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• Cannot connect Linux XAMPP PHP to MS SQL database.

  - by Jim

  I've searched many sites without success. I'm using XAMPP 1.7.3a on Ubuntu 9.1. I have used the methods found at http://www.webcheatsheet.com/PHP/connect_mssql_database.php, they all fail. I am able to "connect" with a linked database through MS Access, however, that is not an acceptable solution as not all users will have Access. The first method (at webcheatsheet) uses mssql_connect, et.al. but I get this error from the mssql_connect() call: Warning: mssql_connect() [function.mssql-connect]: Unable to connect to server: [my server] in [my code] [my server] is the server address, I have used both the host name and the IP address. [my code] is a reference to the file and line number in my .php file. Is there a log file somewhere that would have more information about the failure, both on my machine and the MS SQL server? We do not have a bona-fide DBA, so I will need specific information to pass on if the issue seems to be on the server side. All assistance is appreciated, including RTFM when the location of the M is provided! Thanks

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• c - strncpy issue

  - by Joe

  Hi there, I am getting segmentation fault when using strncpy and (pointer-to-struct)-(member) notation: I have simplified my code. I initialise a struct and set all of it's tokens to an empty string. Then a declare a pointer to a struct and assign the address of the struct to it. I pass the pointer to a function. I can print out the contents of the struct at the beginning of the function, but if I try to use the tp - mnemonic in a strncpy function, I get seg fault. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? typedef struct tok { char* label; char* mnem; char* operand; }Tokens; Tokens* tokenise(Tokens* tp, char* line) { // This prints fine printf("Print this - %s\n", tp -> mnem); // This function gives me segmentation fault strncpy(tp -> mnem, line, 4); return tp; } int main() { char* line = "This is a line"; Tokens tokens; tokens.label = ""; tokens.mnem = "load"; tokens.operand = ""; Tokens* tp = &tokens; tp = tokenise(tp, line); return 0; } I have used printf statements to confirm that the code definitely stops executing at the strncpy function. Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong? Many thanks Joe

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• Generic function pointers in C

  - by Lucas

  I have a function which takes a block of data and the size of the block and a function pointer as argument. Then it iterates over the data and performes a calculation on each element of the data block. The following is the essential outline of what I am doing: int myfunction(int* data, int size, int (*functionAsPointer)(int)){ //walking through the data and calculating something for (int n = 0; n < size; n++){ data[n] = (*function)(data[n]); } } The functions I am passing as arguments look something like this: int mycalculation(int input){ //doing some math with input //... return input; } This is working well, but now I need to pass an additional variable to my functionpointer. Something along the lines int mynewcalculation(int input, int someVariable){ //e.g. input = input * someVariable; //... return input; } Is there an elegant way to achieve this and at the same time keeping my overall design idea?

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• Selenium RC: how to capture/handle error?

  - by KenBurnsFan1

  Hi, My test uses Selenium to loop through a CSV list of URLs via an HTTP proxy (working script below). As I watch the script run I can see about 10% of the calls produce "Proxy error: 502" ("Bad_Gateway"); however, the errors are not captured by my catch-all "except Exception" clause -- ie: instead of writing 'error' in the appropriate row of the "output.csv", they get passed to the else clause and produce a short piece of html that starts: "Proxy error: 502 Read from server failed: Unknown error." Also, if I collect all the URLs which returned 502s and re-run the script, they all pass, which leads me to believe that this is a sporadic network path issue. Question: Can the script be made to recognize the the 502 errors, sleep a minute, and then retry the URL instead of moving on to the next URL in the list? The only alternative that I can think of is to apply re.search("Proxy error: 502") after "get_html_source" as a way to catch the bad calls. Then, if the RE matches, put the script to sleep for a minute and then retry 'sel.open(row[0]' on the URL which produced the 502. Any advice would be much appreciated. Thanks! #python 2.6 from selenium import selenium import unittest, time, re, csv, logging class Untitled(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.verificationErrors = [] self.selenium = selenium("localhost", 4444, "*firefox", "http://baseDomain.com") self.selenium.start() self.selenium.set_timeout("60000") def test_untitled(self): sel = self.selenium spamReader = csv.reader(open('ListOfSubDomains.csv', 'rb')) for row in spamReader: try: sel.open(row[0]) except Exception: ofile = open('output.csv', 'ab') ofile.write("error" + '\n') ofile.close() else: time.sleep(5) html = sel.get_html_source() ofile = open('output.csv', 'ab') ofile.write(html.encode('utf-8') + '\n') ofile.close() def tearDown(self): self.selenium.stop() self.assertEqual([], self.verificationErrors) if __name__ == "__main__": unittest.main()

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• Using prepared statements with JDBCTemplate

  - by Bernhard V

  Hi. I'm using the Jdbc template and want to read from the database using prepared statements. I iterate over many lines in a csv file and on every line I execute some sql select queries with it's values. Now I want to speed up my reading from the database but I just can't get the Jdbc template to work with prepared statements. Actually I even don't know how to do it. There is the PreparedStatementCreator and the PreparedStatementCreator. As in this example both of them are created with anonymous inner classes. But inside the PreparedStatementCreator class I don't have access to the values I want to set in the prepared statement. Since I'm iterating through a csv file I can't hard code them as a String because I don't know them. I also can't pass them to the PreparedStatementCreator because there are no arguments for the constructor. I was used to the creation of prepared statements being fairly simple. Something like PreparedStatement updateSales = con.prepareStatement( "UPDATE COFFEES SET SALES = ? WHERE COF_NAME LIKE ? "); updateSales.setInt(1, 75); updateSales.setString(2, "Colombian"); updateSales.executeUpdate(): as in the Java tutorial. Your help would be very appreciated.

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• GLOBAL loading inside each single button with Jquery in ajax calls of asp.net mvc

  - by Ricky

  I have the following scenario: I have a button\link with a image inside like this: <button type="submit" id="myButton" class="button"><img src="../../Content/images/check.png" id="defaultImage" /> SaveData!!!</button> We are OK here! Now what I need to do is: I want on the click that the image change for a loading element that is previously loaded in the page like this: <img id="loadingImage" src="../../Content/images/loader.gif" style="display: none;" alt="loading"/> And then when the load complete turn back the old button image, I ended with this code: function loader() { var $button = $('#myButton'); if (btnState == '1') { $button.find('img').hide(); $button.prepend($('#loadingImage')); $('#loadingImage').css({ 'display': 'inherit' }); btnState = '0'; } else { $button.find('img').hide(); $button.prepend($('#defaultImage')); $('#defaultImage').show(); btnState = '1'; } } This does the trick for ONE SINGLE button(since I pass its ID in the function) but, when I have for example a grid with a button on each line, I found inviable when managing a screen with many buttons do this for each of then. The main question is: How can I make this method general for all buttons/links on one specific class in the page? The goal is: Click a button, get the image and change it and stop(can be manual). I just don't wanna have to Hook ALL buttons.

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• how to close popup using javascript with xml formatting

  - by Michael Robinson

  I bought this program that created a pretty nice imageuploader flash script however I can't get the Javascript function close window to close the popup and redirect the original page. here is the XML piece that defines the url's: <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.home.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.home.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.home.com/flashalternative.html" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> This last line calls a javascript function on upload. The problem is I don't know what to call and where to put it. Here is the HTML file that is the popup: <HEAD> <title>Baublet Uploader</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="swfobject.js"></script> </HEAD> <BODY> <!-- Q-ImageUploader www.quadroland.com --> <div id="QImageUploader"> Flash Player stuff here </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("q_image_uploader.swf", "imageuploader", "650", "430", "9", "#FFFFFF"); so.addParam("scale", "noscale"); so.addParam("salign", "TL"); so.addVariable("AdditionalStringVariable","pass additional data here"); so.write("QImageUploader"); // ]]> </script> I found this Closing script I thought might work: <script language="javascript"> function close_window(page) { window.opener.location.href=page setTimeout(function(){window.close()},10); } </script> Does this go into the Popup HTML page above or would it be a separate close.js file in the root? Thanks, I'm really confused.

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• DropDownListFor and relating my lambda to my ViewModel

  - by Daniel Harvey

  After googling for a while I'm still drawing a blank here. I'm trying to use a ViewModel to pull and provide a dictionary to a drop down list inside a strongly typed View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="Notebook.ViewModels.CorporationJoinViewModel" %> ... <%: Html.DropDownListFor(c => c.CorpDictionary.Keys, new SelectList(Model.CorpDictionary, "Value", "Key"))%> I'm getting the error CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'CorpDictionary' and no extension method 'CorpDictionary' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found and the relevant bit of my ViewModel public class CorporationJoinViewModel { DB _db = new DB(); // data context public Dictionary<int, string> CorpDictionary { get { Dictionary<int, string> corporations = new Dictionary<int, string>(); int x = 0; foreach (Corporation corp in _db.Corporations) { corporations.Add(x, corp.name); } return corporations; } } I'll admit i have a pretty magical understanding of how linq is finding my ViewModel object from that lambda, and the error message is making me think it's not. Is my problem the method I'm using to pass the data? What am I missing here?

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• How to write C++ audio processing applications?

  - by cesko82

  Hi everyone, I'm an Electronics and Telecommunications student, next to my graduation. I'm gonna work on a project that involves my knowledge about DSP, music and audio in general. I allready know all the basic mathematic instruments and all the stuff I need to manage it, such as FFT, circular convolution ecc ecc. I want to learn C++ programming basically for one reason: it's very important in the professional world!!! And I think it's one of the most used to write applications working with audio, especially when it's about real time processing. Ok, after this small introduction I would like to know first, which are the most used libraries to work with audio processing in c++?? I was longer looking on the web but i couldn't find a lo of working stuff. (I work under linux with eclipse CDT enviroment). Then I would like to know if there are good sources to learn how to write some working code, such as for example how to write a simple low pass filter. Basically now i will not write real time applications, I would like to start from the processing of a WAV file, or even better an MP3 file, so basically on vectors of samples. Let's say that basically for now I would like to extract the waveform from an audio file, and save it to a thumbnail or to a PNG image. Ok, for now I think it's all I would need. Any ideas, advices, libraries, books, interesting sources about that? Thanks a lot in advance for any kind of answer. Giovanni.

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• How to parse text fragments located outside tags (inbetween tags) by simplehtmldom?

  - by moogeek

  Hello! I'm using simplehtmldom to parse html and I'm stuck in parsing plaintext located outside of any tag (but between two different tags): <div class="text_small"> <b>?dress:</b> 7 Hange Road<br> <b>Phone:</b> 415641587484<br> <b>Contact:</b> Alex<br> <b>Meeting Time:</b> 12:00-13:00<br> </div> Is it possible to get these values of Adress, Phone, Contact, Meeting Time? I wonder if there is a opportunity to pass CSS Selectors into nextSibling/previousSibling functions... foreach($html->find('div.text_small') as $div_descr) { foreach($div_descr->find('b') as $b) { if ($b->innertext=="?dress:") {//someaction } if ($b->innertext=="Phone:") { //someaction } if ($b->innertext=="Contact:") { //someaction } if ($b->innertext=="Meeting Time:") { //someaction } } } What I should use instead "someaction" ? upd. Yes, I don't have an access for editing the target page. Otherwise, would it be worth to? :)

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• How to protect/monitor your site from crawling by malicious user

  - by deathy

  Situation: Site with content protected by username/password (not all controlled since they can be trial/test users) a normal search engine can't get at it because of username/password restrictions a malicious user can still login and pass the session cookie to a "wget -r" or something else. The question would be what is the best solution to monitor such activity and respond to it (considering the site policy is no-crawling/scraping allowed) I can think of some options: Set up some traffic monitoring solution to limit the number of requests for a given user/IP. Related to the first point: Automatically block some user-agents (Evil :)) Set up a hidden link that when accessed logs out the user and disables his account. (Presumably this would not be accessed by a normal user since he wouldn't see it to click it, but a bot will crawl all links.) For point 1. do you know of a good already-implemented solution? Any experiences with it? One problem would be that some false positives might show up for very active but human users. For point 3: do you think this is really evil? Or do you see any possible problems with it? Also accepting other suggestions.

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• Flex: FileReference and Image unhandled IOErrorEvent

  - by deux11

  The following code shows a button that allows you to select a file (should be an image) and display it into an image component. When I select an invalid image (e.g. a word document), I get the following error: "Error #2044: Unhandled IOErrorEvent:. text=Error #2124: Loaded file is an unknown type." I know I can pass a FileFilter to the FileReference:browse call, but that's beyond the point. My question is... I want to handle the IOErrorEvent myself, what event listener am I missing? private var file:FileReference = new FileReference(); private function onBrowse():void { file.browse(null); file.addEventListener(Event.SELECT, handleFileSelect); file.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, handleFileComplete); } private function handleFileSelect(event:Event):void { file.load(); } private function handleFileComplete(event:Event):void { myImage.source = file.data; } private function handleImageIoError(evt:IOErrorEvent):void { Alert.show("IOErrorEvent"); } <mx:Button click="onBrowse()" label="Browse"/> <mx:Image id="myImage" width="100" height="100" ioError="handleImageIoError(event)"/>

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• simple jquery fetch from mysql

  - by JPro

  I am trying to use jQuery with MYSQL and I wrote something like this : <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function example_ajax_request() { $('#example-placeholder').html('<p>Loading results ... <img src="ajax-loader.gif" /></p>'); $('#example-placeholder').load("loadres.php"); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="query"> <select name="show" id="box" > <option value="0">Select A Test</option> <option value="All">--All--</option> <option value="M1">Model1</option> </select> <input type="button" onclick="example_ajax_request()" value="Click Me!" /> </div> <div id="example-placeholder"> <p>Placeholding text</p> </div></body> </html> Basically I want to pass parameters to the loadres.php file. But unable to figure out the exact way to do. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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• How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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• CodeIgniter, Godaddy, htaccess passing variable through url, HMVC

  - by user1492738

  I have a new controller in a module created with HMVC (admin), but i tried also without HMVC and the same issue. I am trying to pass a variable to index or another method from controller but when i access it i receive 404 error, not found. I am new to Codeigniter. I am trying to do resolve this since yesterday, please help me :) Thank you! Route: $route['default_controller'] = 'pages/view/home'; -- working $route['(:any)'] = "pages/view/$1"; -- working $route['404_override'] = ''; -- working $route['admin'] = 'admin/index'; -- working $route['admin/list'] = 'admin/list_pages/index'; -- working $route['admin/edit/(:any)'] = 'admin/edit/index/$1'; -- this is the problem, the other rules are working HTACCESS: RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?$1 [L] Controller: class Edit extends CI_Controller{ function __construct() { parent::__construct(); $this->load->model('pages_model'); } function index($id = 0){ $data['page'] = $this->pages_model->get_pages_by_id($id); $this->load->view('header', $data); $this->load->view('edit', $data); $this->load->view('footer', $data); } } Config: $config['base_url'] = ''; $config['index_page'] = 'index.php?'; $config['uri_protocol'] = 'QUERY_STRING';

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• Redirecting users on select from autocomplete?

  - by juno-2

  Hi, i'm trying to implement the jquery autocomplete plugin. I've got it up and running, but something is not working properly. Basically i have a autocomplete-list of employees. The list is generated from a table in a sql-database (employee_names and employee_ID), using a VB.NET handler (.ashx file). The data is formatted as: employee_name-employee_ID. So far so good and all employees are listed in autocomplete. The problem is that i don't know how to redirect a user to a certain page (for example employee_profile.aspx) when they've selected an employee from autocomplete. This is my redirect-code, but it ain't working like it should: $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); For example; a user selects It will redirect a user to employee_profile.aspx?id=name of employee-id of employee (for example: employee_profile.aspx?id=John Doe-91210) instead of employee_profile.aspx?id=91210. I know i can strip the employee_ID with: formatResult: function(data, value) { return value.split("-")[1]; } }); But i do not know how to pass that employee_ID to the redirect-page.. Here my whole code: $().ready(function() { $("#fname2").autocomplete("AutocompleteData.ashx", { minChars: 3, selectFirst: false, formatItem: function(data, i, n, value) { return value.split("-")[0]; }, //Not used, just for splitting employee_ID //formatResult: function(data, value) { // return value.split("-")[1]; //} }); $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); }); I know i'm very close and it should be something really simple, but can anyone help me out?

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• Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

  - by bleeckerj

  I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

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• udp can not receive any data

  - by StoneHeart

  Here is my code Socket sck = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Dgram, ProtocolType.Udp); sck.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 0)); // Broadcast to find server string msg = "Imlookingforaserver:" + udp_listen_port; byte[] sendBytes4 = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(msg); IPEndPoint groupEP = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Parse("255.255.255.255"), server_port); sck.SetSocketOption(SocketOptionLevel.Socket, SocketOptionName.Broadcast, 1); sck.SendTo(sendBytes4, groupEP); //Wait response from server Socket sck2 = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Dgram, ProtocolType.Udp); sck2.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, udp_listen_port)); byte[] buffer = new byte[128]; EndPoint remoteEndPoint = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, udp_listen_port); sck2.ReceiveFrom(buffer, ref remoteEndPoint); //<<< I never pass this line I use above code to try find a server. First I broadcast a message and then I wait for a response from the server. A test I made with the server written in C++ and running in Windows Vista, client written in C# and run on the same machine with server. Problem is: The server can receive message which client broadcast, but client can not receive anything from server. I try to write a client with C++ and it work like a charm, I think my problem is in C# client.

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• Self - hosted WCF server and SSL

  - by jitm

  Hello, There is self - hosted WCF server (Not IIS), and was generated certificates (on the Win Xp) using command line like makecert.exe -sr CurrentUser -ss My -a sha1 -n CN=SecureClient -sky exchange -pe makecert.exe -sr CurrentUser -ss My -a sha1 -n CN=SecureServer -sky exchange -pe These certificates was added to the server code like this: serviceCred.ServiceCertificate.SetCertificate(StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My, X509FindType.FindBySubjectName, "SecureServer"); serviceCred.ClientCertificate.SetCertificate(StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My, X509FindType.FindBySubjectName, "SecureClient"); After all previous operation I created simple client to check SSL connection to the server. Client configuration: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IAdminContract" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Basic"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="https://myhost:8002/Admin" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IAdminContract" contract="Admin.IAdminContract" name="BasicHttpBinding_IAdminContract" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Code: Admin.AdminContractClient client = new AdminContractClient("BasicHttpBinding_IAdminContract"); client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "user"; client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "pass"; var result = client.ExecuteMethod() During execution I receiving next error: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'.\r\nParameter name: via Question: How to enable ssl for self-hosted server and where should I set - up certificates for client and server ? Thanks.

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• Excel VBA: Passing a collection from a class to a module issue

  - by Martin

  Hello, I have been trying to return a collection from a property within a class to a routine in a normal module. The issue I am experiencing is that the collection is getting populated correctly within the property in the class (FetchAll) but when I pass the collection back to the module (Test) all the entries are populated with the last item in the list. This is the Test sub-routine in the standard module: Sub Test() Dim QueryType As New QueryType Dim Item Dim QueryTypes As Collection Set QueryTypes = QueryType.FetchAll For Each Item In QueryTypes Debug.Print Item.QueryTypeID, _ Left(Item.Description, 4) Next Item End Sub This is the FetchAll property in the QueryType class: Public Property Get FetchAll() As Collection Dim RS As Variant Dim Row As Long Dim QTypeList As Collection Set QTypeList = New Collection RS = .Run ' populates RS with a record set from a database (as an array), ' some code removed ' goes through the array and sets up objects for each entry For Row = LBound(RS, 2) To UBound(RS, 2) Dim QType As New QueryType With QType .QueryTypeID = RS(0, Row) .Description = RS(1, Row) .Priority = RS(2, Row) .QueryGroupID = RS(3, Row) .ActiveIND = RS(4, Row) End With ' adds new QType to collection QTypeList.Add Item:=QType, Key:=CStr(RS(0, Row)) Debug.Print QTypeList.Item(QTypeList.Count).QueryTypeID, _ Left(QTypeList.Item(QTypeList.Count).Description, 4) Next Row Set FetchAll = QTypeList End Property This is the output I get from the debug in FetchAll: 1 Numb 2 PBM 3 BPM 4 Bran 5 Claw 6 FA C 7 HNW 8 HNW 9 IFA 10 Manu 11 New 12 Non 13 Numb 14 Repo 15 Sell 16 Sms 17 SMS 18 SWPM This is the output I get from the debug in Test: 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM 18 SWPM Anyone got any ideas? I am probably totally overlooking something! Thanks, Martin

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• How do I add a URL parameter to redirected login page using JSF 2.0

  - by Big Al

  I have a question about session timeouts and JSF 2. I have my exception handler working exactly the way everyone prefers but I need to pass a value to the login page. For example, I have a typical login URL - www.acme.com/?companyId=company14 which in turn presents company14 with their own custom login page (using their logo). After they enter the application and do a bit of work, they read an email or 2. The session times out and a session timeout page is shown instructing the user to click Ok to proceed to the login page. How do I add ?companyId=company14 to the URL? I can hardcode it in the exception handler by using this: requestMap.put("companyId", "company14"); and then referring to it on the viewExpired.xhtml page: <h:panelGrid id="expiredGrid" columns="1"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText id="outExpireMsg" value="Your session has expired"/> </f:facet> <h:outputText id="outReqMessage" value="Reloading the page will require login."/> <h:outputText value=""/> <h:button id="okButton" type="submit" value="Ok" outcome="login?companyId=#{companyId}"/> </h:panelGrid> The issue is I can't seem to save the companyId anywhere without it getting wiped out by the session timeout. I'd like to set the companyId in the exceptionhandler using this value. Any ideas?

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• Viewstate in a .ashx Handler?

  - by Matt Dawdy

  I've got a handler (list.ashx for example) that has a method that retrieves a large dataset, then grabs only the records that will be shown on any given "page" of data. We are allowing the users to do sorting on these results. So, on any given page run, I will be retrieving a dataset that I just got a few seconds/minutes ago, but reordering them, or showing the next page of data, etc. My point is that my dataset really hasn't changed. Normally, the dataset would be stuck into the viewstate of a page, but since I'm using a handler, I don't have that convenience. At least I don't think so. So, what is a common way to store the viewstate associated with a current user's given page when using a handler? Is there a way to take the dataset, encode it somehow and send that back to the user, and then on the next call, pass it back and then rehydrate a dataset from those bits? I don't think Session would be a good place to store it since we might have 1000 users all viewing different datasets of different data, and that could bring the server to its knees. At least I think so. Does anyone have any experience with this kind of situation, and can you give me any advice?

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• Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

  - by Andrey Tagaew

  Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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• Java HttpURLConnection bekommt keine cookies

  - by TeNNoX

  ich versuche über eine HttpURLConnection einen Login auf einer Webseite durchzuführen, und davon dann die cookies zu erhalten... Bei meinen Testseiten auf einem eigenen Server geht es problemlos, ich sende "a=3&b=5" und als cookie erhalte ich "8", also die Summe. Wenn ich dies allerdings auf der gewollten Seite anwende, kommt einfach nur die Seite, als ob ich gar nichts per POST gesendet hätte... :( Generelle Verbesserungsvorschläge sind auch erwünscht! :) Mein Code: HttpURLConnection conn = (HttpURLConnection) new URL(url).openConnection(); conn.setDoInput(true); conn.setDoOutput(true); conn.setRequestMethod("POST"); conn.setRequestProperty("useragent", "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; rv:17.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/17.0"); conn.setRequestProperty("Connection", "keep-alive"); DataOutputStream out = new DataOutputStream(conn.getOutputStream()); out.writeBytes("USER=tennox&PASS=*****"); out.close(); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); String line; String response = new String(); while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { response = response + line + "\n"; } in.close(); System.out.println("headers:"); int i = 0; String header; while ((header = conn.getHeaderField(i)) != null) { String key = conn.getHeaderFieldKey(i); System.out.println(((key == null) ? "" : key + ": ") + header); i++; } String cookies = conn.getHeaderField("Set-Cookie"); System.out.println("\nCookies: \"" + cookies + "\"");

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• How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

  - by Kyle

  I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

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