Search Results

Search found 18913 results on 757 pages for 'ideas'.

Page 562/757 | < Previous Page | 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569  | Next Page >

• mod_rewrite and Apache questions

  - by John

  We have an interesting situation in relation to some help desk software that we are trying to setup. This is a web based software application that allows customers and staff to log into it and access tickets and supply updates, etc. The challenge we are having deals with the two different domains that we use and the mod_rewrite rules to make it all work with our SSL certificate that is only bound to one of the domains. I will list the use case scenarios below and the challenges that we are having. If you access http://support.domain1.com/support then it redirects fine to https://support.domain2.com/support If you access http://support.domain2.com/support then it redirects fine to https://support.domain2.com/support If you access https://support.domain1.com/support then it throws an error of "server cannot be found" If you access https://support.domain1.com/support/ after having visited https://support.domain2.com/support then you are presented with a "this connection is untrusted" error about the certificate only being valid for the domain2 domain instead of the domain1 domain name I have tried just about every mod_rewrite rule that I can think of to help make this work and I have not been able to locate the correct combination. I was curious if anyone had some ideas on how to make the redirects work correctly. In the end, we are needing all customers and staff to land at https://support.domain2.com/support regardless of the previous URL combinations that they enter, like listed above. Thanks in advance for your help with this.

  Read the article

• How do I remove a printer connection without the user's intervention?

  - by 1.618

  Here's the situation: We're replacing 11 printers with newer models, and we'll be installing them on our print server and sharing them out. The plan is to share the new printers under different names than the ones they're replacing, and un-share the old ones. So I need to come up with a way to remove the client connections to old printers automatically. Clients are mostly Windows 7 with a few XP. My first idea was to call prnmngr.vbs from the login script to remove each old printer explicitly by name. The problem is that some users don't log out when they're done for the day, so I can't count on their login script running before they next need to print. I could remotely run prnmngr.vbs using SCCM, but if it's not 'impersonating' the user, I don't think it will remove their printers. Any ideas? Could I lookup how to access WMI using c# code and write a "trojan" to remove specific printers without requiring the user to do anything? (I'm only half joking). I'm open to any suggestion! Thanks!

  Read the article

• Set document root for external subdomain (A Record) via htaccess

  - by 1nsane

  I have a managed server (unable to control apache settings) with the default document root of: /var/www I have a web app running in: /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot I have a dedicated domain managed by the host that has the aforementioned webroot which works perfectly. I would like to allow externally provisioned domains to point to the server/web app via A Record config. If I access the site via IP, it takes me to the index located in /var/www. I would like to configure the .htaccess in my /var/www directory to rewrite requests from the external subdomain to the /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot directory. I've done so using the following rules: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} external\.domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot/index.php?url=$1 [L,QSA] When accessing external.domain.com, the app loads properly, but the paths to things like CSS files, images, etc. are prefixed with "/subdomains/app/", causing broken links. I've tried changing the RewriteBase (both in /var/www and /var/www/subdomains/app/webroot), as I believe that's what it's designed for - but no luck. Any ideas? FYI the app is built on CakePHP. Thanks

  Read the article

• I can get in, but I can't get out

  - by robwilkerson

  Like most technical folks, I suppose, I'm my family's primary source of tech support. I'm a developer--not a sysadmin--by trade and tonight I bumped into something I've never seen before. I'm hoping someone here has. In order to better help my Mom, I have her set up on a home network behind a Linksys router (WRT54G). She's got a Mac, so I have her router set up to forward SSH requests to her laptop's internal IP. I also have her router running DDNS through DynDns. Tonight she called to tell me that she can't access the Internet. Assuming it was one of the many simple, stupid problems most of us encounter with parents, I logged into the router admin remotely and took a look around. Everything looked normal. Then I SSH'd into her machine to check out her IP, DNS, etc. settings. Everything still looked fine. Then I noticed something weird. When SSH'd into her machine, I can't ping her router. In other words, I seem to be able to access her computer through her router, but not access her router from her computer. A traceroute dies immediately as well. Any ideas what I might try next? I've bounced her computer and even unplugged her router (it was plugged back in, of course). Thanks.

  Read the article

• I can get in, but I can't get out

  - by robwilkerson

  Like most technical folks, I suppose, I'm my family's primary source of tech support. I'm a developer--not a sysadmin--by trade and tonight I bumped into something I've never seen before. I'm hoping someone here has. In order to better help my Mom, I have her set up on a home network behind a Linksys router (WRT54G). She's got a Mac, so I have her router set up to forward SSH requests to her laptop's internal IP. I also have her router running DDNS through DynDns. Tonight she called to tell me that she can't access the Internet. Assuming it was one of the many simple, stupid problems most of us encounter with parents, I logged into the router admin remotely and took a look around. Everything looked normal. Then I SSH'd into her machine to check out her IP, DNS, etc. settings. Everything still looked fine. Then I noticed something weird. When SSH'd into her machine, I can't ping her router. In other words, I seem to be able to access her computer through her router, but not access her router from her computer. A traceroute dies immediately as well. Any ideas what I might try next? I've bounced her computer and even unplugged her router (it was plugged back in, of course). Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to access files on a USB-connected NTFS disk removed from a Win7 notebook?

  - by yosh m

  My daughter seems to have fried her motherboard in her Lenovo Notebook. The disk seems to be fine. I removed the disk and used a universal disk-to-USB kit to attach it to another computer. The disk is recognized fine and I can peruse it in Windows Explorer. The problem is that the files she would like to recover from it are located in places that Windows refuses to let me access. When I try, for example, to enter the directory "Documents and Settings" it gives me an "Access is denied" error. Same thing when I try to go into the various User directories and other locations. I thought to try creating a Ghost image & retrieve the files from that, but Ghost seems to croak when I try to run it - apparently it doesn't like accessing the disk via a USB connection (even though I've told it to install the drivers for USB). Any other ideas about how to get to the files I need, either through Windows or perhaps some other OS that I could boot from a CD that can read an NTFS disk? Thanks, Yosh

  Read the article

• Comparing 128MB GeForce 8600GT and 512MB Radeon X1650

  - by Synetech inc.

  Hi, I'm trying to determine which is the better of these two video cards: 128MB Nvidia GeForce 8600GT card while the other has a 512MB ATI Radeon X1650 card. Both cards are the upper-level mid-range versions of their respective series. On the one hand, the ATI has substantially more VRAM, but the Nvidia supports D3D 10 and SM4.0 as opposed to D3D 9.0c/SM3.0 that the ATI supports. Also, I have always heard better things about Nvidia cards compared to ATI cards. I'm trying to find some advice on which one is better, but I can't find any actual comparisons or anything for these specific cards (the comparisons I can find are only similar ones like the X1650 Pro or 8600GT PCI-E), so I figure that what I need to know is whether the extra VRAM is that important. Looking at the ATI table and the Nvidia table seems to indicate that the Nvidia is better, but then again, the Nvidia table also says that the GeForce 8600GT is a PCI-E card with at least 256MB even though the card in question is an AGP with 128MB. (:-?) (It looks like the ATI card is not supported in Windows 7 while the Nvidia card is, which I suppose is also a factor, though not quite as immediately relevant as performance.) Any ideas? Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• Hp Pavilion dv6000 wont boot right and freezes

  - by MalwareManiac

  I have an hp pavilion dv6000 that was having windows issues recently including randomly freezing. I eventually concluded that the hard drive was bad (And I was correct as the bad drive started making funny noises and quit working soon after). So I replaced it with a known good drive and put windows on it and it worked for a few hours. After a few restarts startup didn't even make it to the login screen. It just stays at a lighted black screen until I restarted. After another restart it made it to windows but then froze after a few minutes. A few more restarts yielded one of these two results. Like I mentioned earlier I have a know good drive in it and I also replaced the memory that was in it with a know good stick along with running memtest with no errors. So What does that leave? a corrupted windows installation? Motherboard? CPU? Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Determining how all memory is used in Windows Server 2008

  - by Mojah

  I have a Windows Server 2008 system, which has 12GB of RAM. If I list all processes in the Task Manager, and SUM() the memory of each process (Working Set, Memory (Private Working Set), Commit Size, ...), I never reach more than 4-5GB that should be "in use". However, task manager reports this server has 11GB in use via the "Performance" tab. I'm failing in determining where all that used RAM is going. It doesn't seem to be system cache, but I can not be sure. It might be a memory leak in one of the appliances, but I'm struggling to find out which one. The server's memory keeps filing up, and eventually forces us to reboot the device to clear it. I've been reading up on how RAM assignments work on Windows Server: RAM, Virtual Memory, Pagefile and all that stuff: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2267427 What's the best way to measure? http://www.zdnet.com/blog/bott/windows-7-memory-usage-whats-the-best-way-to-measure/1786 Configure the file system cache in Windows: http://smallvoid.com/article/winnt-system-cache.html But I fear I'm stuck without ideas at the moment.

  Read the article

• Discover intended Foreign Keys from JOINS in scripts

  - by Jason

  I'm inheriting a database that has 400 tables and only 150 foreign key constraints registered. Knowing what I do about the application and looking at the table columns, it's easy to say that there ought to be a lot more. I'm afraid that the current application software will break if I started adding the missing FKs because the developers have probably come to rely on this "freedom", but step one in fixing the problem is to come up with the list of missing FKs so we can evaluate them as a team. To make matters worse, the referencing columns don't share a naming convention. The relationships ARE coded informally into the hundreds of ad-hoc queries and stored procedures, so my hope is to parse these files programmatically looking for JOINS between actual tables (but not table variables, etc). Challenges I foresee in this approach are: newlines, optional aliases and table hints, alias resolution. Any better ideas? (Besides quitting) Are there any pre-built tools that can solve this? I don't think regex can handle this. Do you disagree? SQL Parsers? I tried using Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.SqlParser.Parser but all that is exposed is the lexer - can't get an AST out of it - all that stuff is internal.

  Read the article

• .htaccess redirect working on localhost but not on server

  - by Thread7

  I want users who hit my web site's root directory to be sent to a subdirectory. So anyone going to: http://MyDomain.com or /index.php would be sent to http://MyDomain.com/subdir I used the .htaccess file to successfully do this on my local machine (with Apache 2). But it doesn't work on the server? Users still see the default index.php in the root directory. Here is my simple .htaccess file. Any ideas? RewriteEngine On Redirect /index.php http://MyDomain.com/subdir/ Now my httpd.conf file AccessFileName .htaccess <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/icons"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <IfModule mod_negotiation.c> <IfModule mod_include.c> <Directory "/var/www/error"> AllowOverride None Options IncludesNoExec AddOutputFilter Includes html AddHandler type-map var Order allow,deny Allow from all LanguagePriority en es de fr ForceLanguagePriority Prefer Fallback </Directory> </IfModule> </IfModule>

  Read the article

• VzAccess Manager.

  - by bek

  I have verizon air card for my internet. Which is called vz manager. I have had it for about a year. Keeping within my usage allowance the whole time until 3 months ago, when my bill came in my 5,000 g allowance was ran to 18,000. It has continued to do so through the last 3 months. My usage reset itself yesterday for the new month. I got on google for about 5 minutes and chatted for about an hour yesterday online. Mind you that I have never done anything any different then i do everyday. I do not download music or watch videos on my computer, nothing like that. Well since last night a 8 pm my usage sayd 1109.525 gb. ALREADY! For being on the internet for an hour with no downloads. What could be causing this, please thrown me some ideas. Verizon is checking on the problem, but that usually doesnt get me the answer i want. Can someone be hacking my card and using internet through it, has told me that that is not possible, however I think with the internet anytihng is possible.

  Read the article

• I'm having trouble getting my server to appear online.

  - by JMRboosties

  Total newb question I'm sure. First I had installed WAMP (http://www.wampserver.com), and I was able to access my pages from other computers in my router network, and the virtual device used to debug Android programs (the purpose of my having a server). This functionality failed, however, at some point over these past few days. While my own browser displays the pages just fine, other computers, my Android phone (on our room's wifi), and my virtual device are no longer able to connect to my pages. I had not made any changes in the settings. I uninstalled WAMP and installed EasyPHP. However, the problem was not resolved. I know this is rather vague, but does anyone here have an idea of what may have happened? I forwarded both port 80 (I know its the default HTTP port, I did it just to be safe), and now port 8888 which EasyPHP uses. I turned my firewall on my hosting computer off for good measure. I cannot access my pages from neither remote computers or computers using my router. Any ideas you may have on how to resolve this would be awesome, thanks a lot. And if you need anymore info please tell me.

  Read the article

• what is best multi-server configuration with OpenVPN

  - by sebut

  We have a number of Database severs running MongoDB on Debian plus a number of Application servers also on Debian. The db servers hold replicating db clusters, so they need to talk to each other. Application servers need to talk to all db servers (for reasons of fault tolerance). The servers are potentially spread across multiple hosting centers, so we need secure channels between all servers. The number of servers is bound to grow, so we need a VPN solution that's easy to maintain and expand. This is why I feel that SSH that we use for testing might not be up to the task and OpenVPN seems the way to go. I have ruled out TAP, since I understand that this would mean all traffic going to all the servers - perhaps this is a misunderstanding and TAP acts more like a switch? With TUN devices I imagine that all DB servers would live in their own separate subnet, they would also need a client configured to be able to connect to each of their peers. The application servers could live in a common subnet range with a client config only. Does this sound like a reasonable setup? Strangely, on the web I did not find anything about multi-server with OpenVPN. Thanks for all insights and ideas!

  Read the article

• Diagnosing PC crashes (most often while using shared folders or torrents)

  - by Dyppl

  For the last few weeks my PC (pretty old P4 with WinXP SP3) has been crashing randomly. It just suddenly reboots instanteneously. It feels hardware-related but I wasn't able to determine wether it's software or hardware that causes it. I did notice a pattern though: it's more likely to crash when I copy a lot of files over network or have uTorrent running, but sometimes it crashes when I am not doing anything with it. Copying files from it over network causes it to crash in 1 to 10 minutes almost every time. Using torrents causes it to crash every 1-3 hours. With neither or that on it crashes every 24 hours or so. I ruled out the following probable causes: PSU (I bought a new one and turned off most of the drives so the power is sufficient 100%) Bad HDD or interface cable on my SATA disk from which I was originally copying the data over network (bought new SATA cable and later yanked out the HDD completely, PC still crashes without it) Video adapter (AGP slot is now empty, using the onboard VGA at the moment) Network adapter (removed it from PCI, using onboard LAN) CPU (I think: I changed the termopaste and it's temperature is below 50C) RAM (I think: I ran Memtest86 and it didn't show any errors) At the moment I only have only one system HDD and DVD drives, a mouse and a keyboard plugged in. The fact that it crashes most often when I use network extensively makes me think that maybe it's software related (I removed the network adapter from PCI and now am using an onboard one, so network hardware is unlikely to cause problems). I am now pondering system reinstall but it's not a pleasant solution so I decided to ask wether there are better ideas first. If someone can share a good diagnostic tool it would be great because I didn't find anything good. Thanks in advance, I hope that "help to diagnose" questions aren't entirely banned here. EDIT: Motherboard is actually ~4 years old as I replaced it back in 2007

  Read the article

• NFS server hangs after 3 minutes

  - by John P

  I have a VPS running Centos 6.3 with a fully updated NFS. When I mount the NFS directory from the client, everything works perfectly fine for approximately 3 minutes, then the client hangs attempting to see the directory. nfs-utils-1.2.3-26.el6.x86_64 service nfs status rpc.svcgssd is stopped rpc.mountd (pid 2544) is running... nfsd (pid 2609 2608 2607 2606 2605 2604 2603 2602) is running... rpc.rquotad (pid 2540) is running... cat /etc/exports /home/user XX.XX.XX.20(rw,async,no_root_squash) The client is running Centos 5.8. The directory is mounted using mount x.x.x.6:/home/user /mnt When everything is working, I get the following on the client: /usr/sbin/rpcinfo -p X.X.X.6 | grep mountd 100005 1 udp 892 mountd 100005 1 tcp 892 mountd 100005 2 udp 892 mountd 100005 2 tcp 892 mountd 100005 3 udp 892 mountd 100005 3 tcp 892 mountd When it stops working, rpcinfo just hangs on the client, however running the above command on the server does return data. There are no logs on the NFS Server side that would indicate an issue. On the client side, I see: cat /var/log/messages kernel: nfs: server X.X.X.6 not responding, still trying The client and server are plugged into the same switch, however they are on different networks. The server is a VPS while the client is a dedicated box. SELINUX is in permissive mode on both client and server, and I've turned iptables off on the server to make sure that was not causing an issue. Any ideas would be helpful - right now I'm having to restart NFS every two minutes in a cron job to keep it semi working. Thanks

  Read the article

• Would a USB hub work in reverse?

  - by Tim

  Imagine for a moment with a 4 port USB hub. Normally how this would work is the hub has one plug that goes to the computer, then 4 ports that you can plug in other things to (thumb drive, keyboard, mouse etc). I am wondering if I can use it in reverse. So I would have 1 keyboard going in to the hub, and then plug in male to male usb cables from the 4 ports to 4 different PCs, my aim is that when a key is pressed on the keyboard all 4 PCs will receive it as if the keyboard were plugged in to them. Does anyone know if this would work? And if not does anyone have any ideas how I could get the same effect? EDIT: So I am looking for more of a KVM switch type device rather than a USB hub. However all of the KVM switches I've found use some sort of mechanism to select which computer you'll be using. (some are physical switches / buttons, others do it via software "automatically" some how) However I need to have 1 keyboard hooked up to 2 computers and when I press a key on the keyboard I want the keypress to be sent to both computers simultaneously, not to one or the other. Does anyone know if KVMs with this feature exist?

  Read the article

• Moving items from one tableView to another tableView with extra's

  - by Totumus Maximus

  Let's say I have 2 UITableViews next to eachother on an ipad in landscape-mode. Now I want to move multiple items from one tableView to the other. They are allowed to be inserted on the bottom of the other tableView. Both have multiSelection activated. Now the movement itself is no problem with normal cells. But in my program each cell has an object which contains the consolidationState of the cell. There are 4 states a cell can have: Basic, Holding, Parent, Child. Basic = an ordinary cell. Holding = a cell which contains multiple childs but which wont be shown in this state. Parent = a cell which contains multiple childs and are shown directly below this cell. Child = a cell created by the Parent cell. The object in each cell also has some array which contains its children. The object also holds a quantityValue, which is displayed on the cell itself. Now the movement gets tricky. Holding and Parent cells can't move at all. Basic cells can move freely. Child cells can move freely but based on how many Child cells are left in the Parent. The parent will change or be deleted all together. If a Parent cell has more then 1 Child cell left it will stay a Parent cell. Else the Parent has no or 1 Child cell left and is useless. It will then be deleted. The items that are moved will always be of the same state. They will all be Basic cells. This is how I programmed the movement: *First I determine which of the tableViews is the sender and which is the receiver. *Second I ask all indexPathsForSelectedRows and sort them from highest row to lowest. *Then I build the data to be transferred. This I do by looping through the selectedRows and ask their object from the sender's listOfItems. *When I saved all the data I need I delete all the items from the sender TableView. This is why I sorted the selectedRows so I can start at the highest indexPath.row and delete without screwing up the other indexPaths. *When I loop through the selectedRows I check whether I found a cell with state Basic or Child. *If its a Basic cell I do nothing and just delete the cell. (this works fine with all Basic Cells) *If its a Child cell I go and check it's Parent cell immidiately. Since all Child cells are directly below the Parent cell and no other the the Parent's Childs are below that Parent I can safely get the path of the selected Childcell and move upwards and find it's Parent cell. When this Parent cell is found (this will always happen, no exceptions) it has to change accordingly. *The Parent cell will either be deleted or the object inside will have its quantity and children reduced. *After the Parent cell has changed accordingly the Child cell is deleted similarly like the Basic cells *After the deletion of the cells the receiver tableView will build new indexPaths so the movedObjects will have a place to go. *I then insert the objects into the listOfItems of the receiver TableView. The code works in the following ways: Only Basic cells are moved. Basic cells and just 1 child for each parent is moved. A single Basic/Child cell is moved. The code doesn't work when: I select more then 1 or all childs of some parent cell. The problem happens somewhere into updating the parent cells. I'm staring blindly at the code now so maybe a fresh look will help fix things. Any help will be appreciated. Here is the method that should do the movement: -(void)moveSelectedItems { UITableView *senderTableView = //retrieves the table with the data here. UITableView *receiverTableView = //retrieves the table which gets the data here. NSArray *selectedRows = senderTableView.indexPathsForSelectedRows; //sort selected rows from lowest indexPath.row to highest selectedRows = [selectedRows sortedArrayUsingSelector:@selector(compare:)]; //build up target rows (all objects to be moved) NSMutableArray *targetRows = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int i = 0; i<selectedRows.count; i++) { NSIndexPath *path = [selectedRows objectAtIndex:i]; [targetRows addObject:[senderTableView.listOfItems objectAtIndex:path.row]]; } //delete rows at active for (int i = selectedRows.count-1; i >= 0; i--) { NSIndexPath *path = [selectedRows objectAtIndex:i]; //check what item you are deleting. act upon the status. Parent- and HoldingCells cant be selected so only check for basic and childs MyCellObject *item = [senderTableView.listOfItems objectAtIndex:path.row]; if (item.consolidatedState == ConsolidationTypeChild) { for (int j = path.row; j >= 0; j--) { MyCellObject *consolidatedItem = [senderTableView.listOfItems objectAtIndex:j]; if (consolidatedItem.consolidatedState == ConsolidationTypeParent) { //copy the consolidated item but with 1 less quantity MyCellObject *newItem = [consolidatedItem copyWithOneLessQuantity]; //creates a copy of the object with 1 less quantity. if (newItem.quantity > 1) { newItem.consolidatedState = ConsolidationTypeParent; [senderTableView.listOfItems replaceObjectAtIndex:j withObject:newItem]; } else if (newItem.quantity == 1) { newItem.consolidatedState = ConsolidationTypeBasic; [senderTableView.listOfItems removeObjectAtIndex:j]; MyCellObject *child = [senderTableView.listOfItems objectAtIndex:j+1]; child.consolidatedState = ConsolidationTypeBasic; [senderTableView.listOfItems replaceObjectAtIndex:j+1 withObject:child]; } else { [senderTableView.listOfItems removeObject:consolidatedItem]; } [senderTableView reloadData]; } } } [senderTableView.listOfItems removeObjectAtIndex:path.row]; } [senderTableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:selectedRows withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //make new indexpaths for row animation NSMutableArray *newRows = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int i = 0; i < targetRows.count; i++) { NSIndexPath *newPath = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:i+receiverTableView.listOfItems.count inSection:0]; [newRows addObject:newPath]; DLog(@"%i", i); //scroll to newest items [receiverTableView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(0, fmaxf(receiverTableView.contentSize.height - recieverTableView.frame.size.height, 0.0)) animated:YES]; } //add rows at target for (int i = 0; i < targetRows.count; i++) { MyCellObject *insertedItem = [targetRows objectAtIndex:i]; //all moved items will be brought into the standard (basic) consolidationType insertedItem.consolidatedState = ConsolidationTypeBasic; [receiverTableView.ListOfItems insertObject:insertedItem atIndex:receiverTableView.ListOfItems.count]; } [receiverTableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:newRows withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationNone]; } If anyone has some fresh ideas of why the movement is bugging out let me know. If you feel like you need some extra information I'll be happy to add it. Again the problem is in the movement of ChildCells and updating the ParentCells properly. I could use some fresh looks and outsider ideas on this. Thanks in advance. *updated based on comments

  Read the article

• The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via

  - by isg

  I am trying to make a WCF service over basicHttpBinding to be used over https. Here's my web.config: <service behaviorConfiguration="MyServices.PingResultServiceBehavior" name="MyServices.PingResultService"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="defaultBasicHttpBinding" contract="MyServices.IPingResultService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> ... <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="defaultBasicHttpBinding"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> ... I am connecting using WCFStorm which is able to retrieve all the meta data properly, but when I call the actual method I get: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via Any ideas?

  Read the article

• SQL Server - Physical connection is not usable Error Code: 19

  - by Harry

  Having trouble working out this SqlException: A transport-level error has occurred when sending the request to the server. (provider: Session Provider, error: 19 - Physical connection is not usable) Any ideas what this is about? Couldn't get any hits on google or msdn on this one. The connection is MARS and Asynchronous in my own SQL pool. But don't get all excited about that - that is old code that has been stable for a long time! Exception details pasted below: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException occurred Message=A transport-level error has occurred when sending the request to the server. (provider: Session Provider, error: 19 - Physical connection is not usable) Source=.Net SqlClient Data Provider ErrorCode=-2146232060 Class=20 LineNumber=0 Number=-1 Server=SERVER State=0 StackTrace: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning() at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParserStateObject.SNIWriteAsync(SNIHandle handle, SNIPacket packet, DbAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParserStateObject.WriteSni() at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParserStateObject.WritePacket(Byte flushMode) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParserStateObject.ExecuteFlush() at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.InternalExecuteNonQuery(DbAsyncResult result, String methodName, Boolean sendToPipe) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.BeginExecuteNonQuery(AsyncCallback callback, Object stateObject) at CrawlAbout.Library.SQL.SQLAdapter.<ExecuteNonQueryTask>d__12.MoveNext() in D:\Work\Projects\CrawlAbout.com 2.0\CrawlAbout.Library.SQL\SQLAdapter.cs:line 149 InnerException:

  Read the article

• SSLException: HelloRequest followed by an unexpected handshake message

  - by mseebach

  I'm trying to connect to a webservice over SSL using Apache Commons HttpClient 3.1, using this: String url = "https://archprod.service.eogs.dk/cvronline/esb/LegalUnitGetSSLServicePort"; HttpClient client = new HttpClient(); PostMethod post = new PostMethod(url); StringRequestEntity entity = new StringRequestEntity(requestXml, "application/soap+xml", "utf-8"); post.setRequestEntity(entity); client.executeMethod(post); String response = post.getResponseBodyAsString(); And I get this exception: javax.net.ssl.SSLException: HelloRequest followed by an unexpected handshake message at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Alerts.getSSLException(Alerts.java:190) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.fatal(SSLSocketImpl.java:1623) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Handshaker.fatalSE(Handshaker.java:198) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Handshaker.fatalSE(Handshaker.java:188) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.ClientHandshaker.serverHelloRequest(ClientHandshaker.java:286) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.ClientHandshaker.processMessage(ClientHandshaker.java:114) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Handshaker.processLoop(Handshaker.java:525) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Handshaker.process_record(Handshaker.java:465) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.readRecord(SSLSocketImpl.java:884) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.readDataRecord(SSLSocketImpl.java:746) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.AppInputStream.read(AppInputStream.java:75) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.fill(BufferedInputStream.java:218) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read(BufferedInputStream.java:237) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpParser.readRawLine(HttpParser.java:78) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpParser.readLine(HttpParser.java:106) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpConnection.readLine(HttpConnection.java:1116) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodBase.readStatusLine(HttpMethodBase.java:1973) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodBase.readResponse(HttpMethodBase.java:1735) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodBase.execute(HttpMethodBase.java:1098) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodDirector.executeWithRetry(HttpMethodDirector.java:398) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpMethodDirector.executeMethod(HttpMethodDirector.java:171) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpClient.executeMethod(HttpClient.java:397) at org.apache.commons.httpclient.HttpClient.executeMethod(HttpClient.java:323) A request to the same URL on the same machine, using curl, works fine - and if I change the URL to e.g. https://www.verisign.com, it works fine in Java, too. So it appears to be the specific combination of Java and that host, not a general problem. Ubuntu 10.04 beta, Sun JDK 1.6.0_19 (same problem in Ubuntu's bundled OpenJDK 6b18~pre4). Any ideas what's going wrong? Thanks!

  Read the article

• How do I remedy "Error: Cannot find module 'child-process-close'"?

  - by Tyler Sloan

  I was going about business as usual and about to checkout generator-angular-fullstack. I got no red errors but a message a the end saying Error: Cannot find module 'child-process-close'. I tried many a-thing–uninstalling node, reinstalling, manually getting rid of files and directories in local and/or global paths and tried to make sure Homebrew was the one who installed everything and somehow I've made things worse. (Also, I initially saw errors regarding karma. Everything looked right but it doesn't seem I did any good by throwing commands at it.) I am at a loss. All the stackoverflow questions have been clicked and I'm afraid I've probably tried too many of the suggestions. I cannot install any Yeoman generator. I cannot install anything with npm. When inside the project directory when I run npm install it throws the error. I really have no clue. Is there a way I can basically start over all together? A simple uninstall and install isn't cutting it. Something in the system needs to change but I don't know what. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Google.com and clients1.google.com/generate_204

  - by David Murdoch

  I was looking into google.com's Net activity in firebug just because I was curious and noticed a request was returning "204 No Content." It turns out that a 204 No Content "is primarily intended to allow input for actions to take place without causing a change to the user agent's active document view, although any new or updated metainformation SHOULD be applied to the document currently in the user agent's active view." Whatever. I've looked into the JS source code and saw that "generate_204" is requested like this: (new Image).src="http://clients1.google.com/generate_204" No variable declaration/assignment at all. My first idea is that it was being used to track if Javascript is enabled. But the "(new Image).src='...'" call is called from a dynamically loaded external JS file anyway, so that would be pointless. Anyone have any ideas as to what the point could be? UPDATE "/generate_204" appears to be available on many google services/servers (e.g., maps.google.com/generate_204, maps.gstatic.com/generate_204, etc...). You can take advantage of this by pre-fetching the generate_204 pages for each google-owned service your web app may use. Like This: window.onload = function(){ var two_o_fours = [ // google maps domain ... "http://maps.google.com/generate_204", // google maps images domains ... "http://mt0.google.com/generate_204", "http://mt1.google.com/generate_204", "http://mt2.google.com/generate_204", "http://mt3.google.com/generate_204", // you can add your own 204 page for your subdomains too! "http://sub.domain.com/generate_204" ]; for(var i = 0, l = two_o_fours.length; i < l; ++i){ (new Image).src = two_o_fours[i]; } };

  Read the article

• Android ADT Eclipse plugin, parseSDKContent failed

  - by Sebastian Ganslandt

  I've just set up my first Android development environment consisting of Eclipse 3.5 Mac OSX 10.5 Android SDK for x86 macs ADT Eclipse plugin 0.9.6 I've set set $PATH to my SDK/tools directory (which shouldn't matter if I only use Eclipse right?) and started Eclipse, but when I try to set the path to the SDK in Eclipse, i get the error "parseSdkContent failed". The stack trace of from the thrown exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema at javax.xml.validation.SchemaFactory.newInstance(SchemaFactory.java:181) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.LayoutDevicesXsd.getValidator(Unknown Source) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.LayoutDeviceManager.parseLayoutDevices(Unknown Source) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.LayoutDeviceManager.loadDefaultLayoutDevices(Unknown Source) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.LayoutDeviceManager.loadDefaultAndUserDevices(Unknown Source) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.Sdk.<init>(Unknown Source) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.Sdk.loadSdk(Unknown Source) at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.AdtPlugin$13.run(Unknown Source) at org.eclipse.core.internal.jobs.Worker.run(Worker.java:55) I can't see that I've missed anything in the setup process, according to the instructions it should basically just work out of the box. Any ideas as to why this might fail?

  Read the article

• JQuery getJSON - ajax parseerror

  - by JW

  I've tried to parse the following json response with both the JQuery getJSON and ajax: [{"iId":"1","heading":"Management Services","body":"<h1>Program Overview</h1><h1>January 29, 2009</h1>"}] I've also tried it escaping the "/" characters like this: [{"iId":"1","heading":"Management Services","body":"<h1>Program Overview <\/h1><h1>January 29, 2009<\/h1>"}] When I use the getJSON it dose not execute the callback. So, I tried it with JQuery ajax as follows: $.ajax({ url: jURL, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", beforeSend: function(x) { if(x && x.overrideMimeType) { x.overrideMimeType("application/j-son;charset=UTF-8"); } }, success: function(data){ wId = data.iId; $("#txtHeading").val(data.heading); $("#txtBody").val(data.body); $("#add").slideUp("slow"); $("#edit").slideDown("slow"); },//success error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert("XMLHttpRequest="+XMLHttpRequest.responseText+"\ntextStatus="+textStatus+"\nerrorThrown="+errorThrown); } }); The ajax hits the error ans alerts the following: XMLHttpRequest=[{"iId":"1","heading":"Management Services","body":"<h1>Program Overview </h1><h1>January 29, 2009</h1>"}] textStatus=parseerror errorThrown=undefined Then I tried a simple JQuery get call to return the JSON using the following code: $.get(jURL,function(data){ var json = eval("("+data+");"); wId = json.iId; $("#txtHeading").val(json.heading); $("#txtBody").val(json.body); $("#add").slideUp("slow"); $("#edit").slideDown("slow"); }) The .get returns the JSON, but the eval comes up with errors no matter how I've modified the JSON (content-type header, other variations of the format, etc.) What I've come up with is that there seem to be an issue returning the HTML in the JSON and getting it parsed. However, I have hope that I may have missed something that would allow me to get this data via JSON. Does anyone have any ideas?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569  | Next Page >