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• How to build n-layered web architecture with PHP?

  - by Alex

  I have a description and design of a website and I need to redesign it to allow for new requirements. The website's purpose is the offering of government's contracts and bidding opportunities for different businesses.I'm dealing with the 3-tier architecture PHP website comprising of the user-interface tier(client's web browser),business logic layer(Apache web server with PHP engine in it and a couple of applications running within a web server as well) and a database layer(local mysql database). Now,i need to redesign it to su???rt distributed n-tier architecture and specify how I would go about it.After long hours of research i came to this solution: business logic should be separated into presentation and purely business logic tier to allow for n-layer architecture(user-interface,presentation tier,b.logic and data tier).I have decided to use ??? just for the presentation(since the original existing website is in PHP) and use it within apache web server.In the business logic i want to use J2?? implementation technology instead of implementing it in PHP(i.e using Zend app.server and smarty template) cz J2EE can provide much more essential container services which are essential for business logic,its robustness,maintainability and different critical business operations which will be carried out by the g?v?rnment's website.So,particularly,i want to use J??ss app.server with ?J? business objects in it which would provide all the b.logic in java and would interact with the database and so forth.In order to connect PHP on a web server with java on app.server i'm gonna use PHP/Java bridge API (or maybe Quercus or SOAP is better?).Finally,i have my data tier with mysql which will communicate with b.logic via JD??.Payment system application in ???.server is gonna use S??? to talk with credit card company. From your professional point of view,does it sound like a good way of redesigning the original website to allow for n-tier architecture considering the specifics of the website and the criticality of its operations?(payment system is included in it)or u would personally prefer to use PHP business objects for business logic as well instead of J2EE?If you have any wiser recommendation or some alternative,please let me know what is right or wrong in my current solution. H??? to hear your professional advice very s??n (I'm new to the area of web development) Thanks in advance

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• Handling one-to-many relationship with ZF partialLoop

  - by snaken

  Lets say i'm listing musical artists, each artist has basic information like Name, Age etc. stored in an artist table. They also have entries in an Albums table (album name/album cover etc), referencing the artist table using the artist id as a foreign key. I have the Model_Artist (Artist.php) file: class Model_Artist extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'artist'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_ArtistAlbums'); public function fetchArtistss() { $select = $this->select(); return $this->fetchAll($select); } } and to the Model_ArtistAlbums (ArtistAlbums.php) file class Model_ArtistAlbums extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'albums'; protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Artists' => array( 'columns' => 'alb_art_id', 'refTableClass' => 'Model_Artist', 'refColumns' => 'art_id' ) ); // etc } in my controller: public function indexAction() { /* THIS WORKS $art = new Model_Artist(); $artRowset = $art->find(1); $art1 = $artRowset->current(); $artalbums = $art1->findDependentRowset('Model_ArtistAlbums'); foreach($artalbums as $album){ echo $album->alb_title."<br>"; } */ $arts = new Model_Artist(); $this->view->artists = $arts->fetchArtists(); } in the view file: $this->partial()->setObjectKey('artist'); echo $this->partialLoop('admin/list-artists.phtml', $this->artists); but with this code in artists/list-artists.phtml: foreach($this->artist->findDependentRowset('albums') as $album): // other stuff endforeach; i get this error: Fatal error: Call to a member function findDependentRowset() on a non-object A var_dump of $this->artist = NULL.

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• Add Zend_Navigation to the View with old legacy bootstrap

  - by Grant Collins

  Hi, I've been struggling with Zend_Navigation all weekend, and now I have another problem, which I believe has been the cause of a lot of my issues. I am trying to add Zend_Navigation to a legacy 1.7.6 Zend Framework application, i've updated the Zend Library to 1.9.0 and updated the bootstrap to allow this library update. The problem is that I don't know how, and the examples show the new bootstrap method of how to add the Navigation object to the view, I've tried this: //initialise the application layouts with the MVC helpers $layout = Zend_Layout::startMvc(array('layoutPath' => '../application/layouts')); $view = $layout->getView(); $configNav = new Zend_Config_Xml('../application/config/navigation.xml', 'navigation'); $navigation = new Zend_Navigation($configNav); $view->navigation($navigation); $viewRenderer = new Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_ViewRenderer(); $viewRenderer->setView($view); This seems to run through fine, but when I go to use the breadcrumb view helper in my layout, it errors with: Strict Standards: Creating default object from empty value in C:\www\moobia\development\website\application\modules\employers\controllers\IndexController.php on line 27 This is caused by the following code in the init() function of my controller. $uri = $this->_request->getPathInfo(); $activeNav = $this->view->navigation()->findByUri($uri); <- this is null when called $activeNav->active = true; I believe it's because the Zend_Navigation object is not in the view. I would look at migrating the bootstrap to the current method, but at present I am running out of time for a release. Thanks, Grant

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• change image upon selection, searching list for the src value jQuery

  - by Charles Marsh

  Hello all, Can anyone see anything that is wrong with this code it just isn't working... Should be clear what I am trying to do jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('#product-variants-option-0').change(function() { // What is the sku of the current variant selection. var select_value = $(this).find(':selected').val(); if (select_value == "Kelly Green") { var keyword = "kly"; }; var new_src = $('#preload img[src*="kly"]'); $('div.image').attr('src', new_src); }); }); The selection: <select class="single-option-selector-0" id="product-variants-option-0"> <option value="Kelly Green">Kelly Green</option> <option value="Navy">Navy</option> <option value="Olive">Olive</option> <option value="Cocoa">Cocoa</option> </select> I'm trying to search an unordered list: <ul id="preload" style="display:none;"> <li>0z-kelly-green-medium.jpg</li> <li>0z-olive-medium.jpg</li> </ul>

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• HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

  - by Paul Smith

  My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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• Taking the data mapper approach in Zend Framework

  - by Seeker

  Let's assume the following tables setup for a Zend Framework app. user (id) groups (id) groups_users (id, user_id, group_id, join_date) I took the Data Mapper approach to models which basically gives me: Model_User, Model_UsersMapper, Model_DbTable_Users Model_Group, Model_GroupsMapper, Model_DbTable_Groups Model_GroupUser, Model_GroupsUsersMapper, Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers (for holding the relationships which can be seen as aentities; notice the "join_date" property) I'm defining the _referenceMap in Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers: protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'User' => array ( 'columns' => array('user_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Users', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), 'App' => array ( 'columns' => array('group_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'refColumns' => array('id') ) ); I'm having these design problems in mind: 1) The Model_Group only mirrors the fields in the groups table. How can I return a collection of groups a user is a member of and also the date the user joined that group for every group? If I just added the property to the domain object, then I'd have to let the group mapper know about it, wouldn't I? 2) Let's say I need to fetch the groups a user belongs to. Where should I put this logic? Model_UsersMapper or Model_GroupsUsersMapper? I also want to make use of the referencing map (dependent tables) mechanism and probably use findManyToManyRowset or findDependentRowset, something like: $result = $this->getDbTable()->find($userId); $row = $result->current(); $groups = $row->findManyToManyRowset( 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers' ); This would produce two queries when I could have just written it in a single query. I will place this in the Model_GroupsUsersMapper class. An enhancement would be to add a getGroups method to the Model_User domain object which lazily loads the groups when needed by calling the appropriate method in the data mapper, which begs for the second question. Should I allow the domain object know about the data mapper?

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• Due Date set via EWS is wrong in reminder popup

  - by Paul McLean

  I'm having some trouble using EWS with tasks and reminders, specifically, the due date. When I run my code, shown below, the task is added to my exchange account and I can see it fine in outlook. All the data in it looks fine too. However, if I specify to have a reminder for the task, the due date it shows is very wrong. It's usually 17 hours in the future, but the screenshot I've provided shows it being 19 hours in the future. I'm finding it very strange that if I open the task, the due date looks fine, but the reminder is saying it is due well into the future. Any ideas? Screenshot: http://s970.photobucket.com/albums/ae187/paulehn/?action=view&current=ewstask.jpg ExchangeVersion exchVersion = new ExchangeVersion(); exchVersion = ExchangeVersion.Exchange2007_SP1; ExchangeService service = new ExchangeService(exchVersion); service.UseDefaultCredentials = true; service.Url = new Uri("https://mail.domain.com.au/ews/exchange.asmx"); Task task = new Task(service); task.Subject = "Subject"; task.Body = new MessageBody(BodyType.HTML, "Body"); task.StartDate = DateTime.Today; task.DueDate = DateTime.Now.AddHours(2); task.ReminderDueBy = DateTime.Now; task.ReminderMinutesBeforeStart = 15; task.IsReminderSet = true; task.Save();

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• Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

  - by eanticev

  I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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• Lotus Notes - Export emails to plain text file

  - by mbeckish

  I am setting up a Lotus Notes account to accept emails from a client, and automatically save each email as a plain text file to be processed by another application. So, I'm trying to create my very first Agent in Lotus to automatically export the emails to text. Is there a standard, best practices way to do this? I've created a LotusScript Agent that pretty much works. However, there is a bug - once the Body of the memo exceeds 32K characters, it starts inserting extra CR/LF pairs. I am using Lotus Notes 7.0.3. Here is my script: Sub Initialize On Error Goto ErrorCleanup Dim session As New NotesSession Dim db As NotesDatabase Dim doc As NotesDocument Dim uniqueID As Variant Dim curView As NotesView Dim docCount As Integer Dim notesInputFolder As String Dim notesValidOutputFolder As String Dim notesErrorOutputFolder As String Dim outputFolder As String Dim fileNum As Integer Dim bodyRichText As NotesRichTextItem Dim bodyUnformattedText As String Dim subjectText As NotesItem ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 'INPUT OUTPUT LOCATIONS outputFolder = "\\PASCRIA\CignaDFS\CUser1\Home\mikebec\MyDocuments\" notesInputFolder = "IBEmails" notesValidOutputFolder = "IBEmailsDone" notesErrorOutputFolder="IBEmailsError" ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' Set db = session.CurrentDatabase Set curview = db.GetView(notesInputFolder ) docCount = curview.EntryCount Print "NUMBER OF DOCS " & docCount fileNum = 1 While (docCount > 0) 'set current doc to Set doc = curview.GetNthDocument(docCount) Set bodyRichText = doc.GetFirstItem( "Body" ) bodyUnformattedText = bodyRichText.GetUnformattedText() Set subjectText = doc.GetFirstItem("Subject") If subjectText.Text = "LotusAgentTest" Then uniqueID = Evaluate("@Unique") Open "\\PASCRIA\CignaDFS\CUser1\Home\mikebec\MyDocuments\email_" & uniqueID(0) & ".txt" For Output As fileNum Print #fileNum, "Subject:" & subjectText.Text Print #fileNum, "Date:" & Now Print #fileNum, bodyUnformattedText Close fileNum fileNum = fileNum + 1 Call doc.PutInFolder(notesValidOutputFolder) Call doc.RemoveFromFolder(notesInputFolder) End If doccount = doccount-1 Wend Exit Sub ErrorCleanup: Call sendErrorEmail(db,doc.GetItemValue("From")(0)) Call doc.PutInFolder(notesErrorOutputFolder) Call doc.RemoveFromFolder(notesInputFolder) End Sub Update Apparently the 32KB issue isn't consistent - so far, it's just one document that starts getting extra carriage returns after 32K.

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• How do I change an attribute in an HTML table's cell if I know the row and column index of the cell?

  - by Mark

  I know nothing about jQuery but am an experienced C++ programmer (not sure if that helps or hurts). I found jQuery code that gives me the row and column index of a cell in an HTML table when a user clicks on that cell. Using such row-column index numbers, I need to change an attribute's value in the previously selected cell and in the cell just clicked. The index numbers are produced and saved with this code: var $trCurrent = 0; // Index of cell selected when page opens var $tdCurrent = 0; // i.e., previously selected cell $(document).ready(function () { $("td").click(function () { // How toclear previously selected cell's attribute here? ('class', 'recent') var oTr = $(this).parents("tr"); $tdCurrent = oTr.children("td").index(this); }); $("tr").click(function () { $trCurrent = $(this)[0].rowIndex; // How to set new attributes here? ('class', 'current'); // and continue work using information from currently selected cell }); }); Any help or hints would be appreciated. I do not even know if this is the way I should get the index of the row and column. Thanks.

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• How to use Common Table Expression and check no duplication in SQL Server

  - by vodkhang

  I have a table references to itself. User table: id, username, managerid and managerid links back to id Now, I want to get all the managers including direct manager, manager of direct manager, so on and so forth... The problem is that I do not want to have a unstop recursive sql. So, I want to check if an id alreay in a list, I will not include it anymore. Here is my sql for that: with all_managers (id, username, managerid, idlist) as ( select u1.id, u1.username, u1.managerid, ' ' from users u1, users u2 where u1.id = u2.managerid and u2.id = 6 UNION ALL select u.id, u.username, u.managerid, idlist + ' ' + u.id from all_managers a, users u where a.managerid = u.id and charindex(cast(u.id as nvarchar(5)), idlist) != 0 ) select id, username from all_managers; The problem is that in this line: select u1.id, u1.username, u1.managerid, ' ' The SQL Server complains with me that I can not put ' ' as the initialized for idlist. nvarchar(40) does not work as well. I do not know how to declare it inside a common table expression like this one. Usually, in db2, I can just put varchar(40) My sample data: ID UserName ManagerID 1 admin 1 2 a 1 3 b 1 4 c 2 What I want to do is that I want to find all managers of c guy. The result should be: admin, a, b. Some of the user can be his manager (like admin) because the ManagerID does not allow NULL and some does not have direct manager. With common table expression, it can lead to an infinite recursive. So, I am also trying to avoid that situation by trying to not include the id twice. For example, in the 1st iteration, we already have id : 1, so, in the 2nd iteration and later on, 1 should never be allowed. I also want to ask if my current approach is good or not and any other solutions? Because if I have a big database with a deep hierarchy, I will have to initialize a big varchar to keep it and it consumes memory, right?

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• Delphi - OnKeyPress occurs before TStringGrid updates cell with new character

  - by JMTyler

  Coding in Delphi, attaching an OnKeyPress event handler to a TStringGrid: The OnKeyPress event fires before the grid cell that the user is typing into has actually updated its value with the key that has been pressed. This is obviously a problem, when I want to know what the contents of that cell are at this moment, as in, as the user modifies it. The "hacked" solution is simple, if you're not considering every detail: just grab the value from the cell and, since the OnKeyPress event comes along with a Key parameter, append that value to the end - now you have the current value of the cell! False. What if the user has selected all the text in the cell (ie: "foo") and they are now typing 'b'. Since they selected the text, it will be erased and replaced with the letter 'b'. However, the value of the cell will still display as "foo" in OnKeyPress, and the value of Key will be 'b', so the above logic would lead the application to conclude that the cell now contains "foob", which we know is not true. So. Does anybody know how to get around this problem? Is there a way to make OnKeyPress react after the grid's contents have been updated, or perhaps a way to force an update at the start of the handler? I am desperately avoiding the use of the OnKeyUp event here, so any suggestions aside from that would be greatly appreciated.

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• How to organize the work when project needs to be re-implemented due to poor code quality?

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, I have joined a very small where one main developer has been buiding the web app (.NET 4.0) during ~6 months. The project should be delivered within next 2 months. After first look at the code I can say that I would never allow it to go to production (things like catch { }, not tests at all with WebForms etc). So the code quality is incredibly low. My task is to improve that and still deliver the solution. So I plan to start with unit testing and MVC2 reimplementing most of the functionality (though using some of the existing code). I estimate that I will need about 6 weeks to catch up with the current progress and be on te same functionality level as the application will be in 6 months. The problem is that the main developer who has been working on the project does not seem to be very 'professional' and skillful (he seems to be really starting in IT and many basic things are unknown to him). It will take significant amount of time and effort to educate him how to do the proper testing, development and apply some patterns. I am ready to take responsibility for the reimplemnting the application but at the same time I don't want the main developer to be on idle but as he won't be able to significantly contribute to the better-world project at this stage I am not sure what would the best way to keep productivity high for both of us. Currently I think following solution is good enough: He proceeds doing what he does until I will catch up with him and then start working on a new project together. The problem is that of course this approach is not very productive as one developer will do better-world project while the other will proceed with what he did, effectively doing similar tasks. Can you suggest how we could better organise the work together in order to be most efficient for the overall project? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Async file uploads in Firefox reset on any DOM change

  - by Vibhu

  I'm pretty sure this is a Firefox or flash-related bug, but I just want to check if anyone has ran into this problem or knows how to fix it. Basically, we have a multi-file upload widget for our highly dynamic web app (think Gmail). We've tried both uploadify for jQuery, and YUI uploader. We've also tried taking those out of our app interface and putting them in an iFrame. What happens is that in the event of any DOM manipulation, even if the uploader is in an iFrame, be it a tab change (in our web app) that covers the iframe temporarily, or a block, etc., the uploader will stop its current upload. In the case of YUI uploader, it fires the "contentReady" event again. This ONLY happens in Firefox. IE and Chrome are fine. In case you are wondering, we really don't have any custom needs here. Just need to have multi-upload file support, and we need to give people free reign to tab around in our interface while an upload is in progress. It seems like Yahoo! and Gmail have both solved this problem. How? What are we doing wrong?

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• WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

  - by mafutrct

  I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

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• WCF Certificates without Certificate Store

  - by Kane

  My team is developing a number of WPF plug-ins for a 3rd party thick client application. The WPF plug-ins use WCF to consume web services published by a number of TIBCO services. The thick client application maintains a separate central data store and uses a proprietary API to access the data store. The thick client and WPF plug-ins are due to be deployed onto 10,000 workstations. Our customer wants to keep the certificate used by the thick client in the central data store so that they don't need to worry about re-issuing the certificate (current re-issue cycle takes about 3 months) and also have the opportunity to authorise the use of the certificate. The proposed architecture offers a form of shared secret / authentication between the central data store and the TIBCO services. Whilst I don’t necessarily agree with the proposed architecture our team is not able to change it and must work with what’s been provided. Basically our client wants us to build into our WPF plug-ins a mechanism which retrieves the certificate from the central data store (which will be allowed or denied based on roles in that data store) into memory then use the certificate for creating the SSL connection to the TIBCO services. No use of the local machine's certificate store is allowed and the in memory version is to be discarded at the end of each session. So the question is does anyone know if it is possible to pass an in-memory certificate to a WCF (.NET 3.5) service for SSL transport level encryption? Note: I had asked a similar question (here) but have since deleted it and re-asked it with more information.

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• How to get the path of a derived class from an inherited method?

  - by Jacco

  How to get the path of the current class, from an inherited method? I have the following: <?php // file: /parentDir/class.php class Parent { protected function getDir() { return dirname(__FILE__); } } ?> and <?php // file: /childDir/class.php class Child extends Parent { public function __construct() { echo $this->getDir(); } } $tmp = new Child(); // output: '/parentDir' ?> The __FILE__ constant always points to the source-file of the file it is in, regardless of inheritance. I would like to get the name of the path for the derived class. Is there any elegant way of doing this? I could do something along the lines of $this->getDir(__FILE__); but that would mean that I have to repeat myself quite often. I'm looking for a method that puts all the logic in the parent class, if possible. Update: Accepted solution (by Palantir): <?php // file: /parentDir/class.php class Parent { protected function getDir() { $reflector = new ReflectionClass(get_class($this)); return dirname($reflector->getFileName()); } } ?>

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• Credit card system implementation?

  - by Mark

  My site is going to have a credit system that basically works a lot like a credit card. Each user has an unlimited credit limit, but at the end of each week, they have to pay it off. For example, a user might make several purchases between March 1st and 7th, and then at the end of March 7th, they would be emailed an invoice that lists all their purchases during the week and a total that is due by the 14th. If they don't pay it off, their account is simply deactivated until they do. I'm just trying to wrap my head around how to implement this. I have a list of all their purchases, that's not a problem, but I'm just trying to figure out what to do with it. On the end of the 7th day, I could set up a cronjob to generate an invoice, which would basically have an id, and due date, and then I would need another many-to-many table to link all the purchases to the invoice. Then when a user adds money to their account, I guess it's applied against their current outstanding invoice? And what if they don't pay off their invoice by the time a new invoice rolls around, so now they have 2 outstanding ones, how do I know which to apply it against? Or do I make the cronjob check for any previous outstanding invoices, cancel them, and add a new item to the new invoice as "balance forward (+interest)"? How would you apply the money against an invoice? Would each payment have to be linked to an invoice, or could I just deposit it to their account credit, and then somehow figure out whats been paid and what hasn't? What if they pay in advance, before their invoice has been generated? Do I deduct it from their credit from the invoice upon generation, or at the end of the week when its due? There are so many ways to do this... Can anyone describe what approach they would take?

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• Implementing the ‘defer’ statement from Go in Objective-C?

  - by zoul

  Hello! Today I read about the defer statement in the Go language: A defer statement pushes a function call onto a list. The list of saved calls is executed after the surrounding function returns. Defer is commonly used to simplify functions that perform various clean-up actions. I thought it would be fun to implement something like this in Objective-C. Do you have some idea how to do it? I thought about dispatch finalizers, autoreleased objects and C++ destructors. Autoreleased objects: @interface Defer : NSObject {} + (id) withCode: (dispatch_block_t) block; @end @implementation Defer - (void) dealloc { block(); [super dealloc]; } @end #define defer(__x) [Defer withCode:^{__x}] - (void) function { defer(NSLog(@"Done")); … } Autoreleased objects seem like the only solution that would last at least to the end of the function, as the other solutions would trigger when the current scope ends. On the other hand they could stay in the memory much longer, which would be asking for trouble. Dispatch finalizers were my first thought, because blocks live on the stack and therefore I could easily make something execute when the stack unrolls. But after a peek in the documentation it doesn’t look like I can attach a simple “destructor” function to a block, can I? C++ destructors are about the same thing, I would create a stack-based object with a block to be executed when the destructor runs. This would have the ugly disadvantage of turning the plain .m files into Objective-C++? I don’t really think about using this stuff in production, I’m just interested in various solutions. Can you come up with something working, without obvious disadvantages? Both scope-based and function-based solutions would be interesting.

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• EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

  - by justastefan

  Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

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• How do I read the manifest file for a webapp running in apache tomcat?

  - by Nik Reiman

  I have a webapp which contains a manifest file, in which I write the current version of my application during an ant build task. The manifest file is created correctly, but when I try to read it in during runtime, I get some strange side-effects. My code for reading in the manifest is something like this: InputStream manifestStream = Thread.currentThread() .getContextClassLoader() .getResourceAsStream("META-INFFFF/MANIFEST.MF"); try { Manifest manifest = new Manifest(manifestStream); Attributes attributes = manifest.getMainAttributes(); String impVersion = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Version"); mVersionString = impVersion; } catch(IOException ex) { logger.warn("Error while reading version: " + ex.getMessage()); } When I attach eclipse to tomcat, I see that the above code works, but it seems to get a different manifest file than the one I expected, which I can tell because the ant version and build timestamp are both different. Then, I put "META-INFFFF" in there, and the above code still works! This means that I'm reading some other manifest, not mine. I also tried this.getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(...) But the result was the same. What's the proper way to read the manifest file from inside of a webapp running in tomcat? Edit: Thanks for the suggestions so far. Also, I should note that I am running tomcat standalone; I launch it from the command line, and then attach to the running instance in Eclipse's debugger. That shouldn't make a difference, should it?

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• Paypal sandbox account in dotnet: "IPN Response invalid"

  - by Sam

  I am integrating Paypal with my website. I use a sandbox account, one buyer account and one seller account. I downloaded the code below from Paypal: string strSandbox = "https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr"; HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strSandbox); //Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; byte[] param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength); string strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param); strRequest += "&cmd=_notify-validate"; req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length; //for proxy //WebProxy proxy = new WebProxy(new Uri("http://url:port#")); //req.Proxy = proxy; //Send the request to PayPal and get the response StreamWriter streamOut = new StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII); streamOut.Write(strRequest); streamOut.Close(); StreamReader streamIn = new StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()); string strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd(); streamIn.Close(); if (strResponse == "VERIFIED") { //check the payment_status is Completed //check that txn_id has not been previously processed //check that receiver_email is your Primary PayPal email //check that payment_amount/payment_currency are correct //process payment } else if (strResponse == "INVALID") { //log for manual investigation } else { //log response/ipn data for manual investigation } When I add this snippet in my pageload event of my success page, I show the IPN response as INVALID, but amount is paid successfully. Why is this? Paypal's docs are not clear.

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• rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

  - by nathanvda

  Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

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• Injecting Subsonic SimpleRepository class to controller

  - by ryudice

  Hi, I'm tryingot get started with IoC, I have an MVC project in which is use subsonic, I'm trying to inject subsonic simplerepository to my controllers but I'm getting this error: StructureMap Exception Code: 205 Missing requested Instance property "connectionStringName" for InstanceKey "60b735fb-0a7f-4eb4-be04-635f6f32233d" Here is my registry class: public class RepositoryRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IRepository>().TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType(typeof(SimpleRepository)); } } And here is my controller factory: public class StoreControllerFactory: DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; if (controllerType!=null) { result = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } return result; } } And this is how I configure StructureMap: protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=> { x.AddRegistry(new RepositoryRegistry()); }); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new StoreControllerFactory()); var sparkSettings = new SparkSettings().SetDebug(true).AddNamespace("System.Web.Mvc.Html"); ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new SparkViewFactory(sparkSettings)); } Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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• LINQ Query to DataTable.DataSource

  - by lumberjack

  I am trying to perform a LINQ query on a DataTable and show the result in another DataTable. My source DataTable looks something like this: DataTable myDataTable = new DataTable(); myDataTable.Columns.Add("OrderID", typeof(int)); myDataTable.Columns.Add("Date", typeof(DateTime)); myDataTable.Columns.Add("UnitsPurchased", typeof(int)); The resulting DataTable looks like this when filled: Order ID Date Units Purchased 16548 10/15/09 250 17984 11/03/09 512 20349 01/11/10 213 34872 01/15/10 175 My current LINQ query looks like this: IEnumerable<DataRow> query = (from row in myDataTable.AsEnumerable() where row.UnitsPurchased > 200 select new { row.OrderID, row.Date, row.UnitsPurchased }) as IEnumerable<DataRow>; resultDataTable.DataSource = query.CopyToDataTable<DataRow>(); Every time I run this code query is null. I can see that that the as IEnumerable<DataRow> is the culprit, but it makes no since to me since DataTable.AsEnumerable() returns an IEnumerable<DataRow>. Any help would be appreciated.

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