: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms751458.aspx - Could the code be buggy once in a while when used concurrently? I should test without the gzip library. b) Why would I see step 1 & step 2 running AFTER the corrupted operation timed out? It seems to me as if these operations should not have occurred. Maybe I am not looking at the right stream because my understanding of TCP is flawed. I have other streams that occur at the same time. I should investigate other streams - a quick glance at streams 190-194 show that the Step3 POST have proper payload data (not corrupted). Pushing me to look at the gzip library again.

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• Adobe Flex 4.0 vs Silverlight 4.0

  - by Jason Towne

  While this not necessarily a technical question, I believe it will help a lot of developers (including myself!). With Silverlight 4.0 and Flex 4.0 both in beta, I thought I would put out an open question to the community and see what everyone likes and dislikes about each framework and why. I've worked with Flex in the past but have decided to take another look at Silverlight with the new version being released. Thoughts anyone? Edit: Made it a community wiki. :)

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• viewstack causing error 1065 variable not defined issue?

  - by jason

  I've got an flex application where I have a left side TREE control and a viewstack on the right and when someone selects the tree it loads the named viewstack based on the hidden node value of the XML of the tree. But it's throwing a error 1065 variable not defined on a viewstack which worked on the last browser refresh/reload. It's not related to a particular viewstack from what I can tell it just seems to throw the error on certain render events. I've tried to use creationpolicy="all" on the viewstack but it seems to not be of any help. public function treeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem as XML; //trace(selectedNode.@hidden); //Alert.show([email protected]() + " *"); if([email protected]() == '' || [email protected]() == null){ //Alert.show("NULL !"); return; } mainviewstack.selectedChild = Container(mainviewstack.getChildByName([email protected]())); //Container(mainviewstack.getChildByName(selectedNode.@hidden)); If I add in an alert box before the getchildbyname option the viewstack has time to render and everything works fine, so it leads me to believe the app is not giving it enough time to load the viewstack?

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• JAAS and WebLogic 10.3: Granting specific codebase permissions to a JAR bundled within an EAR

  - by Jason

  Here's my scenario: I have a JAR within the APP-INF/lib of my EAR, to be deployed within WebLogic 10g Release 3 against which I wish to grant specific permissions. e.g., grant codebase "file:/c:/somedir/my.jar" { permission java.net.SocketPermission "*:-","accept,connect,listen, resolve"; permission java.net.SocketPermission "localhost:-","accept,connect,listen,resolve"; permission java.net.SocketPermission "127.0.0.1:-","accept,connect,listen,resolve"; permission java.net.SocketPermission "230.0.0.1:-","accept,connect,listen,resolve"; permission java.util.PropertyPermission "*", "read,write"; permission java.lang.RuntimePermission "*"; permission java.io.FilePermission "<<ALL FILES>>","read,write,delete"; permission javax.security.auth.AuthPermission "*"; permission java.security.SecurityPermission "*"; }; Questions: Where is the best place to define this grant - in the java.policy of the JRE, WL server's weblogic.policy, or within a XML packaged within the EAR How do I define the codebase URL to the JAR? The examples I have seen have an explicit reference to the JAR on the file system, however I am deploying the JAR packaged up within an EAR. Thanks!

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• setup.py install dependency too?

  - by Jason Sundram

  I have a python source distribution, and it depends on some other modules that I've also made. The directory tree looks like this. I've written a setup.py file for one of those modules (pydirac225, for those of you who are following along at home), and I want to have that setup.py called from the main setup.py? Another module dependency (pysoundtouch14) has a setup.py file, but the contents of it are basically pasted into the main setup.py script. It seems more modular to allow each of these components to specify how they are set up, and allow the main setup file to invoke their setup scripts individually. Is there a standard way to deal with this issue? To recap: I have some code that depends on other modules: should the other module's setup code go in the main setup.py, or is there a way to have my code's setup.py invoke their setup.py files?

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• HTTP 1.0 vs 1.1

  - by Jason Baker

  Could somebody give me a brief overview of the differences between HTTP 1.0 and HTTP 1.1? I've spent some time with both of the RFCs, but haven't been able to pull out a lot of difference between them. Wikipedia says this: HTTP/1.1 (1997-1999) Current version; persistent connections enabled by default and works well with proxies. Also supports request pipelining, allowing multiple requests to be sent at the same time, allowing the server to prepare for the workload and potentially transfer the requested resources more quickly to the client. But that doesn't mean a lot to me. I realize this is a somewhat complicated subject, so I'm not expecting a full answer, but can someone give me a brief overview of the differences at a bit lower level? By this I mean that I'm looking for the info I would need to know to implement either an HTTP server or application. I realize that this can be a somewhat complicated subject (based on what I know about HTTP as of right now), so I'm not necessarily looking for a full answer. I'm really more looking for a nudge in the right direction so that I can figure it out on my own.

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• Need an ASP.NET MVC long running process with user feedback

  - by Jason

  I've been trying to create a controller in my project for delivering what could turn out to be quite complex reports. As a result they can take a relatively long time and a progress bar would certainly help users to know that things are progressing. The report will be kicked off via an AJAX request, with the idea being that periodic JSON requests will get the status and update the progress bar. I've been experimenting with the AsyncController as that seems to be a nice way of running long processes without tying up resources, but it doesn't appear to give me any way of checking on the progress (and seems to block further JSON requests and I haven't discovered why yet). After that I've tried resorting to storing progress in a static variable on the controller and reading the status from that - but to be honest that all seems a bit hacky! All suggestions gratefully accepted!

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• CDI SessionScoped Bean instance remains unchanged when login with different user

  - by Jason Yang

  I've been looking for the workaround of this problem for rather plenty of time and no result, so I ask question here. Simply speaking, I'm using a CDI SessionScoped Bean User in my project to manage user information and display them on jsf pages. Also container-managed j_security_check is used to resolve authentication issue. Everything is fine if first logout with session.invalidate() and then login in the same browser tab with a different user. But when I tried to directly login (through login.jsf) with a new user without logout beforehand, I found the user information remaining unchanged. I debugged and found the User bean, as well as the HttpSession instance, always remaining the same if login with different users in the same browser, as long as session.invalidate() not invoked. But oddly, the session id did modified, and I've both checked in Java code and Firebug. org.apache.catalina.session.StandardSessionFacade@5d7b4092 StandardSession[c69a71d19f369d08b5dddbea2ef0] attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator : attrValue=org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator@583c9dd8 attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.ConversationContext.conversations : attrValue = {} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.http.HttpSessionContext#org.jboss.weld.bean-Discipline-ManagedBean-class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User : attrValue = Bean: Managed Bean [class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User] with qualifiers [@Any @Default @Named]; Instance: com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User@c497c7c; CreationalContext: org.jboss.weld.context.CreationalContextImpl@739efd29 attrName = javax.faces.request.charset : attrValue = UTF-8 org.apache.catalina.session.StandardSessionFacade@5d7b4092 StandardSession[c6ab4b0c51ee0a649ef696faef75] attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator : attrValue = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator@583c9dd8 attrName = com.sun.faces.renderkit.ServerSideStateHelper.LogicalViewMap : attrValue = {-4968076393130137442={-7694826198761889564=[Ljava.lang.Object;@43ff5d6c}} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.ConversationContext.conversations : attrValue = {} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.http.HttpSessionContext#org.jboss.weld.bean-Discipline-ManagedBean-class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User : attrValue = Bean: Managed Bean [class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User] with qualifiers [@Any @Default @Named]; Instance: com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User@c497c7c; CreationalContext: org.jboss.weld.context.CreationalContextImpl@739efd29 attrName = javax.faces.request.charset : attrValue = UTF-8 Above block contains two successive logins and their Session info. We can see that the instance(1st row) the same while session id(2nd row) different. Seems that session object is reused to contain different session id and CDI framework manages session bean life cycle in accordance with the session object only(?). I'm wondering whether there could be only one server-side session object within the same browser unless invalidated? Since I'm adopting j_security_check I fancy intercepting it and invalidating old session is not so easy. So is it possible to accomplish the goal without altering the CDI+JSF+j_security_check design that one can relogin with different account in the same or different tab within the same browser? Really look forward for your response. More info: Glassfish v3.1 is my appserver.

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• Two-way databinding of a custom templated asp.net control

  - by Jason

  I hate long code snippets and I'm sorry about this one, but it turns out that this asp.net stuff can't get much shorter and it's so specific that I haven't been able to generalize it without a full code listing. I just want simple two-way, declarative, edit-only databinding to a single instance of an object. Not a list of objects of a type with a bunch of NotImplementedExceptions for Add, Delete, and Select, but just a single view-state persisted object. This is certainly something that can be done but I've struggled with an implementation for years. This newest, closest implementation was inspired by this article from 4-Guys-From-Rolla. Unfortunately, after implementing, I'm getting the following error and I don't know what I'm missing: System.InvalidOperationException: Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control. If I don't use Bind(), and only use Eval() functionality, it works. In that way, the error is especially confusing. Update: Actually, using Eval() does NOT work, but using <%# Container.SampleString %> works. However, Eval("SampleString") gives the same error. That leads me back to this article I found earlier but had discarded. Now I believe it might be related, though I haven't cracked it yet ... Here's the simplified codeset that still produces the error: using System.ComponentModel; namespace System.Web.UI.WebControls.Special { public class SampleFormData { public string SampleString = "Sample String Data"; public int SampleInt = -1; } [ToolboxItem(false)] public class SampleSpecificFormDataContainer : DataBoundControl, INamingContainer { SampleSpecificEntryForm entryForm; internal SampleSpecificEntryForm EntryForm { get { return entryForm; } } [Bindable(true), Category("Data")] public string SampleString { get { return entryForm.FormData.SampleString; } set { entryForm.FormData.SampleString = value; } } [Bindable(true), Category("Data")] public int SampleInt { get { return entryForm.FormData.SampleInt; } set { entryForm.FormData.SampleInt = value; } } internal SampleSpecificFormDataContainer(SampleSpecificEntryForm entryForm) { this.entryForm = entryForm; } } public class SampleSpecificEntryForm : WebControl, INamingContainer { #region Template private IBindableTemplate formTemplate = null; [Browsable(false), DefaultValue(null), TemplateContainer(typeof(SampleSpecificFormDataContainer), ComponentModel.BindingDirection.TwoWay), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public virtual IBindableTemplate FormTemplate { get { return formTemplate; } set { formTemplate = value; } } #endregion #region Viewstate SampleFormData FormDataVS { get { return (ViewState["FormData"] as SampleFormData) ?? new SampleFormData(); } set { ViewState["FormData"] = value; SaveViewState(); } } #endregion public override ControlCollection Controls { get { EnsureChildControls(); return base.Controls; } } private SampleSpecificFormDataContainer formDataContainer = null; [Browsable(false), DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Hidden)] public SampleSpecificFormDataContainer FormDataContainer { get { EnsureChildControls(); return formDataContainer; } } [Bindable(true), Browsable(false)] public SampleFormData FormData { get { return FormDataVS; } set { FormDataVS = value; } } protected override void CreateChildControls() { if (!this.ChildControlsCreated) { Controls.Clear(); formDataContainer = new SampleSpecificFormDataContainer(this); Controls.Add(formDataContainer); FormTemplate.InstantiateIn(formDataContainer); this.ChildControlsCreated = true; } } public override void DataBind() { CreateChildControls(); base.DataBind(); } } } With an ASP.NET page the following: <%@ Page Title="Home Page" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Site.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default2.aspx.cs" Inherits="EntryFormTest._Default2" EnableEventValidation="false" %> <%@ Register Assembly="EntryForm" Namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls.Special" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <h2> Welcome to ASP.NET! </h2> <cc1:SampleSpecificEntryForm ID="EntryForm1" runat="server"> <FormTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("SampleString") %>'></asp:TextBox><br /> <h3>(<%# Container.SampleString %>)</h3><br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" /> </FormTemplate> </cc1:SampleSpecificEntryForm> </asp:Content> Default2.aspx.cs using System; namespace EntryFormTest { public partial class _Default2 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { EntryForm1.DataBind(); } } } Thanks for any help!

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• Spring.NET and ADO.NET Entity Data Model

  - by Jason

  Having defined an ADO.NET Entity Data Model, I can then instantiate it in a Repository class to query against the database. using (ApplicationEntities ctx = new ApplicationEntities()) { // query, CRUD, etc } However, that particular line of code becomes boilerplate in most of the methods in the repository class. Is it possible to just use Spring.NET to inject the Entity Data Model, either in the class or, even better, in an abstract parent class that all the repositories inherit from?

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• jquery issue, disable on mouseenter queue

  - by jason

  When you mouseenter .li_group class it does a slide down effect on 1 single <li> tag, everything goes smoothly, but during the delay if you take your mouse off and on .li_group it "queues" the effect and slides the li down, delay, slides it down again etc etc... I have tried every way i can think of, even stop(); but it still does it... the reason i use mouseenter instead of hover, is because it works better for ul / li list $(".li_group").live('mouseenter',function(){ var id = "#ec1"; $(id).slideDown(); }).live('mouseleave',function(){ if (jQuery.support.cssFloat==true || getInternetExplorerVersion() > 7) { //ie < 8 endless up/down on close var id = "#ec1"; $(id).delay(5000).slideUp('fast'); } });

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• Why does yaml.dump add quotes this key-value pair

  - by jason gagne

  I'm trying to write a new entry to a rails database.yml and for some reason I'm getting quotes around this entry db_yml = {'new_env' = {'database' = 'database_name', '<<' = '*defaults' }} File.open("#{RAILS_ROOT}/config/database.yml", "a") {|f| YAML.dump(db_yml, f)} returns --- new_env: database: database_name "<<": "*defaults" I don't know why the "---" and the quotes around the defaults are returned, any thoughts on how to prevent? thanks!

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• VEMap Pan triggers VEMap.onclick

  - by Jason

  I'm using the Virtual Earth (or Bing!...) SDK and need to attach an event when someone clicks the map. Unfortunately panning the map also triggers the onclick event. Does anyone know of a work around? function GetMap(){ map = new VEMap('dvMap'); map.LoadMap(new VELatLong(35.576916524038616,-80.9410858154297), 11, 'h',false); mapIsInit = true; map.AttachEvent('onclick', MapClick); } function MapClick(e){ var clickPnt = map.PixelToLatLong(new VEPixel(e.mapX,e.mapY)); Message('Map X: ' + clickPnt.Longitude + '\nMap Y: ' + clickPnt.Latitude + '\nZoom: ' + e.zoomLevel); }

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• How to serialize a collection of base type and see the concrete types in easy to read XML

  - by Jason Coyne

  I have a List which is populated with objects of various concrete types which subclass BaseType I am using the WCF DataContractSerializer <Children> <BaseType xmlns:d3p1="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/Tasks" i:type="d3p1:ConcreteTypeA"></BaseType> <BaseType xmlns:d3p1="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/Tasks" i:type="d3p1:ConcreteTypeB"></BaseType> </Children> Is there any way to get this to generate <Children> <ConcreteTypeA/> <ConcreteTypeB/> </Children> ? The real goal is to let users generate some XML to load into memory, and the users are of a skill level that asking them for the original XML is not going to be successful.

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• handling DATETIME values 0000-00-00 00:00:00 in JDBC

  - by Jason S

  I get an exception (see below) if I try to do resultset.getString("add_date"); for a JDBC connection to a MySQL database containing a DATETIME value of 0000-00-00 00:00:00 (the quasi-null value for DATETIME), even though I'm just trying to get the value as string, not as an object. I got around this by doing SELECT CAST(add_date AS CHAR) as add_date which works, but seems silly... is there a better way to do this? My point is that I just want the raw DATETIME string, so I can parse it myself as is. note: here's where the 0000 comes in: (from http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/datetime.html) Illegal DATETIME, DATE, or TIMESTAMP values are converted to the “zero” value of the appropriate type ('0000-00-00 00:00:00' or '0000-00-00'). The specific exception is this one: SQLException: Cannot convert value '0000-00-00 00:00:00' from column 5 to TIMESTAMP. SQLState: S1009 VendorError: 0 java.sql.SQLException: Cannot convert value '0000-00-00 00:00:00' from column 5 to TIMESTAMP. at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:1055) at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:956) at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:926) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.getTimestampFromString(ResultSetImpl.java:6343) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.getStringInternal(ResultSetImpl.java:5670) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.getString(ResultSetImpl.java:5491) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.getString(ResultSetImpl.java:5531)

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• ASP.Net Response Filter Clashing with SharePoint 2010 Publishing Site Defaults

  - by Jason Weber

  Hello everyone, I'm debugging an HttpModule with an ASP.NET response filter. This dynamically rewrites portions of rendered SharePoint WCM pages. The publishing pages render fine in SP2007 on both Server 2003 and Server 2008. However the equivalent pages fail to render in SP2010 B2 on Server 2008 R2 / IIS7. The following error is returned by ASP.NET: Post cache substitution is not compatible with modules in the IIS integrated pipeline that modify the response buffers. Either a native module in the pipeline has modified an HTTP_DATA_CHUNK structure associated with a managed post cache substitution callback, or a managed filter has modified the response. This error is consistent with KB #2014472. However: Caching is disabled for anonymous & authenticated access at the site collection level There do not appear to be any Substitution controls on either the master or layout page The IIS 7 settings are all stock default This is happening e.g. on /pages/default.aspx. It seems likely I'm missing something cache related...but what?

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• Best practices for Java logging from multiple threads?

  - by Jason S

  I want to have a diagnostic log that is produced by several tasks managing data. These tasks may be in multiple threads. Each task needs to write an element (possibly with subelements) to the log; get in and get out quickly. If this were a single-task situation I'd use XMLStreamWriter as it seems like the best match for simplicity/functionality without having to hold a ballooning XML document in memory. But it's not a single-task situation, and I'm not sure how to best make sure this is "threadsafe", where "threadsafe" in this application means that each log element should be written to the log correctly and serially (one after the other and not interleaved in any way). Any suggestions? I have a vague intuition that the way to go is to use a queue of log elements (with each one able to be produced quickly: my application is busy doing real work that's performance-sensitive), and have a separate thread which handles the log elements and sends them to a file so the logging doesn't interrupt the producers. The logging doesn't necessarily have to be XML, but I do want it to be structured and machine-readable. edit: I put "threadsafe" in quotes. Log4j seems to be the obvious choice (new to me but old to the community), why reinvent the wheel...

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