Search Results

Search found 19279 results on 772 pages for 'everything'.

Page 563/772 | < Previous Page | 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570  | Next Page >

• Invalid message signature when running OpenId Provider on Cluster

  - by Garth

  Introduction We have an OpenID Provider which we created using the DotNetOpenAuth component. Everything works great when we run the provider on a single node, but when we move the provider to a load balanced cluster where multiple servers are handling requests for each session we get issue with the message signing as the DotNetOpenAuth component seems to be using something unique from each cluster node to create the signature. Exception DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Bindings.InvalidSignatureException: Message signature was incorrect. at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.SigningBindingElement.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\SigningBindingElement.cs:line 139 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 940 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.ChannelElements.OpenIdChannel.ProcessIncomingMessage(IProtocolMessage message) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\ChannelElements\OpenIdChannel.cs:line 172 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ReadFromRequest(HttpRequestInfo httpRequest) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 378 at DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.RelyingParty.OpenIdRelyingParty.GetResponse(HttpRequestInfo httpRequestInfo) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OpenId\RelyingParty\OpenIdRelyingParty.cs:line 493 Setup We have the machine config setup to use the same machine key on all cluster nodes and we have setup an out of process session with SQL Server. Question How do we configure the key used by DotNetOpenAuth to sign its messages so that the client will trust responses from all servers in the cluster during the same session?

  Read the article

• How to handle payment types with varying properties in the most elegant way.

  - by Byron Sommardahl

  I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2. Keeping it simple, I have three payment types: credit card, e-check, or "bill me later". I want to: choose one payment type display some fields for one payment type in my view run some logic using those fields (specific to the type) display a confirmation view run some more logic using those fields (specific to the type) display a receipt view Each payment type has fields specific to the type... maybe 2 fields, maybe more. For now, I know how many and what fields, but more could be added. I believe the best thing for my views is to have a partial view per payment type to handle the different fields and let the controller decide which partial to render (if you have a better option, I'm open). My real problem comes from the logic that happens in the controller between views. Each payment type has a variable number of fields. I'd like to keep everything strongly typed, but it feels like some sort of dictionary is the only option. Add to that specific logic that runs depending on the payment type. In an effort to keep things strongly typed, I've created a class for each payment type. No interface or inherited type since the fields are different per payment type. Then, I've got a Submit() method for each payment type. Then, while the controller is deciding which partial view to display, it also assigns the target of the submit action. This is not elegant solution and feels very wrong. I'm reaching out for a hand. How would you do this?

  Read the article

• How to utilize WebDev.WebServer.exe (VS Web Server) in x64?

  - by Nick Craver

  Visual Studio is x86 until at least the 2010 release comes around, my question is can anyone think of a way or know of an independent ASP.NET debug server that's x64 for 2008? Background: Our ASP.NET application runs against Oracle as the DB. Since we're on 64-bit servers for memory concerns later, we need to use Oracle's 64-bit drivers (Instant Client). Setup: x64 OS (XP or Windows 7) IIS (5 or 7, both x64 App Pools) Oracle 64-bit Instant Client (Separate Directory, in the PATH) Visual Studio 2008 SP1 In IIS the application pool runs as 64-bit, uses the Oracle drivers as intended, however since WebDev.WebServer.exe is 32-bit you'll get a BadImageFormatException because it's trying to load 64-bit driver DLLs in a 32-bit environment. All of our developers would like to be able to use the quick debug server via Visual Studio 2008, but since it runs as 32-bit we're unable to. Some problems we run into are during application startup, so although we're attaching to the IIS process sometimes that isn't enough to track an issue down. Are there any alternatives, or work-arounds? We would like to match our Dev/Val/Prod tiers as much as possible, so everything running in x64 would be ideal.

  Read the article

• nhibernate will not cascade delete childs

  - by marn

  The scenario is as follows, I have 3 objects (i simplified the names) named Parent, parent's child & child's child parent's child is a set in parent, and child's child is a set in child. mapping is as follows (relevant parts) parent <set name="parentset" table="pc-table" lazy="false" fetch="subselect" cascade="all-delete-orphan" inverse="true"> <key column=FK_ID_PC" on-delete="cascade"/> <one-to-many class="parentchild,parentchild-ns"/> </set> parent's child <set name="childset" table="cc-table" lazy="false" fetch="subselect" cascade="all-delete-orphan" inverse="true"> <key column="FK_ID_CC" on-delete="cascade"/> <one-to-many class="childschild,childschild-ns"/> </set> What i want to achieve is that when i delete the parent, there would be a cascade delete all the way trough to child's child. But what currently happens is this. (this is purely for mapping test purposes) getting a parent entity (works fine) IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("from Parent where ID =" + ID); IParent doc = query.UniqueResult<Parent>(); now the delete part session.Delete(doc); transaction.Commit(); After having solved the 'cannot insert null value' error with cascading and inverse i hopes this would now delete everything with this code, but only the parent is being deleted. Did i miss something in my mapping which is likely to be missed? Any hint in the right direction is more than welcome!

  Read the article

• Problem retrieving Strings from varbinary columns using HIbernate and MySQL

  - by user303396

  Hello, Here's my scenario. I save a bunch of Strings containing asian characters in MySQL using Hibernate. These strings are written in varbinary columns. Everything works fine during the saving operation. The DB contains the correct values (sequence of bytes). If I query (again using Hibernate) for the Strings that I saved I get the correct results. But when Hibernate fills the entity to which the Strings belong with the values from the DB I get different values then the ones I used in the query that retrieved them. Instead of receiving the correct values I receive a bunch of FFFD replacement characters. For example: if I store "??" in the DB and then I query for it, the resulting String will be \uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD. the DB connection has the following parameters set useUnicode=true&characterEncoding=UTF-8, I've tried using the true UTF-8 configurations for Hibernate but that didn't solve the problem What am I missing? Any suggestions? Thanks

  Read the article

• memory warning, generating UIImagefrom pdf files in objective-c

  - by favo

  When converting PDF Pages into UIImages I receive memory warnings all the time. It seems there is either some leak or something else that eats my memory. Using instruments didn't give me any helpful details. I'm using the following function to generate images from a pdf file: - (UIImage*)pdfImage:(NSString*)pdfFilename page:(int)page { CFURLRef pdfURL = CFURLCreateWithFileSystemPath(kCFAllocatorDefault, (CFStringRef)pdfFilename, kCFURLPOSIXPathStyle, false); CGPDFDocumentRef pdfRef = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef)pdfURL); CFRelease(pdfURL); CGPDFPageRef pdfPage = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(pdfRef, page); CGRect pdfPageSize = CGPDFPageGetBoxRect(pdfPage, kCGPDFBleedBox); float pdfScale; if ( pdfPageSize.size.width < pdfPageSize.size.height ) { pdfScale = PDF_MIN_SIZE / pdfPageSize.size.width; } else { pdfScale = PDF_MIN_SIZE / pdfPageSize.size.height; } CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(NULL, pdfPageSize.size.width*pdfScale, pdfPageSize.size.height*pdfScale, 8, (int)pdfPageSize.size.width*pdfScale * 4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast | kCGBitmapByteOrder32Big); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); // CGContextClipToRect(context, pdfPageView.frame); // CGPDFPageRetain(pdfPage); CGAffineTransform transform = aspectFit(CGPDFPageGetBoxRect(pdfPage, kCGPDFBleedBox), CGContextGetClipBoundingBox(context)); CGContextConcatCTM(context, transform); CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, pdfPage); // CGPDFPageRelease (pdfPage); CGImageRef image = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); CGContextRelease(context); UIImage *finalImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:image]; CGImageRelease(image); CGPDFDocumentRelease(pdfRef); return finalImage; } I am releasing the document and everything else, so where could be the problem? Thanks for your help!

  Read the article

• Accessing Elmah.axd with SqlErrorLog in SharePoint without adding user to db

  - by Chloraphil

  I have installed/configured Elmah on my personal SharePoint dev environment and everything works great since I'm logged in as admin, etc. I am using the MS Sql Server Error Log. (I am also using log4net to handle DEBUG/INFO/etc level logging and log statements are also stored in the db, in the same table as ELMAH's.) However, on the actual dev server (not my personal environment), when I access http://example/elmah.axd I get the error "Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'". I understand that this is the traditional error for the "double-hop problem" but I don't even want my credentials to be passed along - I would just like the database access to be made with the credentials of the Application Pool Identity. When using the SP object model the SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges is available; however, I do not want to modify the Elmah source. My production environment precludes the use of SQL Server authentication, changing impersonation to false, or giving myself permissions on the db directly. How can I get this to work? Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• git push merge error, but git pull is already up-to-date. Tried reclone, same problem.

  - by Jasie

  I do: git commit . git push error: Entry 'file.php' not uptodate. Cannot merge. Then I do git pull Already up-to-date. What do I do? I just want to get the latest version from the remote copy, and overwrite anything on my local copy. Edit: I tried everything. I deleted my local repo, and git clone ssh://[email protected]/directory ... Checking out files: 100%, done. git status On branch master nothing to commit (working directory clean) All looks good, right? Pull just in case. git pull Already up-to-date. I make a one line change in a file to see if I can push it. git commit . [master 1e18af1] Rando change 1 files changed, 2 insertions(+), 0 deletions(-) git push Counting objects: 13, done. Delta compression using up to 2 threads. Compressing objects: 100% (6/6), done. Writing objects: 100% (7/7), 646 bytes, done. Total 7 (delta 3), reused 0 (delta 0) From /directory d6d61aa..1e18af1 master -> origin/master error: Entry 'someotherfile.php' not uptodate. Cannot merge. Updating b8f9a54..1e18af1 To ssh://[email protected]/directory d6d61aa..1e18af1 master - master I have no idea what's going on! How can I commit/pull again normally? Thanks very much!

  Read the article

• Casting good practice

  - by phenevo

  Hi, I've got 3 classes namespace ServerPart public class Car { } namespace ServerPart public class SUV:Car { public string Name {get;set;} public string Color {get;set;) } And namespace WebSericePart public class Car { } namespace WebSericePart:Car public class SUV { public string Name {get;set;} public string Color {get;set;) } And I've translator namespace WebServicepart.Translators public static class ModelToContract { public Car[] ToCars(ServerPart.Car[] modelCars) { List<Car> contractCars=new List<Car>(); foreach(ServerPart.Car modelCar in modelCars) { contractCars.Add(ToCar(modelCar); } return contractCars.ToArray(); } public Car ToCar(ServerPart.Car modelCar) { if(modelCar is ServerPart.SUV) { return ToSUV(modelCar); } else { throw new NotImplementedException("Not supported type of Car")' } } public Car ToSUV(ServerPart.Car modelCar) { SUV suv=new SUV; // suv.Name=((ServerPart.SUV)modelCar).Name suv.Color=((ServerPart.SUV)modelCar).Color // ?? Is good practice ?? Or //ServerPart.SUV suv=(ServerPart.SUV)modelCar //suv.Name=suv.Name //suv.Color=suv.Color // is better ?? return suv; } } Do I used some else bad practices ?? Or Everything is OK :) ?

  Read the article

• C# - foreach showing strange behavior / for working with no problem

  - by Marks

  Hi there. Today I coded a function that uses two nested foreach loops. After seeing, that it did not work like expected, i debugged it. But I dont see an error, and dont think a simple error can cause the behavior i have noticed. The part looks like this: foreach(MyClass cItem in checkedListBoxItemList.Items) { foreach(MyClass cActiveItem in ActiveItemList) { if (cActiveItem.ID == cItem.ID) /*...check checkbox for item...*/; } } Lets say, checkedListBoxItemList.items holds 4 items of type MyClass, and ActiveItemList is a List< MyClass with 2 Items. The debugger jumps into the outer foreach, reaches inner foreach, executes the if 2 times (once per cActiveItem) and reaches the end of the outer foreach.Now, the debugger jumps back to the head of the outer foreach as it should. But instead of starting the second round of the outer foreach, the debugger suddenly jumps into the MyClass.ToString() method. I can step through this method 4 times (number of items in checkedListBoxItemList.Items) and then ... nothing. Visual Studio shows me my windows form, and the foreach is not continued. When changing the code to int ListCount = checkedListBoxItemList.Items.Count; for(int i=0; i<ListCount; i++) { MyClass cItem = checkedListBoxItemList.Items[i] as MyClass; foreach(MyClass cActiveItem in ActiveItemList) { if (cActiveItem.ID == cItem.ID) /*...check checkbox for item...*/; } } everything works fine and as supposed. I showed the problem to a collegue, but he also didnt understand, what happened. I dont understand why the debugger jumps into the MyClass.ToString() method. I used F10 to step through, so no need to leave the function. And even, if there is a reason, why isnt the foreach loop continued? Im using Visual Studio 2010, if this is of any matter. Please tell me what happened. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Selenium screenshots using rspec

  - by Thomas Albright

  I am trying to capture screenshots on test failure using selenium-client and rspec. I run this command: $ spec my_spec.rb \ --require 'rubygems,selenium/rspec/reporting/selenium_test_report_formatter' \ --format=Selenium::RSpec::SeleniumTestReportFormatter:./report.html It creates the report correctly when everything passes, since no screenshots are required. However, when the test fails, I get this message, and the report has blank screenshots: WARNING: Could not capture HTML snapshot: execution expired WARNING: Could not capture page screenshot: execution expired WARNING: Could not capture system screenshot: execution expired Problem while capturing system stateexecution expired What is causing this 'execution expired' error? Am I missing something important in my spec? Here is the code for my_spec.rb: require 'rubygems' gem "rspec", "=1.2.8" gem "selenium-client" require "selenium/client" require "selenium/rspec/spec_helper" describe "Databases" do attr_reader :selenium_driver alias :page :selenium_driver before(:all) do @selenium_driver = Selenium::Client::Driver.new \ :host => "192.168.0.10", :port => 4444, :browser => "*firefox", :url => "http://192.168.0.11/", :timeout_in_seconds => 10 end before(:each) do @selenium_driver.start_new_browser_session end # The system capture need to happen BEFORE closing the Selenium session append_after(:each) do @selenium_driver.close_current_browser_session end it "backed up" do page.open "/SQLDBDetails.aspx page.click "btnBackup", :wait_for => :page page.text?("Pending Backup").should be_true end end

  Read the article

• Facebook with RestFB

  - by Trick

  I just began to use this and I already stumbled on some from-my-side-strange errors. I am using RestFB jar. My problem is, that I can not get my session key (this is the start of everything :)). FacebookClient facebookClient = new DefaultFacebookClient(API_KEY, SECRET_KEY); try { String token = facebookClient.execute("auth.createToken", String.class, Parameter.with("null", "null")); System.out.println(token); String session = facebookClient.execute("auth.getSession", String.class, Parameter.with("auth_token", token)); System.out.println(session); } catch (FacebookException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } I get the token correctly. Parameter.with("null,"null") is there because it demands at least one, but method for creating token doesn't expect any. When trying to get the session key, I get the following error: com.restfb.FacebookResponseStatusException: Received Facebook error response (code 100): Invalid parameter at com.restfb.DefaultFacebookClient.throwFacebookResponseStatusExceptionIfNecessary(DefaultFacebookClient.java:357) at com.restfb.DefaultFacebookClient.makeRequest(DefaultFacebookClient.java:320) at com.restfb.DefaultFacebookClient.execute(DefaultFacebookClient.java:188) at com.restfb.DefaultFacebookClient.execute(DefaultFacebookClient.java:178) Documentation for getting session doesn't say any more parameters are required! Did anybody already try this JAR or do you have any other solution for Java?

  Read the article

• Unable to debug XBAP with Visual Studio 2010

  - by Oleg I.

  Just migrated my project to Visual Studio 2010, but target framework was left 3.5. Project contains an XBAP app in partial trust and a bunch of WCF services. Debugging is configured to start PresentationHost.exe with -debug and -debugSecurityZoneUrl parameters. Under VS2008 everything works fine, and in VS2010 Beta2 (don't sure about RC), but under VS2010 RTM debugging is for some reason doesn't working. Application runs, but doesn't hit any breakpoint. And if for example exception occurs, message box appears "Do you wish to debug or close..." and after I choose "debug" option new weird message box appears: --------------------------- Warning --------------------------- A debugger is attached to PresentationHost.exe but not configured to debug this unhandled exception. To debug this exception, detach the current debugger. An unhandled exception was raised from Microsoft .NET Framework v 1.0, 1.1, or 2.0, but the current debugger is configured to debug Microsoft .NET Framework v4.0 code. Examine the exception using the SOS tool. --------------------------- OK --------------------------- And where is the vaunted multitargeting? Did anyone have already bumped into same issue? UPDATE: Tried to debug with "Start browser with URL" option. Debugging is working, but I get SecurityException. So it is possible, just need to figure out how to make it work with "Start external program" option. UPDATE2: Checked what PresentationHost is actually loads in both scenarios: "Start external program" - Latest version (4.0.31106.0) from C:\Windows\System32\ "Start browser with URL" - Old version (3.0.6920.4902) from C:\Windows\winsxs\x86_wpf-presentationhostexe_31bf3856ad364e35_6.1.7600.16385_none_6fca8974817173aa

  Read the article

• Rolemanager not working when ASPDotNetStorefront served in a virtual folder with FormsAuthentication

  - by digiguru

  Does anyone know if there is a valid roleManager I can apply to ASPDotNetStorefront to get the site working? We have a website that has an ASP.Net storefront served in a virtual folder off the root. ourwebsite.com ourwebsite.com/shop Everything has been workign fine until we put the groundwork in place for forms authentication in the website recently. This caused an error on the production server when you tried to get into the shop... Unable to cast object of type 'System.Web.Security.RolePrincipal' to type 'AspDotNetStorefrontCore.AspDotNetStorefrontPrincipal'. Looking at the shop's web.config I noticed there was no RoleManager node, so I tried to fix the problem by removing it in the shop's web.config <roleManager enabled="false"> </roleManager> This prevented the error occurring, but also prevented the shopping basket from working. Instead I removed the rolemanager tag from the root website... <!-- Conflicting with AspDotNetStorefront <roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="CustomizedRoleProvider"> <providers> <add name="CustomizedRoleProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlRoleProvider" connectionStringName="constr" /> </providers> </roleManager> --> This worked, but obviously prevents role authentication working on the root website, which is okay for the next 2 or 3 releases. Anyone know the correct code for the rolemanager in DotNetStorefront?

  Read the article

• ssh tunneling with visualsvn

  - by DeveloperChris

  I have been asked to setup visualsvn for visual studio 2008 Due to firewall restrictions and server configuration. I need to use ssh tunneling. My problem is this. The local machine needs to connect to a gateway machine via ssh then connect to the subversion server so Local machine ---{ssh}--- gateway ---{ssh}-- subversion server I am not exactly sure of the correct process to do this. It appears that I must start a ssh process using plink to open a local port and forward that to the remote subversion server. eg: plink user@gateway -L 22:192.168.1.1:22 Then when visualsvn starts it uses tortoiseplink to make the actual connection through to the subversion server using svn+ssh://username@localhost:22/myrepo This seems very very clunky. firstly it needs several steps to setup the connection secondly I need plink running which leaves a command prompt on the desktop (clutter = yuck) lastly I need to use two different programs that do the same thing. (plink + tortoiseplink) The problem is that tortoiseplink doesn't run in the background. As soon as I connect to the ssh gateway and enter the password it closes again. So I can't use it to create the initial connection. If I use plink instead of tortoiseplink in visualsvn then I never get prompted for the password. so it just hangs with an open command prompt and no password request. Is there a way to setup visualsvn so that everything happens in one command line? I have searched high and low for a suitable and clean method to tunnel from visualsvn to the remote server and have found very little. it all either assumes one hop (not two like mine) or it glosses over all the hard bits. DC

  Read the article

• Naming of ASP.NET controls inside User Controls with ASP.NET MVC

  - by skb

  I am wondering if there is a way to make ASP.NET controls play nicely with my ASP.NET MVC app. Here is what I am doing. I have an order page which displays info about a single Order object. The page will normally have a bunch of rows of data, each row representing an OrderItem object. Each row is an ASP.NET User Control. On the user control there is a form element with two text boxes (Quantity and Price), and an update button. When I click the update button, I expect the form to post the data for that individual OrderItem row to a controller method and update the OrderItem record in the database. Here is my problem: When the post happens, the framework complains because the fields on the form don't match the parameters on the controller method. Each form field is something like "OrderItem_1$Quantity" or "OrderItem_2$Price" instead of just "Quantity" or "Price" which would match my method parameters. I have been told that I can overcome this by making sure that the IDs of all my controls are unique for the page, but allow the NAMEs to be repeated between different forms, so that if a form for an individual row is posted, the name can be something that will match what is on my controller method. The only problem is that I am using ASP.NET controls for my text boxes (which I REALLY want to continue doing) and I can't find any way to override the name field. There is no Name propery on an ASP.NET control, and even when I try to set it using the Attributes accessor property by saying "control.Attributes["Name"] = "Price";" it just adds another name= attribute to the HTML tag which doesn't work. Does any one know how I can make this work? I really don't like all of the HtmlHelper functions like TextBox and DropDown because I hate having my .aspx be so PHP or ASP like with the <%% tags and everything. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Ruby - Feedzirra and updates

  - by mplacona

  Hi, trying to get my head around Feedzirra here. I have it all setup and everything, and can even get results and updates, but something odd is going on. I came up with the following code: def initialize(feed_url) @feed_url = feed_url @rssObject = Feedzirra::Feed.fetch_and_parse(@feed_url) end def update_from_feed_continuously() @rssObject = Feedzirra::Feed.update(@rssObject) if @rssObject.updated? puts @rssObject.new_entries.count else puts "nil" end end Right, what I'm doing above, is starting with the big feed, and then only getting updates. I'm sure I must be doing something stupid, as even though I'm able to get the updates, and store them on the same instance variable, after the first time, I'm never able to get those again. Obviously this happens because I'm overwriting my instance variable with only updates, and lose the full feed object. I then thought about changing my code to this: def update_from_feed_continuously() feed = Feedzirra::Feed.update(@rssObject) if feed.updated? puts feed.new_entries.count else puts "nil" end end Well, I'm not overwriting anything and that should be the way to go right? WRONG, this means I'm doomed to always try to get updates to the same static feed object, as although I get the updates on a variable, I'm never actually updating my "static feed object", and newly added items will be appended to my "feed.new_entries" as they in theory are new. I'm sure I;m missing a step here, but I'd really appreciate if someone could shed me a light on it. I've been going through this code for hours, and can't get to grips with it. Obviously it should work fine, if I did something like: if feed.updated? puts feed.new_entries.count @rssObject = initialize(@feed_url) else Because that would reinitialize my instance variable with a brand new feed object, and the updates would come again. But that also means that any new update added on that exact moment would be lost, as well as massive overkill, as I'd have to load the thing again. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Making Ninject Interceptors work with async methods

  - by captncraig

  I am starting to work with ninject interceptors to wrap some of my async code with various behaviors and am having some trouble getting everything working. Here is an interceptor I am working with: public class MyInterceptor : IInterceptor { public async void Intercept(IInvocation invocation) { try { invocation.Proceed(); //check that method indeed returns Task await (Task) invocation.ReturnValue; RecordSuccess(); } catch (Exception) { RecordError(); invocation.ReturnValue = _defaultValue; throw; } } This appears to run properly in most normal cases. I am not sure if this will do what I expect. Although it appears to return control flow to the caller asynchronously, I am still a bit worried about the possibility that the proxy is unintentionally blocking a thread or something. That aside, I cannot get the exception handling working. For this test case: [Test] public void ExceptionThrown() { try { var interceptor = new MyInterceptor(DefaultValue); var invocation = new Mock<IInvocation>(); invocation.Setup(x => x.Proceed()).Throws<InvalidOperationException>(); interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object); } catch (Exception e) { } } I can see in the interceptor that the catch block is hit, but the catch block in my test is never hit from the rethrow. I am more confused because there is no proxy or anything here, just pretty simple mocks and objects. I also tried something like Task.Run(() => interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object)).Wait(); in my test, and still no change. The test passes happily, but the nUnit output does have the exception message. I imagine I am messing something up, and I don't quite understand what is going on as much as I think I do. Is there a better way to intercept an async method? What am I doing wrong with regards to exception handling?

  Read the article

• Call OpenFileDialog Silverlight from JavaScript

  - by PeterEysermans

  I'm trying to call a function in a Silverlight 4 component to open a file dialog and upload a file to the server. Everything works well within Silverlight but I'd like to call the component from JavaScript. So I call the button click handler from a C#-function which is [ScriptableMember]. I get the following error when calling the function: System.Security.SecurityException: Dialogs must be user-initiated. at System.Windows.Browser.ManagedObjectInfo.Invoke(ManagedObject obj, InvokeType invokeType, String memberName, ScriptParam[] args) at System.Windows.Hosting.ManagedHost.InvokeScriptableMember(IntPtr pHandle, Int32 nMemberID, Int32 nInvokeType, Int32 nArgCount, ScriptParam[] pArgs, ScriptParam& pResult, ExceptionInfo& pExcepInfo) I based my code on the tutorial by Tim Heuer that can be found here: http://www.silverlight.net/learn/videos/silverlight-videos/openfiledialog-and-file-upload/ I understand why the error is thrown, sort of, the 'click' from the user is done in JavaScript and probably is not going through to Silverlight. For Silverlight this is merely a function call. Is this new policy from Silverlight 4? Is it still possible to only use Silverlight behind to screens to upload a file? Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• Client Certificate installed in IE8 on Windows 7 doesn't work - 403.7

  - by mlauter

  We have configured IIS 6 to accept client certificates and have installed the certificate services on our server. When we go to http://[our site]/CertSrv and request a Web Browser Certificate (client certificate) from IE7/8 on Windows XP and Vista and Windows 7, then issue the cert on the server certificate authority manager, all combinations of the client/OS seem to install the client certificate properly in the personal certificate store. When we visit our test application that requires client certificates, all IE versions installed in Windows XP propmt for the client certificate and then properly display the page. Uhfortunately, all IE versions installed on Vista and Windows 7 do not prompt for the cert, nor do they automatically send the cert. It's like IE on these operating systems is unaware of the client certificate and it doesn't prompt for it, nor does it send it to the site. Since everything works as expected, at least on the XP configurations, we assume that IIS6 is correctly configured. It's been 8 hours with two of us trying to figure this out and we're ready to throw a laptop through a window and "the google" has let us down. Thanks for anyone who can help. Mark

  Read the article

• eclipse tomcat debug mode slow - pegs cpu

  - by andersonbd1

  Running Tomcat through eclipse works fine in non-debug mode, but not in debug mode. When I try to start the Tomcat server in debug mode, the console output looks fine for a while, but then starts slowing down and eventually just stops, pegging the cpu at 100%. I don't think it's relevant, but just in case - here's the console output right about when it starts slowing down and eventually stopping (by stopping I mean no more console output, but still 100% cpu). 2009-09-02 14:35:30,859 INFO NONE org.springframework.context.weaving.DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver:72 - Found Spring's JVM agent for instrumentation 2009-09-02 14:35:49,562 INFO NONE org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory:414 - Pre-instantiating singletons in org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@ed889d: defining beans [... 2009-09-02 14:37:31,031 INFO NONE org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean:221 - Building JPA container EntityManagerFactory for persistence unit ... I tried everything I could think of to fix it: cleanesd tomcat working directory restarted eclipse restarted Windows refreshed/cleaned all projects I first had this problem last week using eclipse ganymede. I had been running fine in debug-mode for several months prior to this issue. I didn't make any significant changes to our project that would cause this. Eventually, I upgraded to eclipse galileo which solved my problem. Now 2 days later, I'm having the same problem in galileo. Like I said it works fine in non-debug mode. Any help is much appreciated. I should add that other things work in debug mode - for instance junit tests, so it is something specific to tomcat.

  Read the article

• Databinding between UserControls?

  - by Dave

  I've got a situation where one of my UserControls would like to display a list of strings in a droplist, and the ItemsSource is set to another UserControl's ObservableCollection. The consumer of this data has its droplist defined in XAML like this: <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" SelectedItem="{Binding MyItem, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type UserControl}}, Path=DataContext.MyItems}" Margin="3"></ComboBox> MyItems is defined as an ObservableCollection<string> in the producer UserControl. Now everything works fine when the controls are loaded. As long as MyItems is populated first, and then the consumer UserControl is displayed, all of the items are there. I obviously don't get any errors in the Output Window or anything like that. The issue I have is that when the ObservableCollection is modified, those changes are not reflected in the consumer UserControl! I've never had this problem before, but all of my previous uses of ObservableCollection with updating the collection are within a single control, and databinding is not inter-UserControl. Is there something I did wrong? Is there a good way to actually debug this? Reed Copsey indicates here that inter-UserControl databinding is possible. Unfortunately, my favorite Bea Stollnitz article on WPF databinding debugging doesn't suggest anything that I could use for this particular problem.

  Read the article

• PHP template class with variables?

  - by Josh

  I want to make developing on my new projects easier, and I wanted a bare bones very simple template engine solution. I looked around on the net and everything is either too bloated, or makes me cringe. My HTML files will be like so: <html> <head> <title>{PAGE_TITLE}</title> </head> <body> <h1>{PAGE_HEADER}</h1> <p>Some random content that is likely not to be parsed with PHP.</p> </body> </html> Obviously, I want to replace {PAGE_TITLE} and {PAGE_HEADER} with something I set with PHP. Like this: <?php $pageElements = array( '{PAGE_TITLE}' => 'Some random title.', '{PAGE_HEADER}' => 'A page header!' ); ?> And I'd use something like str_replace and load the replaced HTML into a string, then print it to the page? This is what I'm on the path towards doing at the moment... does anyone have any advice or a way I can do this better? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Spring Test / JUnit problem - unable to load application context

  - by HDave

  I am using Spring for the first time and must be doing something wrong. I have a project with several Bean implementations and now I am trying to create a test class with Spring Test and JUnit. I am trying to use Spring Test to inject a customized bean into the test class. Here is my test-applicationContext.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="............."> <bean id="MyUuidFactory" class="com.myapp.UuidFactory" scope="singleton" > <property name="typeIdentifier" value="CLS" /> </bean> <bean id="ThingyImplTest" class="com.myapp.ThingyImplTest" scope="singleton"> <property name="uuidFactory"> <idref local="MyUuidFactory" /> </property> </bean> </beans> The injection of MyUuidFactory instance goes along with the following code from within the test class: private UuidFactory uuidFactory; public void setUuidFactory(UuidFactory uuidFactory) { this.uuidFactory = uuidFactory; } However, when I go to run the test (in Eclipse or command line) I get the following error (stack trace omitted for brevity): Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'MyImplTest' defined in class path resource [test-applicationContext.xml]: Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.ConversionNotSupportedException: Failed to convert property value of type 'java.lang.String' to required type 'com.myapp.UuidFactory' for property 'uuidFactory'; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [com.myapp.UuidFactory] for property 'uuidFactory': no matching editors or conversion strategy found Funny thing is, the Eclipse/Spring XML editor shows errors of I misspell any of the types or idrefs. If I leave the bean in, but comment out the dependency injection, everything work until I get a NullPointerException while running the test...which makes sense.

  Read the article

• Display ASP.NET GridView inside a selected row in another GridView

  - by Justin C

  I have been given a mockup that I do not know is possible to code in ASP.NET without being a real html and javascript wizard. I want a GridView that when a row is selected, the selected row expands and below the selected row a panel of additional information is shown, which would also include another small GridView. The idea is this would all be in-line. So if the user selected row 4, then the additional information would appear below row 4 and then after the additional information the parent GridView would continue with row 5. Ultimately I would want to do a multi-select type of set up, but first I need to figure out if this is even possible. Also, the solution must be 508 Compliant The one solution I considered was using only one "column". Then I would put all my fields in the ItemTemplate, and my detail panel content in the EditItemTemplate and instead of selecting the row, set it to edit mode. The problem with this solution is I lose the functionality of multiple columns if I throw everything in one huge ItemTemplate. Any and all suggestions or ideas are appreciated.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570  | Next Page >