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  • ASP.NET Loading a User Control in a Repeater

    - by user70192
    Hello, I have a Repeater control that loads instances of a custom control I have built. This repeater looks like this: <asp:Repeater ID="myRepeater" runat="server" OnLoad="myRepeater_Load"> <HeaderTemplate> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <tr><td><my:CustomControl ID="myControl" runat="server" OnLoad="myControl_Load" /> </td></tr> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </table> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I bind to the Repeater through the myRepeater_Load event handler. My custom control is used to render an item within the Repeater. Because of this, I am trying to set properties on the custom control during the myControl_Load event handler. However, I do not know how to access the current item during the myControl_Load event. Is there a way I can pass along the current item or access the current item during the myControl_Load event? If so, how? Thank you,

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  • How do you protect a common resource using mutexes?

    - by Steve
    I have a common resource, which I want 1 and only 1 instance of my application (or it's COM API) to have access to at any time. I have tried to protect this resource using mutexes, but when multiple threads of a host dotnet application try to access the COM object, the mutex doesn't seem to be released. This is the code I have used to protect my resource. repeat Mutex := CreateMutex(nil, True, PChar('Connections')); until (Mutex <> 0) and (GetLastError <> ERROR_ALREADY_EXISTS); try //use resource here! finally CloseHandle(Mutex); end; If I run the threads simultaneously, the first thread get's through (obviously, being the first one to create the mutex), but subsequent threads are caught in the repeat loop. If I run each thread at 5 second intervals, then all is ok. I suspect I'm not using mutexes correctly here, but I have found very little documentation about how to do this. Any ideas?

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  • C# connect to domain SQL Server 2005 from non-domain machine

    - by user304582
    Hi, I asked a question a few days ago (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2795723/access-to-sql-server-2005-from-a-non-domain-machine-using-windows-authentication) which got some interesting, but not usable suggestions. I'd like to ask the question again, but make clear what my constraints are: I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I CANNOT create or modify OS or SQL Server users on either machine, and I CANNOT make any changes to permissions or impersonation, and I CANNOT make use of runas. I know that I can write Perl and Java applications that can connect to the SQL Server database using only these four parameters: server name, database name, username (in the form domain\user), and password. In C# I have tried various things around: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); and tried setting integrated security to true and false, but nothing seems to work. Is what I am trying to do simply impossible in C#? Thanks for any help, Martin

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  • Read attributes of MSBuild custom tasks via events in the Logger

    - by gt
    I am trying to write a MSBuild logger module which logs information when receiving TaskStarted events about the Task and its parameters. The build is run with the command: MSBuild.exe /logger:MyLogger.dll build.xml Within the build.xml is a sequence of tasks, most of which have been custom written to compile a (C++ or C#) solution, and are accessed with the following custom Task: <DoCompile Desc="Building MyProject 1" Param1="$(Param1Value)" /> <DoCompile Desc="Building MyProject 2" Param1="$(Param1Value)" /> <!-- etc --> The custom build task DoCompile is defined as: public class DoCompile : Microsoft.Build.Utilities.Task { [Required] public string Description { set { _description = value; } } // ... more code here ... } Whilst the build is running, as each task starts, the logger module receives IEventSource.TaskStarted events, subscribed to as follows: public class MyLogger : Microsoft.Build.Utilities.Logger { public override void Initialize(Microsoft.Build.Framework.IEventSource eventSource) { eventSource.TaskStarted += taskStarted; } private void taskStarted(object sender, Microsoft.Build.Framework.TaskStartedEventArgs e) { // write e.TaskName, attributes and e.Timestamp to log file } } The problem I have is that in the taskStarted() method above, I want to be able to access the attributes of the task for which the event was fired. I only have access to the logger code and cannot change either the build.xml or the custom build tasks. Can anyone suggest a way I can do this?

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  • how to templatize partial template specializations?

    - by Kyle
    I'm not even sure what title to give this question; hopefully the code will demonstrate what I'm trying to do: #include <string> #include <list> using namespace std; template<typename A> class Alpha { public: A m_alpha_a; }; template<typename B> class Bravo { public: B m_bravo_b; }; template<> class Alpha<string> { public: string m_alpha_string; }; template<typename B> template<> class Alpha<Bravo<B> > { public: Bravo<B> m_bravo_class; // Line A }; int main() { Alpha<int> alpha_int; alpha_int.m_alpha_a= 4; Alpha<string> alpha_string; alpha_string.m_alpha_string = "hi"; Alpha<Bravo<int> > alpha_bravo_int; alpha_bravo_int.m_bravo_class.m_bravo_b = 9; }; I want to write a specialization for Alpha<A> when A is of any type Bravo<B>, but the compiler says invalid explicit specialization before ‘’ token enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized (Referring to // Line A.) What's the correct syntax to do what I want?

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  • How do I get Bison/YACC to not recognize a command until it parses the whole string?

    - by chucknelson
    I have some bison grammar: input: /* empty */ | input command ; command: builtin | external ; builtin: CD { printf("Changing to home directory...\n"); } | CD WORD printf("Changing to directroy %s\n", $2); } ; I'm wondering how I get Bison to not accept (YYACCEPT?) something as a command until it reads ALL of the input. So I can have all these rules below that use recursion or whatever to build things up, which either results in a valid command or something that's not going to work. One simple test I'm doing with the code above is just entering "cd mydir mydir". Bison parses CD and WORD and goes "hey! this is a command, put it to the top!". Then the next token it finds is just WORD, which has no rule, and then it reports an error. I want it to read the whole line and realize CD WORD WORD is not a rule, and then report an error. I think I'm missing something obvious and would greatly appreciate any help - thanks! Also - I've tried using input command NEWLINE or something similar, but it still pushes CD WORD to the top as a command and then parses the extra WORD separately.

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  • Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

    - by Rob
    hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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  • c incompatible types in assignment, problem with pointers?

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hi I'm working with C and I have a question about assigning pointers. struct foo { int _bar; char * _car[MAXINT]; // this is meant to be an array of char * so that it can hold pointers to names of cars } int foofunc (void * arg) { int bar; char * car[MAXINT]; struct foo thing = (struct foo *) arg; bar = arg->_bar; // this works fine car = arg->_car; // this gives compiler errors of incompatible types in assignment } car and _car have same declaration so why am I getting an error about incompatible types? My guess is that it has something to do with them being pointers (because they are pointers to arrays of char *, right?) but I don't see why that is a problem. when i declared char * car; instead of char * car[MAXINT]; it compiles fine. but I don't see how that would be useful to me later when I need to access certain info using index, it would be very annoying to access that info later. in fact, I'm not even sure if I am going about the right way, maybe there is a better way to store a bunch of strings instead of using array of char *?

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  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

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  • Is a GWT app running on Google App Engine protected from CSRF

    - by gerdemb
    I'm developing a GWT app running on the Google App Engine and wondering if I need to worry about Cross-site request forgery or is that automatically taken care of for me? For every RPC request that requires authentication, I have the following code: public class BookServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements BookService { public void deleteInventory(Key<Inventory> inventoryKey) throws NotLoggedInException, InvalidStateException, NotFoundException { DAO dao = new DAO(); // This will throw NotLoggedInException if user is not logged in User user = dao.getCurrentUser(); // Do deletion here } } public final class DAO extends DAOBase { public User getCurrentUser() throws NotLoggedInException { currentUser = UserServiceFactory.getUserService().getCurrentUser(); if(currentUser == null) { throw new NotLoggedInException(); } return currentUser; } I couldn't find any documentation on how the UserService checks authentication. Is it enough to rely on the code above or do I need to to more? I'm a beginner at this, but from what I understand to avoid CSRF attacks some of the strategies are: adding an authentication token in the request payload instead of just checking a cookie checking the HTTP Referer header I can see that I have cookies set from Google with what look like SID values, but I can't tell from the serialized Java objects in the payloads if tokens are being passed or not. I also don't know if the Referer header is being used or not. So, am I worrying about a non-issue? If not, what is the best strategy here? This is a common enough problem, that there must be standard solutions out there...

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  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

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  • Reading system.net/mailSettings/smtp from Web.config in Medium trust environment

    - by Carson63000
    Hi, I have some inherited code which stores SMTP server, username, password in the system.net/mailSettings/smtp section of the Web.config. It used to read them like so: Configuration c = WebConfigurationManager.OpenWebConfiguration(HttpContext.Current.Request.ApplicationPath); MailSettingsSectionGroup settings = (MailSettingsSectionGroup)c.GetSectionGroup("system.net/mailSettings"); return settings.Smtp.Network.Host; But this was failing when I had to deploy to a medium trust environment. So following the answer from this question, I rewrote it to use GetSection() like so: SmtpSection settings = (SmtpSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.net/mailSettings/smtp"); return settings.Network.Host; But it's still giving me a SecurityException on Medium trust, with the following message: Request for ConfigurationPermission failed while attempting to access configuration section 'system.net/mailSettings/smtp'. To allow all callers to access the data for this section, set section attribute 'requirePermission' equal 'false' in the configuration file where this section is declared. So I tried this requirePermission attribute, but can't figure out where to put it. If I apply it to the <smtp> node, I get a ConfigurationError: "Unrecognized attribute 'requirePermission'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive." If I apply it to the <mailSettings> node, I still get the SecurityException. Is there any way to get at this config section programatically under medium trust? Or should I just give up on it and move the setting into <appSettings>?

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  • Python: slow read & write for millions of small files

    - by Jami
    I am building directory tree which has tons of subdirectories and files. The total directory count is somewhere along 256^32 subdirectories with 256 files in each end which are only a few bytes long. I did this so I would have fast access to these files (since i'm not searching and i'm just directly accessing then via a known file path) I have a python script that builds this filesystem and reads & writes those files. The problem is that when I reach more than 1Gb of total filesize, the read and write methods become extremely slow. Here's the function I have that reads the contents of a file (the file contains an integer string), adds a certain number to it, then writes it back to the original file. def addInFile(path, scoreToAdd): num = scoreToAdd try: shutil.copyfile(path, '/tmp/tmp.txt') fp = open('/tmp/tmp.txt', 'r') num += int(fp.readlines()[0]) fp.close() except: pass fp = open('/tmp/tmp.txt', 'w') fp.write(str(num)) fp.close() shutil.copyfile('/tmp/tmp.txt', path) I previously tried performing linux console commands but it was slower. I copy the file to a temporary file first then access/modify it then copy it back because i found this was faster than directly accessing the file. I think the cause of the slowdown is because there're tons of files. performing this function 1000 times sometimes reach 1 minute now, but before (when there were only a few files, 1000 calls was performed for only less than 1 second) How do you suggest I fix this?

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  • Forward declaration of derived inner class

    - by Loom
    I ran into problem implementing some variations of factory method. // from IFoo.h struct IFoo { struct IBar { virtual ~IBar() = 0; virtual void someMethod() = 0; }; virtual IBar *createBar() = 0; }; // from Foo.h struct Foo : IFoo { // implementation of Foo, Bar in Foo.cpp struct Bar : IBar { virtual ~Bar(); virtual void someMethod(); }; virtual Bar *createBar(); // implemented in Foo.cpp }; I'd like to place declaration of Foo::Bar in Foo.cpp. For now I cannot succeed: struct Foo : IFoo { //struct Bar; //1. error: invalid covariant return type // for ‘virtual Foo::Bar* //struct Bar : IBar; //2. error: expected ‘{’ before ‘;’ token virtual Bar *createBar(); // virtual IBar *createBar(); // Is not acceptable by-design }; Is there a trick to have just forward declaration of Boo in Foo.hpp and to have full declaration in Foo.cpp?

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  • Cannot get new product attribute in grid display

    - by russjman
    I added a new attribute to my products(a boolean "yes/no" field). It is a variable to enable/disable the price from displaying on the product detail page, and grid view. I managed to get it work on the product info page. But on product grid page I cant seem to access that variable. Specifically, the template i am working with is catalog/product/price.phtml. From what i can tell, the price is being displayed by the same group of if-statements on both the product detail page, and grid page. This has me confused because i cant find any code on that template to handle multiple products, just a bunch of nested if statements. this is how im attempting to access this new variable using $_displayPrice. on line 36 of catalog/product/price.html <?php $_product = $this->getProduct(); ?> <?php $_id = $_product->getId() ?> <?php $_displayPrice = $_product->getDisplayPrice() ? "Yes" : "No"; echo $_displayPrice;?> What has me further confused is that when display $_product-getData(), my new variable isn't anywhere among that data. thanks in advance

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Accessing web.config from Sharepoint web part

    - by philj
    I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <connectionStrings/> <system.web> <appSettings> <add key="MFOwner" value="Blah" /> </appSettings> ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTimer FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

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  • Reading data from an open HTTP stream

    - by allenjones
    Hi, I am trying to use the .NET WebRequest/WebResponse classes to access the Twitter streaming API here "http://stream.twitter.com/spritzer.json". I need to be able to open the connection and read data incrementally from the open connection. Currently, when I call WebRequest.GetResponse method, it blocks until the entire response is downloaded. I know there is a BeginGetResponse method, but this will just do the same thing on a background thread. I need to get access to the response stream while the download is still happening. This just does not seem possible to me with these classes. There is a specific comment about this in the Twitter documentation: "Please note that some HTTP client libraries only return the response body after the connection has been closed by the server. These clients will not work for accessing the Streaming API. You must use an HTTP client that will return response data incrementally. Most robust HTTP client libraries will provide this functionality. The Apache HttpClient will handle this use case, for example." They point to the Appache HttpClient, but that doesn't help much because I need to use .NET. Any ideas whether this is possible with WebRequest/WebResponse, or do I have to go for lower level networking classes? Maybe there are other libraries that will allow me to do this? Thx Allen

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  • How can I test a CRON job with PHP?

    - by alex
    This is the first time I've ever used a CRON. I'm using it to parse external data that is automatically FTP'd to a subdirectory on our site. I have created a controller and model which handles the data. I can access the URL fine in my browser and it works (however I will be restricting this soon). My problem is, how can I test if it's working? I've added this to my controller for a quick and dirty log $file = 'test.txt'; $contents = ''; if (file_exists($file)) { $contents = file_get_contents($file); } $contents .= date('m-d-Y') . ' --- ' . PHP_SAPI . "\n\n"; file_put_contents($file, $contents); But so far only got requests logged from myself from the browser, despite having my CRON running ever minute. 03-18-2010 --- cgi-fcgi 03-18-2010 --- cgi-fcgi I've set it up using cPanel with the command index.php properties/update/ the 2nd portion is what I use to access the page in my browser. So how can I test this is working properly, and have I stuffed anything up? Note: I'm using Kohana 3. Many thanks

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  • Transitioning from desktop app written in C++ to a web-based app

    - by Karim
    We have a mature Windows desktop application written in C++. The application's GUI sits on top of a windows DLL that does most of the work for the GUI (it's kind of the engine). It, too, is written in C++. We are considering transitioning the Windows app to be a web-based app for various reasons. What I would like to avoid is having to writing the CGI for this web-based app in C++. That is, I would rather have the power of a 4G language like Python or a .NET language for creating the web-based version of this app. So, the question is: given that I need to use a C++ DLL on the backend to do the work of the app what technology stack would you recommend for sitting between the user's browser and are C++ dll? We can assume that the web server will be Windows. Some options: Write a COM layer on top of the windows DLL which can then be access via .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI Access the export DLL interface directly from .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI. Write a custom Python library that wraps the windows DLL so that the rest of the code can be written. Write the CGI using C++ and a C++-based MVC framework like Wt Concerns: I would rather not use C++ for the web framework if it can be avoided - I think languages like Python and C# are simply more powerful and efficient in terms of development time. I'm concerned that my mixing managed and unmanaged code with one of the .NET solutions I'm asking for lots of little problems that are hard to debug (purely anecdotal evidence for that) Same is true for using a Python layer. Anything that's slightly off the beaten path like that worries me in that I don't have much evidence one way or the other if this is a viable long term solution.

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  • Intermittent SQL Server ODBC Timeout expired

    - by Wili
    We have a bunch of VB6 applications that access two different database servers (both 32-bit windows 2003, one SQL Server 2000, one SQL Server 2005). About every ten minutes or so, we are getting a few errors: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]Timeout expired [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][DBNETLIB]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]ConnectionRead() This is happening on more than a dozen different computers at random times. We also have IP phones that all run through the same network and those are not having any problems. We can also VNC into a users computer and reproduce the error they were getting, but VNC still continues to work. Email also works. It just seems to be an ODBC connection to SQL Server that causes the issue. The errors happen for both of our SQL Servers. We have scoured google, but haven't been able to come up with a solution. Is there anything we can try to diagnose the problem? Is there any fix out there?

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  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • BackgroundWorker and instance variables

    - by Alastair Pitts
    One thing that's always confused me is how a BackgroundWorker seems to have thread-safe access to the instance variables of the surrounding class. Given a basic class: public class BackgroundProcessor { public List<int> Items { get; private set; } public BackgroundProcessor(IEnumerable<int> items) { Items = new List<int>(items); } public void DoWork() { BackgroundWorker worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(worker_RunWorkerCompleted); worker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(worker_DoWork); worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } void worker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { var processor = new ProcessingClass(); processor.Process(this.Points); //Accessing the instance variable } void worker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { //Stuff goes here } } Am I erroneous in my assumption the the call to processor.Process(this.Points); is a thread-safe call? How don't I get a cross-thread access violation? I'm sure it's obvious, but it always has confused me.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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