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  • Ubiquity CmdUtils.setSelection won't replace HTML

    - by Josh Timmer
    I'm attempting to write a Ubiquity command that allows you to replace a selected link or URL pointing to an image with that image itself. However, the CmdUtils.setSelection() function (documented here) seems to do nothing if any html tags are present in the selection, making it useless for replacing any links. When selecting plain text, it functions exactly as intended, replacing the text with an <img src="text"/> tag. Is there something I'm missing, or will this function simply not allow me to replace html? If the latter is the case, is there a function or method that will allow me to do this? Any other advice is welcome as well! CmdUtils.CreateCommand({ name: "fetch-image", author: {name: "Josh Timmer"}, license: "GPL", description: "Replaces links or URLs pointing to images with the image itself", help: "Highlight text or a hyperlink and execute this command", takes: {"image URL": /.*/}, _getImgUrl: function(itemIq) { if (itemIq.html.indexOf("<a ",0) < 0) return itemIq.text; var refPos = itemIq.html.indexOf("href=\"",0); if (refPos < 0) return "Error, no URL found!"; var startPos = itemIq.html.indexOf("\"", refPos); var endPos = itemIq.html.indexOf("\"", startPos + 1); startPos += 1; var url = itemIq.html.substring(startPos, endPos); return url; }, preview: function(pblock, input) { pblock.innerHTML = "Image URL: " + this._getImgUrl(input) + "<br/><br/><img src='" + this._getImgUrl(input) + "'/>"; }, execute: function img_insert(input) { CmdUtils.setSelection("<img src='" + this._getImgUrl(input) + "'/>"); displayMessage("Executed: " + this._getImgUrl(input)); } });

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  • Combo-box values automatically update

    - by glinch
    Hi all, hopefully somebody can help The table structure is as follows: tblCompany: compID compName tblOffice: offID, compID, add1, add2, add3 etc... tblEmployee: empID Name, telNo, etc... offID I have a form that contains contact details for employees, all works ok using after update. A cascading combo box, cmbComp, allows me to select a company, and inturn select the appropriate office, cboOff, and updates the corresponding tblEmployee.offID field correctly. Fields are automatically updated for the address also cmbComp: RowSource SELECT DISTINCT tblOffice.compID, tblCompany.compID FROM tblCompany INNER JOIN AdjusterCompanyOffice ON tblCompany.compID=tblOffice.compID ORDER BY tblCompany.compName; cboOff: RowSource SELECT tblCompany.offID, tblCompany.Address1, tblCompany.Address2, tblCompany.Address3, tblCompany.Address4, tblCompany.Address5 FROM tblCompany ORDER BY tblCompany.Address1; The problem I am having is that when i load a new record how to retrieve the data and automatically load the cmbComp and text fields. The cboOff combo box loads correctly as the control source for this is the offID I imagine there must be a way of setting the value on opening the record? Not sure how though. I dont think I can set the controlsource cmbComp or text fields, or can I? Any help/point in the right direction appreciated, have been searching for a way to do this but cant get anywhere!

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  • jquery: prepopulating autocomplete fields

    - by David Tildon
    I'm using the tokenizing autocomplete plugin for jquery ( http://loopj.com/2009/04/25/jquery-plugin-tokenizing-autocomplete-text-entry ). I mostly use Ruby, and I'm really unfamiliar with javascript, though. My basic setup looks like this, and works fine for a new, blank form: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search" }); }); The problem comes when I try to prepopulate it, like for an edit page. I'm trying to do something like this (where the "#tag_ids_field" text box contains the JSON when the page is loaded - that way is just cleaner on the application side of things). $(document).ready(function () { var tags = $("#tag_ids_field").html(); $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: tags }); }); However, when the page loads I see that it's just filled with hundreds of entries that read 'undefined'. I get this even if I take the JSON output that Rails provides and try sticking it right in the .js file: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: "[{\"id\":\"44\",\"name\":\"omnis sit impedit et numquam voluptas enim\"},{\"id\":\"515\",\"name\":\"deserunt odit id doloremque reiciendis aliquid qui vel\"},{\"id\":\"943\",\"name\":\"exercitationem numquam possimus quasi iste nisi illum\"}]" }); }); That's obviously not a solution, I just tried it out of frustration and I get the same behavior. My two questions: One, why are my text boxes being filled with "undefined" tags when I try to prepopulate, and how can I get them to prepopulate successfully? Two, I'm planning on having many autocomplete fields like this on the same page (for when several records are edited at once - they all query the same place). How can I make each autocomplete field take it's prepopulated values from it's own textbox? Something like (applying these settings to all input boxes with a certain class, not just the one of a particular id): $(document).ready(function () { $(".tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: (the contents of that particular ".tag_ids_field" input box) }); });

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  • Should business objects be able to create their own DTOs?

    - by Sam
    Suppose I have the following class: class Camera { public Camera( double exposure, double brightness, double contrast, RegionOfInterest regionOfInterest) { this.exposure = exposure; this.brightness = brightness; this.contrast = contrast; this.regionOfInterest = regionOfInterest; } public void ConfigureAcquisitionFifo(IAcquisitionFifo acquisitionFifo) { // do stuff to the acquisition FIFO } readonly double exposure; readonly double brightness; readonly double contrast; readonly RegionOfInterest regionOfInterest; } ... and a DTO to transport the camera info across a service boundary (WCF), say, for viewing in a WinForms/WPF/Web app: using System.Runtime.Serialization; [DataContract] public class CameraData { [DataMember] public double Exposure { get; set; } [DataMember] public double Brightness { get; set; } [DataMember] public double Contrast { get; set; } [DataMember] public RegionOfInterestData RegionOfInterest { get; set; } } Now I can add a method to Camera to expose its data: class Camera { // blah blah public CameraData ToData() { var regionOfInterestData = regionOfInterest.ToData(); return new CameraData() { Exposure = exposure, Brightness = brightness, Contrast = contrast, RegionOfInterestData = regionOfInterestData }; } } or, I can create a method that requires a special IReporter to be passed in for the Camera to expose its data to. This removes the dependency on the Contracts layer (Camera no longer has to know about CameraData): class Camera { // beep beep I'm a jeep public void ExposeToReporter(IReporter reporter) { reporter.GetCameraInfo(exposure, brightness, contrast, regionOfInterest); } } So which should I do? I prefer the second, but it requires the IReporter to have a CameraData field (which gets changed by GetCameraInfo()), which feels weird. Also, if there is any even better solution, please share with me! I'm still an object-oriented newb.

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  • How to run validator from javascript?

    - by David Shochet
    Here is a part of my code: <asp:ListBox ID="lbRD" runat="server" DataSourceID="RDSqlDataSource" onchange="JSFillDetail();" DataTextField="????????" DataValueField="ID" Width="188px" Height="200px"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDescription" runat="server" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="txtDescriptionRequiredFieldValidator" runat="server" ErrorMessage="???????? ???????? ???????????? ??? ??????????" ControlToValidate="txtDescription" /> I have a listbox, a textbox and a required field validator on my page. When the user selects something from the listbox, the selected item appears in the textbox using a javascript function. When the page is submitted, the validator reports an error in case the textbox is empty. If after that the user selects something from the listbox, the error message is still displayed, even though the textbox is not empty anymore. How can I make the validator validate the textbox, or even better, to clear the error message from the javascript function that fills the textbox? Thanks, David

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • django: grouping in an order_by query?

    - by AP257
    Hi all, I want to allocate rankings to users, based on a points field. Easy enough you'd think with an order_by query. But how do I deal with the situation where two users have the same number of points and need to share the same ranking? Should I use annotate to find users with the same number of points? My current code, and a pseudocode description of what I'd like to do, are below. top_users = User.objects.filter(problem_user=False).order_by('-points_total') # Wrong - in pseudocode, this should be # Get the highest points_total, find all the users with that points_total, # if there is more than one user, set status to 'Joint first prize', # otherwise set status to 'First prize' top_users[0].status = "First prize" if (top_users[1]): top_users[1].status = "Second prize" if (top_users[2]): top_users[2].status = "Third prize" if (top_users[3]): top_users[3:].status = "Highly commended" The code above doesn't deal with the situation where two users have the same number of points and need to share second prize. I guess I need to create a query that looks for unique values of points_total, and does some kind of nested ranking? It also doesn't cope with the fact that sometimes there are fewer than 4 users - does anyone know how I can do (in pseudocode) 'if top_users[1] is not null...' in Python?

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  • ImageViews in a ListView not aligned vertically [Mono for Android]

    - by shalmon
    I'm very new to developing apps to android, so bear with me. Having said that, I'm trying to make a list with a image to the left and a title and description to the right of the image. The image is downloaded from the web in the background and then set in the UI as they complete. This all works. However, the images are not aligned properly and I simply cannot understand why. I'm thinking it has something to do with the layout defined in the xml file? I tried using android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" and android:layout_gravity="left" but that got me nowhere. Then I didn't know how to proceed, even after googling every way I could think of. I'm sorry if this is very basic, but I would really appreciate some help here. Here's a pic of the situation: And here's my layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/widget28" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="80px" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/imageItem" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" > </ImageView> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/linearText" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_marginLeft="10px" android:layout_marginTop="10px" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textTop" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" > </TextView> <TextView android:id="@+id/textBottom" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="TextView" > </TextView> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> I appreciate any help you can offer.

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  • Calculation Conundrum - how do I influence another textfield?

    - by LawVS
    Hey! Basically I have a problem in that when certain parameters are used in my calculator app - it makes the result incorrect. The issue is that I have separate text fields for hours and minutes and say for example I have as the start time "13" in one text field and "30" in the other with the finish time "24" and "00" in their respective text fields. The answer should be 10 hours 30 minutes, but the answer I get is 11 hours 30 minutes. The code for this is the following. -(IBAction)done:(id)sender { int result = [finishHours.text intValue] - [startHours.text intValue]; totalHours.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result]; if (result < 0) { totalHours.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result + 24]; } -(IBAction)done2:(id)sender { int result = [startMinutes.text intValue] - [finishMinutes.text intValue]; totalMinutes.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result]; if (result < 0) { totalMinutes.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result + 60]; } } I want to make it so if certain parameters are met, then the totalHours.text is reduced by 1 hour to reflect the total minutes. How would I go about that calculation in code? Thanks!

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  • Hibernate : Opinions in Composite PK vs Surrogate PK

    - by Albert Kam
    As i understand it, whenever i use @Id and @GeneratedValue on a Long field inside JPA/Hibernate entity, i'm actually using a surrogate key, and i think this is a very nice way to define a primary key considering my not-so-good experiences in using composite primary keys, where : there are more than 1 business-value-columns combination that become a unique PK the composite pk values get duplicated across the table details cannot change the business value inside that composite PK I know hibernate can support both types of PK, but im left wondering by my previous chats with experienced colleagues where they said that composite PK is easier to deal with when doing complex SQL queries and stored procedure processes. They went on saying that when using surrogate keys will complicate things when doing joining and there are several condition when it's impossible to do some stuffs when using surrogate keys. Although im sorry i cant explain the detail here since i was not clear enough when they explain it. Maybe i'll put more details next time. Im currently trying to do a project, and want to try out surrogate keys, since it's not getting duplicated across tables, and we can change the business-column values. And when the need for some business value combination uniqueness, i can use something like : @Table(name="MY_TABLE", uniqueConstraints={ @UniqueConstraint(columnNames={"FIRST_NAME", "LAST_NAME"}) // name + lastName combination must be unique But im still in doubt because of the previous discussion about the composite key. Could you share your experiences in this matter ? Thank you !

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  • Custom Repeater with hiractial Databinding

    - by Dooie
    Im using a Custom NestedRepeater Control for ASP.NET which can be found on code project The source is in c# which i have converted to vb and plugged into my solution, so far so good. The problem, im having is databinding to the repeater, my code behind looks like this... '' get all pages Dim navPages As DataSet = Navigation.getMenuStructure() navPages.Relations.Add(navPages.Tables(0).Columns("ID"), navPages.Tables(0).Columns("ParentID")) NestedRepeaterNavigation.RelationName = RelationName NestedRepeaterNavigation.DataSource = navPages NestedRepeaterNavigation.RowFilterTop = "ParentID is null" NestedRepeaterNavigation.DataBind() Then in the item template of my custom repeater im trying the following... <ItemTemplate> <img src="/pix.gif" height="10" width="<%#(Container.Depth * 10)%>"> <%# (Container.DataItem as DataRow)["DESCRIPTION"]%> <%# (Container.NbChildren != 0 ? "<small><i>(" + Container.NbChildren.ToString() +")</i></small>" "") %><small><i></i></small> </ItemTemplate> The databinding falls over; firstly that 'as DataRow' says it was expecting an ')'. And secondly that '!=' identifier expected. Is this due to the translation from c#, should the databinding be different?

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  • How to build n-layered web architecture with PHP?

    - by Alex
    I have a description and design of a website and I need to redesign it to allow for new requirements. The website's purpose is the offering of government's contracts and bidding opportunities for different businesses.I'm dealing with the 3-tier architecture PHP website comprising of the user-interface tier(client's web browser),business logic layer(Apache web server with PHP engine in it and a couple of applications running within a web server as well) and a database layer(local mysql database). Now,i need to redesign it to su???rt distributed n-tier architecture and specify how I would go about it.After long hours of research i came to this solution: business logic should be separated into presentation and purely business logic tier to allow for n-layer architecture(user-interface,presentation tier,b.logic and data tier).I have decided to use ??? just for the presentation(since the original existing website is in PHP) and use it within apache web server.In the business logic i want to use J2?? implementation technology instead of implementing it in PHP(i.e using Zend app.server and smarty template) cz J2EE can provide much more essential container services which are essential for business logic,its robustness,maintainability and different critical business operations which will be carried out by the g?v?rnment's website.So,particularly,i want to use J??ss app.server with ?J? business objects in it which would provide all the b.logic in java and would interact with the database and so forth.In order to connect PHP on a web server with java on app.server i'm gonna use PHP/Java bridge API (or maybe Quercus or SOAP is better?).Finally,i have my data tier with mysql which will communicate with b.logic via JD??.Payment system application in ???.server is gonna use S??? to talk with credit card company. From your professional point of view,does it sound like a good way of redesigning the original website to allow for n-tier architecture considering the specifics of the website and the criticality of its operations?(payment system is included in it)or u would personally prefer to use PHP business objects for business logic as well instead of J2EE?If you have any wiser recommendation or some alternative,please let me know what is right or wrong in my current solution. H??? to hear your professional advice very s??n (I'm new to the area of web development) Thanks in advance

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  • Hibernate bit array to entity mapping

    - by teabot
    I am trying to map a normalized Java model to a legacy database schema using Hibernate 3.5. One particular table encodes a foreign keys in a one-to-many relationship as a bit array column. Consider tables 'person' and 'clubs' that describes people's affiliations to clubs: person .----.------. club: .----.---------.---------------------------. | id | name | | id | name | members | binary(members) | |----+------| |----+---------|---------+-----------------| | 1 | Bob | | 10 | Cricket | 0 | 000 | | 2 | Joe | | 11 | Tennis | 5 | 101 | | 3 | Sue | | 12 | Cooking | 7 | 111 | '----'------' | 13 | Golf | 3 | 100 | '----'---------'---------'-----------------' So hopefully it is clear that person.id is used as the bit index in the bit array club.members. In this example the members column tells us that: no one is a member of Cricket, Bob/Sue - Tennis, Bob/Sue/Joe - Cooking and Sue - Golf. In my Java domain I'd like to declare this with entities like so: class Person { private int id; private String name; ... } class Club { private Set<Person> members; private int id; private String name; ... } I am assuming that I must use a UserType implementation but have been unable to find any examples where the items described by the user type are references to entities - not literal field values - or composites thereof. Additionally I am aware that I'll have to consider how the person entities are fetched when a club instance is loaded. Can anyone tell me how I can tame this legacy schema with Hibernate?

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  • Login failed when a web service tries to communicate with SharePoint 2007

    - by tata9999
    Hi, I created a very simple webservice in ASP.NET 2.0 to query a list in SharePoint 2007 like this: namespace WebService1 { /// <summary> /// Summary description for Service1 /// </summary> [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. // [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service1 : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello World"; } [WebMethod] public string ShowSPMyList() { string username = this.User.Identity.Name; return GetList(); } private string GetList() { string resutl = ""; SPSite siteCollection = new SPSite("http://localhost:89"); using (SPWeb web = siteCollection.OpenWeb()) { SPList mylist = web.Lists["MySPList"]; SPQuery query = new SPQuery(); query.Query = "<Where><Eq><FieldRef Name=\"AssignedTo\"/><Value Type=\"Text\">Ramprasad</Value></Eq></Where>"; SPListItemCollection items = mylist.GetItems(query); foreach (SPListItem item in items) { resutl = resutl + SPEncode.HtmlEncode(item["Title"].ToString()); } } return resutl; } } } This web service runs well when tested using the built-in server of Visual Studio 2008. The username indicates exactly my domain account (domain\myusername). However when I create a virtual folder to host and launch this web service (still located in the same machine with SP2007), I got the following error when invoking ShowSPMyList() method, at the line to execute OpenWeb(). These are the details of the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot open database "WSS_Content_8887ac57951146a290ca134778ddc3f8" requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE'. Does anyone have any idea why this error happens? Why does the web service run fine inside Visual Studio 2008, but not when running stand-alone? I checked and in both cases, the username variable has the same value (domain\myusername). Thank you very much.

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  • Using jQuery to parse an RSS feed, having trouble in firefox and chrome.

    - by sjmarshy
    I used a jQuery library called jFeed to parse and display my blogs rss feed on my personal website. It worked perfectly well at first, but upon checking later it simply displays nothing, except in Internet Explorer, where it seems to work fine. After checking the javascript console using Firebug in Firefox, it shows an error in the 'XML' tab as follows: XML Parsing Error: no element found Location: moz-nullprincipal:{3f8a0c62-32b4-4f63-b69c- 9ef402b40b64} Line Number 1, Column 1: ^ Though I have no idea what to do with this information. Here is the code I used to get the rss feed and display it (it is almost exactly the same as the example provided by the jFeed website): jQuery.getFeed({ url: 'http://sammarshalldesign.co.uk/blog/wordpress/?feed=rss2', success: function(feed) { var html = ''; for(var i = 0; i < feed.items.length && i < 5; i++) { var item = feed.items[i]; html += '<h3>' + '<a href="' + item.link + '">' + item.title + '</a>' + '</h3>'; html += '<div>' + item.description + '</div>'; }//end for jQuery('#feed').append(html); }//end feed function });//end getfeed Any help would be really appreciated.

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  • how to insert multiple rows using cakephp

    - by Paul
    In the cakePHP project I'm building, I want to insert a defined number of identical records. These will serve as placeholders records that will have additional data added later. Each record will insert the IDs taken from two belongs_to relationships as well as two other string values. What I want to do is be able to enter a value for the number of records I want created, which would equate to how many times the data is looped during save. What I don't know is: 1) how to setup a loop to handle a set number of inserts 2) how to define a form field in cakePHP that only sets the number of records to create. What I've tried is the following: function massAdd() { $inserts_required = 1; while ($inserts_required <= 10) { $this->Match->create(); $this->Match->save($this->data); echo $inserts_required++; } $brackets = $this->Match->Bracket->find('list'); $this->set(compact('brackets')); } What happens is: 1) at the top of the screen, above the doc type, the string 12345678910 is displayed, this is displayed on screen 2) a total of 11 records are created, and only the last record has the values passed in the form. I don't know why 11 records as opposed to 10 are created, and why only the last records has the entered form data? As always, your help and direction is appreciated. -Paul

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  • WCF - separating service contracts and partial deriving?

    - by dwhittenburg
    So, I've seperated my WCF service contracts into discrete contracts for re-use. I use to have IOneServiceContract that contained 3 functions: Function1, Function2, Function3. I've seperated this service contract into two discrete service contracts: IServiceContract1 and IServiceContract2. IServiceContract1 contains Function1 and IServiceContract2 contains Function2 and Function3. This will allow me to re-use the discrete IServiceContract1 and/or IServiceContract2 to build a new service contract that represents the contract for the public service. Knowing this...and hopefully I haven't messed up the description so that you can't follow the rest... I have two services IService1 and IService2. IService1 implements IServiceContract1 and IServiceContract2. This works perfect as IService1 needs to implement all of the functions: Function1, Function2, Function3. IService2 however doesn't need to implement all of the functions of IServiceContract2, only Function1. Is there a way for IService2 to partially implement the contract? I know that sounds ridiculous. Is the correct way to handle this situation to try and logically separate IServiceContract2 so that IService2 only has to implement the pieces that it needs? Thanks

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  • Google Chrome Extension - Help needed

    - by Jim-Y
    Im new on Google Chrome Extensions coding, and i have some basic questions. I want to make a Chrome Extension, and the scheme is the following: -a popup window, containing buttons and result fields (popup.html) -when a button is clicked, i want to trigger an event, this event should connect to a webserver (i make the servlet too), and gather information from the server. (XMLHttpRequest()) -after that, i want my extension to load the gathered information into one of the result fields. Simple, isn't it? But i have several problems, right at the beginning:( I started developing with reading tutorials, but i have fog on the main structure of an extension. Now, i started an app, containing a popup.html, manifest.json ... In popup.html theres a result field, and a button <div id="extension_container"> <div id="header"> <p id="intro">Result here</p> <button type="button" id="button">Click Me!</button> </div> <!-- END header --> <div id="content"> </div> <!-- END content --> When button is clicked, i trigger an event, handeled with jquery, code here: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#button").click(function(){ $("#intro").text("Hello, im added"); alert("Clicked"); }); }); </script> And here comes the problem, in popup.html this doesnt work, if i load it to Chrome, nothing happens. Otherwise, if i open popup.html in browser, not as an extension, everything works fine. So, i think i have basic misunderstandings on extension structures, starting with background pages, background javascript and so on.. :( Could anyone help me?

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  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

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  • How to create resource manager in ASP.NET

    - by Bart
    Hello, I would like to create resource manager on my page and use some data stored in my resource files. (default.aspx.resx and default.aspx.en.resx) The code looks like this: System.Resources.ResourceManager myResourceManager = System.Resources.ResourceManager.CreateFileBasedResourceManager("resource", Server.MapPath("App_LocalResources") + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar, null); if (User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Welcome.Text = myResourceManager.GetString("LoggedInWelcomeText"); } else { Welcome.Text = myResourceManager.GetString("LoggedOutWelcomeText"); } but when i compile and run it on my local server i get this type of error: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture (or the neutral culture) on disk. baseName: resource locationInfo: fileName: resource.resources Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Resources.MissingManifestResourceException: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture (or the neutral culture) on disk. baseName: resource locationInfo: fileName: resource.resources Source Error: Line 89: else Line 90: { Line 91: Welcome.Text = myResourceManager.GetString("LoggedOutWelcomeText"); Line 92: } Line 93: can you please assist me with this issue?

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  • How to make CFileDialog synchronize the displayed filename with the selected extension?

    - by RobH
    We have a class that derives from CFileDialog that overrides the OnTypeChange() method to allow it to change the filename to keep it in synch with the selected extension whenever the user selects a new extension from the filter combobox. (Our filters are set to contain only one extension per filter entry.) Unfortunately, the way we are doing this seems to have been broken by the Vista style dialogue. (We were using SetControlText() to set the filename edit box to the filename with the newly selected extension, but the control ID seems to be different for the Vista style dialogue, and the one that I found using Spy++ works just as well as the old ID (i.e., it doesn't)..) Is there a better way to tell the CFileDialog object to update the filename field to use the new extension when the user selects a new filter? It has to work with the old XP style dialogue as well. Failing that, how to I force the use of the XP style dialogue so that I get my functionality back without the dialogue crashing on me? (I'd rather not go that route if at all possible.) I've found a way to get it to fall back to the XP style. I still want to get the new style dialogue to do what I want though.

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  • Database design grouping contacts by lists and companies

    - by Serge
    Hi, I'm wondering what would be the best way to group contacts by their company. Right now a user can group their contacts by custom created lists but I'd like to be able to group contacts by their company as well as store the contact's position (i.e. Project Manager of XYZ company). Database wise this is what I have for grouping contacts into lists contact [id_contact] [int] PK NOT NULL, [lastName] [varchar] (128) NULL, [firstName] [varchar] (128) NULL, ...... contact_list [id_contact] [int] FK, [id_list] [int] FK, list [id_list] [int] PK [id_user] [int] FK [list_name] [varchar] (128) NOT NULL, [description] [TEXT] NULL Should I implement something similar for grouping contacts by company? If so how would I store the contact's position in that company and how can I prevent data corruption if a user modifies a contact's company name. For instance John Doe changed companies but the other co-workers are still in the old company. I doubt that will happen often (might not even happen at all) but better be safe than sorry. I'm also keeping an audit trail so in a way the contact would still need to be linked to the old company as well as the new one but without confusing what company he's actually working at the moment. I hope that made sense... Has anyone encountered such a problem? UPDATE Would something like this make sense contact_company [id_contact_company] [int] PK [id_contact] [int] FK [id_company] [int] FK [contact_title] [varchar] (128) company [id_company] [int] PK NOT NULL, [company_name] [varchar] (128) NULL, [company_description] [varchar] (300) NULL, [created_date] [datetime] NOT NULL This way a contact can work for more than one company and contacts can be grouped by companies

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  • ASP.NET MVC Facebook

    - by durilai
    I am trying to do a seemingly simple thing, but having trouble accomplishing it. I am trying to automate the posting on my Facebook wall. Basically I have a ASP.NET MVC website that I post updates on, and I want to automatically submit the post to my wall. I see a lot of stuff on FB Connect and getting data, I just want to post. Thanks for any help or guidance. UPDATE: Just trying to resurrect, and be a little more clear in my description as I am not getting anywhere. I have a page that I want with a text box and a button. When I submit the form I want the message to post to my Facebook wall. I thought it was Facebook Connect, but I am getting no where as to how to automatically authenticate myself and post to my wall. I would like to use C# rather than JavaScript. private const string ApplicationKey = "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"; private const string SecretKey = "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"; private Facebook.Rest.Api _facebookAPI; private Facebook.Session.ConnectSession _connectSession; [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(FormCollection form) { _connectSession = new Facebook.Session.ConnectSession(ApplicationKey, SecretKey); if (_connectSession.IsConnected()) { _facebookAPI = new Facebook.Rest.Api(_connectSession); string response = _facebookAPI.Stream.Publish("This is a generated test"); } return View(); } } The IsConnected() is returning false. Any help is appreciated.

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  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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