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  • Semi-generic function

    - by Fredrik Ullner
    I have a bunch of overloaded functions that operate on certain data types such as int, double and strings. Most of these functions perform the same action, where only a specific set of data types are allowed. That means I cannot create a simple generic template function as I lose type safety (and potentially incurring a run-time problem for validation within the function). Is it possible to create a "semi-generic compile time type safe function"? If so, how? If not, is this something that will come up in C++0x? An (non-valid) idea; template <typename T, restrict: int, std::string > void foo(T bar); ... foo((int)0); // OK foo((std::string)"foobar"); // OK foo((double)0.0); // Compile Error Note: I realize I could create a class that has overloaded constructors and assignment operators and pass a variable of that class instead to the function.

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  • Ruby-on-Rails: Multiple has_many :through possible?

    - by williamjones
    Is it possible to have multiple has_many :through relationships that pass through each other in Rails? I received the suggestion to do so as a solution for another question I posted, but have been unable to get it to work. Friends are a cyclic association through a join table. The goal is to create a has_many :through for friends_comments, so I can take a User and do something like user.friends_comments to get all comments made by his friends in a single query. class User has_many :friendships has_many :friends, :through => :friendships, :conditions => "status = #{Friendship::FULL}" has_many :comments has_many :friends_comments, :through => :friends, :source => :comments end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "friend_id" end This looks great, and makes sense, but isn't working for me. This is the error I'm getting in relevant part when I try to access a user's friends_comments: ERROR: column users.user_id does not exist : SELECT "comments".* FROM "comments" INNER JOIN "users" ON "comments".user_id = "users".id WHERE (("users".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) When I just enter user.friends, which works, this is the query it executes: : SELECT "users".* FROM "users" INNER JOIN "friendships" ON "users".id = "friendships".friend_id WHERE (("friendships".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) So it seems like it's entirely forgetting about the original has_many through friendship relationship, and then is inappropriately trying to use the User class as a join table. Am I doing something wrong, or is this simply not possible?

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  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

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  • Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

    - by JimBadger
    I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • JasperReports reports access image via authenticated URL

    - by user363115
    Hi all, I am hoping that this is a simple issue with a simple solution and that I have missed something obvious. Let me explain the problem; We have an application that generates PDF reports (using Jasper). These reports contain data from our database, as well as imagery (photographs). These photographs are stored in S3. We use signed URLs to access these photographs. We link these photographs into our Jasper reports using these S3 URLs. Because the S3 URLs are signed and time-limited (by design), the process is as follows; User requests a report to be generated, Report is filled, and goes to our database (at which time UUIDs to any required images are retrieved), For each UUID an S3 signed URL must be generated, To do this the URL behind each report image is a call to an authenticated URL in our app (/get_img?uuid=foo), The controller behind this URL generates a signed S3 URL and returns it, Reports loads the image. The problem is with step (4) - the call to the authenticated URL fails because Jasper does not pass any authentication information with the request. Is there a solution here? Thanks all for your time. Ben

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  • JQuery Ajax Get passing parameters

    - by George
    Hi, I am working on my first MVC application and am running into a bit of a problem. I have a data table that when a row is clicked, I want to return the detail from that row. I have a function set up as: function rowClick(item) { $("#detailInfo").data("width.dialog", 800); $.ajax({ type: "GET", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "<%= Url.Action("GetDetails", "WarningRecognition")%>", data: "", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {//do some stuff...and show results} } The problem I am running into is the passing of the "item". I calls the Controller function that looks like this: public JsonResult GetDetails(string sDetail) { Debug.WriteLine(Request.QueryString["sDetail"]); Debug.WriteLine("sDetail: " + sDetail); var myDetailsDao = new WarnRecogDetailsDao(); return new JsonResult { Data = myDetailsDao.SelectDetailedInfo(Convert.ToInt32(sDetail)) }; } But it never shows anything as the the "sDetail". It does hit the function but nothing is passed to it. So, I have read where you pass the parameter via the data but I have tried every combination I can think of and it never shows up. Tried: data: {"item"} data: {sDetail[item]} data: {sDetail[" + item + "]} Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. Geo...

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  • Use of putty in command line

    - by kij
    Hi, I'm trying to use putty in command line from an hudson job. The command is the following one: putty -ssh -2 -P 22 USERNAME@SERVER_ADDR -pw PASS -m command.txt Where 'command.txt' is a shell script to execute in the server through SSH. If i launch this command from the Window command prompt, it works, the shell script is executed on the server machine. If i launch a build of the hudson job configured with this batch command, it doesn't work. The build is running... and running... and running.. without doing anything, and i have to stop it manually. So my question is: Is it possible to launch an external programm (i.e. putty) from an hudson job ? ps: i tried SSH plugin but... not a really good plugin (pre/post build, fail status of the commands launched not caught by hudson, etc.) Thanks in advance for your help. Best regards. kij

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  • Codeigniter return config file as array with autoload enabled

    - by Fverswijver
    So I'm using CodeIgniter to build a website and I've made it so that all my specific settings are stored in a config file that's automatically loaded. I've also built a page that loads the settings file, makes a nice little table and allows me to edit everything from that page, afterwards it saves the entire page again (I know I could've done the same with a database but I want to try it this way). My problem is that I can't seem to use this bit when autoloading of my config file is enabled, but when I disable autoloading I can't seem to manually load it, it never finds my variables. So what I'm doing here is just taking all values from the config file and putting them in a single array so I can pass this array onto my settings administration page (edit/show all settings). $this->config->load('site_settings', TRUE); $data['settings'] = $this->config->item('site_settings'); ... $this->load->view('template', $data); config/site_settings.php <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); $config['header_img'] = './img/header/'; $config['copyright_text'] = 'Copyright Instituto Kabu'; $config['copyright_font'] = './system/fonts/motoroil.ttf'; $config['copyright_font_color'] = 'ffffff'; $config['copyright_font_size'] = '32';

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  • Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

    - by badcat
    Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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  • Problem with mouse event on a user control (wpf).

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a user control, defined as follows. <UserControl x:Class="IDOView.AnimatedCharacter" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:IDOView" mc:Ignorable="d" Background="Transparent" > <Image Name="displayImage" Height="Auto" Width="Auto" Stretch="Fill" IsHitTestVisible="True"/> The control is added to a main page twice, as follows. <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="circle.png" Canvas.Left="-279" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA1"> <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="square.png" Canvas.Left="-209" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA2"> Essentially, about half of the circle is behind the square. I need the square image in this case to pass through events to the circle behind it. The square has an element cut out of it (transparent). What is happening now is that the circle event only registers if I click on the region that is not covered by the square. Surely there has to be a way to bubble this event, or click-through?

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  • How to make a self contained jQuery plugin that finds the tallest image height?

    - by Jannis
    I have been trying to make this to be a little jQuery plugin that I can reuse in the future without having to write the following into my actions.js file in full. This works when loaded in the same file where I set the height using my variable tallest. var tallest = null; $('.slideshow img').each(function(index) { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); This works and will cycle through all the items, then set the value of tallest to the greatest height found. The following however does not work: This would be the plugin, loaded from its own file (before the actions.js file that contains the parts using this): (function($){ $.fn.extend({ tallest: function() { var tallest = null; return this.each(function() { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); } }); })(jQuery); Once loaded I am trying to use it as follows: $('.slideshow img').tallest(); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); However the above two lines return an error of 'tallest is undefined'. How can I make this work? Any ideas would be appreciated. Thinking about this even more the perfect usage of this would be as follows: $('.container').height(tallest('.container item')); But I wouldn't even know where to begin to get this to work in the manner that you pass the object to be measured into the function by adding it into the brackets of the function name. Thanks for reading, Jannis

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  • How strict should I be in the "do the simplest thing that could possible work" while doing TDD

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    For TDD you have to Create a test that fail Do the simplest thing that could possible work to pass the test Add more variants of the test and repeat Refactor when a pattern emerge With this approach you're supposing to cover all the cases ( that comes to my mind at least) but I'm wonder if am I being too strict here and if it is possible to "think ahead" some scenarios instead of simple discover them. For instance, I'm processing a file and if it doesn't conform to a certain format I am to throw an InvalidFormatException So my first test was: @Test void testFormat(){ // empty doesn't do anything... processor.validate("empty.txt"); try { processor.validate("invalid.txt"); assert false: "Should have thrown InvalidFormatException"; } catch( InvalidFormatException ife ) { assert "Invalid format".equals( ife.getMessage() ); } } I run it and it fails because it doesn't throw an exception. So the next thing that comes to my mind is: "Do the simplest thing that could possible work", so I : public void validate( String fileName ) throws InvalidFormatException { if(fileName.equals("invalid.txt") { throw new InvalidFormatException("Invalid format"); } } Doh!! ( although the real code is a bit more complicated, I found my self doing something like this several times ) I know that I have to eventually add another file name and other test that would make this approach impractical and that would force me to refactor to something that makes sense ( which if I understood correctly is the point of TDD, to discover the patterns the usage unveils ) but: Q: am I taking too literal the "Do the simplest thing..." stuff?

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  • Passing a WHERE clause for a Linq-to-Sql query as a parameter

    - by Mantorok
    Hi all This is probably pushing the boundaries of Linq-to-Sql a bit but given how versatile it has been so far I thought I'd ask. I have 3 queries that are selecting identical information and only differ in the where clause, now I know I can pass a delegate in but this only allows me to filter the results already returned, but I want to build up the query via parameter to ensure efficiency. Here is the query: from row in DataContext.PublishedEvents join link in DataContext.PublishedEvent_EventDateTimes on row.guid equals link.container join time in DataContext.EventDateTimes on link.item equals time.guid where row.ApprovalStatus == "Approved" && row.EventType == "Event" && time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) orderby time.StartDate select new EventDetails { Title = row.EventName, Description = TrimDescription(row.Description) }; The code I want to apply via a parameter would be: time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) Is this possible? I don't think it is but thought I'd check out first. Thanks

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  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

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  • How do I get require_login()-like functionality using the new PHP Client Library for Facebook?

    - by cc
    Howdy. I've been tasked with making a Facebook game, but I'm new to Facebook development, so I'm just getting started. Apologies in advance if this is a no-brainer to people. I'm having trouble following all the examples I see on sites, and I keep running into missing pages in the Facebook documentation when I am trying to read up. I think it's because there's a new version of the PHP Client Library for Facebook, and everything I'm finding is referring to the old client. For instance, I see this code in a lot of examples: require 'facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook( array( 'appId' => '(id)', 'secret' => '(secret)' ) ); $facebook_account = $facebook->require_login(); ...but there's no "require_login()" in the client library provided in the facebook.php file. From what I can tell, it looks like Facebook has very recently rolled out some new system for development, but I don't see any sample code anywhere to deal with it. The new library comes with an "example.php" file, but it appears to be only for adding "Log in with Facebook" functionality to other sites (what I'm assuming is what they mean by "Facebook Connect" sites), not for just running apps in a Canvas page on Facebook itself. Specifically, what I need to do is let users visit an application page within Facebook, have it bring up the dialog box allowing them to authorize the app, have it show up in their "games" page, and then have it pass me the relevant info about the user so I can start creating the game. But I can't seem to find any tutorials or examples that show how to do this using the new library. Seems like this should be pretty straightforward, but I'm running into roadblocks. Or am I missing something about the PHP client library? Should require_login() be working for me, and there's something broken with my implementation, such as having the wrong client library or something? I downloaded from GitHub yesterday, so I'm pretty sure I have the most recent version of the code I have, but perhaps I'm downloading the wrong "facebook.php" file...?

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  • Rescuing a failed WCF call

    - by illdev
    Hello, I am happily using Castle's WcfFacility. From Monorail I know the handy concept of Rescues - consumer friendly results that often, but not necessarily, contain Data about what went wrong. I am creating a Silverlight application right now, doing quite a few WCF service calls. All these request return an implementation of public class ServiceResponse { private string _messageToUser = string.Empty; private ActionResult _result = ActionResult.Success; public ActionResult Result // Success, Failure, Timeout { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; } } public string MessageToUser { get { return _messageToUser; } set { _messageToUser = value; } } } public abstract class ServiceResponse<TResponseData> : ServiceResponse { public TResponseData Data { get; set; } } If the service has trouble responding the right way, I would want the thrown Exception to be intercepted and converted to the expected implementation. base on the thrown exception, I would want to pass on a nice message. here is how one of the service methods looks like: [Transaction(TransactionMode.Requires)] public virtual SaveResponse InsertOrUpdate(WarehouseDto dto) { var w = dto.Id > 0 ? _dao.GetById(dto.Id) : new Warehouse(); w.Name = dto.Name; _dao.SaveOrUpdate(w); return new SaveResponse { Data = new InsertData { Id = w.Id } }; } I need the thrown Exception for the Transaction to be rolled back, so i cannot actually catch it and return something else. Any ideas, where I could hook in?

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  • QT NOOB: Add action handler for multiple objects of same type.

    - by what
    I have a simple QT application with 10 radio buttons with names radio_1 through radio_10. It is a ui called Selector, and is part of a class called TimeSelector In my header file for this design, i have this: //! [1] class TimeSelector : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: TimeSelector(QWidget *parent = 0); private slots: //void on_inputSpinBox1_valueChanged(int value); //void on_inputSpinBox2_valueChanged(int value); private: Ui::Selector ui; }; //! [1] the commented out void_on_inputSpinBox1_valueChanged(int value) is from the tutorial for the simple calculator. I know i can do: void on_radio_1_valueChanged(int value); but I would need 10 functions. I want to be able to make one function that works for everything, and lets me pass in maybe a name of the radio button that called it, or a reference to the radio button so i can work with it and determine who it was. I am very new to QT but this seems like it should be very basic and doable, thanks.

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  • jQuery ajax returns

    - by Tom
    I think this will be some obvious problem, but I cannot figure it out. I hope someone can help me. So I have a slider with 3 slides - Intro, Question, Submit Now I want to make sure that if the question is answered wrong people cannot slide to Submit. The function to move slide is like this: function changeSlide(slide){ // In case current slide is question check the answer if (jQuery('.modalSteps li.current',base).hasClass('questionStep')){ checkAnswer(jQuery('input[name="question_id"]',base).val(), jQuery('input[name="answer"]:checked',base).val()); } jQuery('.modalSteps li.current',base).fadeOut('fast',function(){ jQuery(this).removeClass('current'); jQuery(slide).fadeIn('fast',function(){ jQuery(slide).addClass('current'); }); }); // In case the new slide is question, load the question if (jQuery(slide).hasClass('questionStep')){ var country = jQuery('input[name="country"]:checked',base).val(); loadQuestion(country); } } Now as you can see on first lines, I am calling function checkAnswer, which takes id of question and id of answer and pass it to the AJAX call. function checkAnswer(question, answer){ jQuery.ajax({ url: window.base_url+'ajax/check_answer/'+question+'/'+answer+'/', success: function(data){ if (!data.success){ jQuery('.question',base).html(data.message); } } }); } The problem i am having is that I cannot say if(checkAnswer(...)){} Because of Ajax it always returns false or undefined. What I need is something like this: function changeSlide(slide){ // In case current slide is question check the answer if (jQuery('.modalSteps li.current',base).hasClass('questionStep')){ if (!checkAnswer(jQuery('input[name="question_id"]',base).val(), jQuery('input[name="answer"]:checked',base).val())){ return false; } } ... So it will prevent the slide from moving on. Now when Im thinking about it, I will probably have slide like "Wrong answer" so I could just move the slide there, but I would like to see the first solution anyway. Thank you for tips

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  • Why doesn't my text be bold when displaying on device screen

    - by john123
    My string.xml: <!--I try to bold my argument %s, like below:--> <string name="hello">Hello to: <b>%s</b> !</string> My layout main.xml: <LinearLayout ...> <TextView android:id="@+id/hello_txt" ... .../> </LinearLayout> My Fragment class: public class MyFragment extends Fragment{ TextView helloTxt; @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreateView(inflater, container, savedInstanceState); helloTxt = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.hello_txt); } @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); //pass "Monday" as the argument to my string helloTxt.setText(String.format(getString(R.string.hello), "Monday")); } } When I run my app on my device, I got "Hello to: Monday !" displaying on screen, but the "Monday" is not bold, but I used <b> in my string.xml. Why it is not bold??

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  • Getting ellipses function parameters without an initial argument

    - by Tox1k
    So I've been making a custom parser for a scripting language, and I wanted to be able to pass only ellipses arguments. I don't need or want an initial variable, however Microsoft and C seem to want something else. FYI, see bottom for info. I've looked at the va_* definitions #define _crt_va_start(ap,v) ( ap = (va_list)_ADDRESSOF(v) + _INTSIZEOF(v) ) #define _crt_va_arg(ap,t) ( *(t *)((ap += _INTSIZEOF(t)) - _INTSIZEOF(t)) ) #define _crt_va_end(ap) ( ap = (va_list)0 ) and the part I don't want is the v in va_start. As a little background I'm competent in goasm and I know how the stack works so I know what's happening here. I was wondering if there is a way to get the function stack base without having to use inline assembly. Ideas I've had: #define im_va_start(ap) (__asm { mov [ap], ebp }) and etc... but really I feel like that's messy and I'm doing it wrong. struct function_table { const char* fname; (void)(*fptr)(...); unsigned char maxArgs; }; function_table mytable[] = { { "MessageBox", &tMessageBoxA, 4 } }; ... some function that sorts through a const char* passed to it to find the matching function in mytable and calls tMessageBoxA with the params. Also, the maxArgs argument is just so I can check that a valid number of parameters is being sent. I have personal reasons for not wanting to send it in the function, but in the meantime we can just say it's because I'm curious. This is just an example; custom libraries are what I would be implementing so it wouldn't just be calling WinAPI stuff. void tMessageBoxA(...) { // stuff to load args passed MessageBoxA(arg1, arg2, arg3, arg4); } I'm using the __cdecl calling convention and I've looked up ways to reliably get a pointer to the base of the stack (not the top) but I can't seem to find any. Also, I'm not worried about function security or typechecking.

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  • recvfrom returns invalid argument when *from* is passed

    - by Aditya Sehgal
    I am currently writing a small UDP server program in linux. The UDP server will receive packets from two different peers and will perform different operations based on from which peer it received the packet. I am trying to determine the source from where I receive the packet. However, when select returns and recvfrom is called, it returns with an error of Invalid Argument. If I pass NULL as the second last arguments, recvfrom succeeds. I have tried declaring fromAddr as struct sockaddr_storage, struct sockaddr_in, struct sockaddr without any success. Is their something wrong with this code? Is this the correct way to determine the source of the packet? The code snippet follows. ` /*TODO : update for TCP. use recv */ if((pkInfo->rcvLen=recvfrom(psInfo->sockFd, pkInfo->buffer, MAX_PKTSZ, 0, /* (struct sockaddr*)&fromAddr,*/ NULL, &(addrLen) )) < 0) { perror("RecvFrom failed\n"); } else { /*Apply Filter */ #if 0 struct sockaddr_in* tmpAddr; tmpAddr = (struct sockaddr_in* )&fromAddr; printf("Received Msg From %s\n",inet_ntoa(tmpAddr->sin_addr)); #endif printf("Packet Received of len = %d\n",pkInfo->rcvLen); } `

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  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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