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  • Poco SocketReactors for a Proxy Server

    - by Genesis
    Can anyone give me some idea of the best way to implement a non-blocking proxy server using a Poco Socket Reactor? Currently I have a blocking implementation where if a readable notification arrives from the client I am writing what is read directly to the server, and if a readable notification arrives from the server I am writing what is read directly to the client. To achieve this I keep the thread that initiated the server connection alive but I would prefer to switch to non-blocking and have any threads which are used to initiate a connection removed once the server and client sockets are registered with the reactor and the SOCKS5 handshake is over. With a SocketReactor one can register event handlers for a single socket but the trouble is I would need to store whatever is read from that socket in a global buffer until the corresponding server socket is ready to be written to as from my testing I dont seem to be able to just write directly to the server when client data arrives. I am thinking of using a struct that contains the client socket, server socket, client buffer and server buffer and whenever a writable notification comes along for either the client or server, finding the corresponding buffer and writing this. Any thoughts?

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  • Can you use gzip over SSL? And Connection: Keep-Alive headers

    - by magenta
    I'm evaluating the front end performance of a secure (SSL) web app here at work and I'm wondering if it's possible to compress text files (html/css/javascript) over SSL. I've done some googling around but haven't found anything specifically related to SSL. If it's possible, is it even worth the extra CPU cycles since responses are also being encrypted? Would compressing responses hurt performance? Also, I'm wanting to make sure we're keeping the SSL connection alive so we're not making SSL handshakes over and over. I'm not seeing Connection: Keep-Alive in the response headers. I do see Keep-Alive: 115 in the request headers but that's only keeping the connection alive for 115 milliseconds (seems like the app server is closing the connection after a single request is processed?) Wouldn't you want the server to be setting that response header for as long as the session inactivity timeout is? I understand browsers don't cache SSL content to disk so we're serving the same files over and over and over on subsequent visits even though nothing has changed. The main optimization recommendations are reducing the number of http requests, minification, moving scripts to bottom, image optimization, possible domain sharding (though need to weigh the cost of another SSL handshake), things of that nature.

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  • iCal file that will update the attendee list?

    - by Peyton Manning
    So I want to add an iCal file to a web page, so that people can add an event to their calendars. But when I view the event in my calendar (Outlook 2007) I want to see everyone who will be attending. How can I do that? I just started experimenting with this, I used Outlook's Save As to create an iCal file for a single event. That works, I can link to that file and other people can add the event to their calendars. But it doesn't tell me who has added it. Here is the (Outlook-generated) code: BEGIN:VCALENDAR PRODID:-//Microsoft Corporation//Outlook 12.0 MIMEDIR//EN VERSION:2.0 METHOD:PUBLISH X-MS-OLK-FORCEINSPECTOROPEN:TRUE BEGIN:VEVENT CLASS:PUBLIC CREATED:20100413T175736Z DESCRIPTION:I want to see if the attendee list is updated when someone adds this event.\n DTEND:20100421T153000Z DTSTAMP:20100413T175736Z DTSTART:20100421T150000Z LAST-MODIFIED:20100413T175736Z LOCATION:Wherever PRIORITY:5 SEQUENCE:0 SUMMARY;LANGUAGE=en-us:Totally fake event TRANSP:OPAQUE UID:040000008200E00074C5B7101A82E00800000000604A0119F8DACA01000000000000000 0100000004D19467F69BF6041A0B0FAFFECA1864B X-ALT-DESC;FMTTYPE=text/html:\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nI want to see if the attendee list is updated when someone adds this e vent.\n\n\n X-MICROSOFT-CDO-BUSYSTATUS:BUSY X-MICROSOFT-CDO-IMPORTANCE:1 X-MICROSOFT-DISALLOW-COUNTER:FALSE X-MS-OLK-ALLOWEXTERNCHECK:TRUE X-MS-OLK-AUTOFILLLOCATION:FALSE X-MS-OLK-CONFTYPE:0 BEGIN:VALARM TRIGGER:-PT15M ACTION:DISPLAY DESCRIPTION:Reminder END:VALARM END:VEVENT END:VCALENDAR

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  • ProgrammingError when aggregating over an annotated & grouped Django ORM query

    - by ento
    I'm trying to construct a query to get the "average, maximum, minimum number of items purchased by a single user". The data source is this simple sales record table: class SalesRecord(models.Model): id = models.IntegerField(primary_key=True) user_id = models.IntegerField() product_code = models.CharField() price = models.IntegerField() created_at = models.DateTimeField() A new record is inserted into this table for every item purchased by a user. Here's my attempt at building the query: q = SalesRecord.objects.all() q = q.values('user_id').annotate( # group by user and count the # of records count=Count('id'), # (= # of items) ).order_by() result = q.aggregate(Max('count'), Min('count'), Avg('count')) When I try to execute the code, a ProgrammingError is raised at the last line: (1064, "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'FROM (SELECT sales_records.user_id AS user_id, COUNT(sales_records.`' at line 1") Django's error screen shows that the SQL is SELECT FROM (SELECT `sales_records`.`player_id` AS `player_id`, COUNT(`sales_records`.`id`) AS `count` FROM `sales_records` WHERE (`sales_records`.`created_at` >= %s AND `sales_records`.`created_at` <= %s ) GROUP BY `sales_records`.`player_id` ORDER BY NULL) subquery It's not selecting anything! Can someone please show me the right way to do this? Hacking Django I've found that clearing the cache of selected fields in django.db.models.sql.BaseQuery.get_aggregation() seems to solve the problem. Though I'm not really sure this is a fix or a workaround. @@ -327,10 +327,13 @@ # Remove any aggregates marked for reduction from the subquery # and move them to the outer AggregateQuery. + self._aggregate_select_cache = None + self.aggregate_select_mask = None for alias, aggregate in self.aggregate_select.items(): if aggregate.is_summary: query.aggregate_select[alias] = aggregate - del obj.aggregate_select[alias] + if alias in obj.aggregate_select: + del obj.aggregate_select[alias] ... yields result: {'count__max': 267, 'count__avg': 26.2563, 'count__min': 1}

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  • Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

    - by Otaku
    I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

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  • Enterprise SSO & Identity management / recommendations

    - by Maxim Veksler
    Hello Friends, We've discussed SSO before. I would like to re-enhance the conversation with defined requirements, taking into consideration recent new developments. In the past week I've been doing market research looking for answers to the following key issues: The project should should be: Requirements SSO solution for web applications. Integrates into existing developed products. has Policy based password security (Length, Complexity, Duration and co) Security Policy can be managed using a web interface. Customizable user interface (the password prompt and co. screens). Highly available (99.9%) Scalable. Runs on Red Hat Linux. Nice to have Contains user Groups & Roles. Written in Java. Free Software (open source) solution. None of the solutions came up so far are "killer choice" which leads me to think I will be tooling several projects (OWASP, AcegiSecurity + X??) hence this discussion. We are ISV delivering front-end & backend application suite. The frontend is broken into several modules which should act as autonomous unit, from client point of view he uses the "application" - which leads to this discussion regrading SSO. I would appreciate people sharing their experience & ideas regarding the appropriete solutions. Some solutions are interesting CAS Sun OpenSSO Enterprise JBoss Identity IDM JOSSO Tivoli Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On Or more generally speaking this list Thank you, Maxim.

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  • Submitting a multidimensional array via POST with php

    - by Fireflight
    I have a php form that has a known number of columns (ex. top diameter, bottom diameter, fabric, colour, quantity), but has an unknown number of rows, as users can add rows as they need. I've discovered how to take each of the fields(columns) and place them into an array of their own. <input name="topdiameter['+current+']" type="text" id="topdiameter'+current+'" size="5" /> <input name="bottomdiameter['+current+']" type="text" id="bottomdiameter'+current+'" size="5" /> So what I end up with in the HTML is: <tr> <td><input name="topdiameter[0]" type="text" id="topdiameter0" size="5" /></td> <td><input name="bottomdiameter[0]" type="text" id="bottomdiameter0" size="5" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input name="topdiameter[1]" type="text" id="topdiameter0" size="5" /></td> <td><input name="bottomdiameter[1]" type="text" id="bottomdiameter0" size="5" /></td> </tr> ...and so on. What I would like to do now is take all the rows and columns put them into a multidimensional array and email the contents of that to the client (preferably in a nicely formatted table). I haven't been able to really comprehend how to combine all those inputs and selects into a nice array. At this point, I'm going to have to try to use several 1D arrays, although I have the idea that using a single 2D array would be a better practice than using several 1D arrays.

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  • Smoothing touch-based animation in iPhone OpenGL?

    - by quixoto
    I know this is vague, but looking for general tips/help on this, as it's not an area of significant expertise for me. I have some iPhone code that's basically an EAGL view handling a single touch. The app draws (using GL) a circle via triangle fan at the touch point, and moves it when the user moves the touch point, and re-renders the view then. When dragging a finger slowly, the circle keeps up and consistent with the finger as it moves. If I scribble my finger quickly back and forth across the screen, the rendering doesn't keep up with the touch motion, so you see an optical illusion of "multiple" discrete circles on the screen "at once". (Normal persistence of vision illusion). This optical illusion is jarring. How can I make this look more natural? Can I blur the motion of the circle somehow? Is this result the evidence of some bad frame rate issue? I see this artifact even when nothing else is being rendered, so I think this might just be as fast as we can go. Any hints or suggestions? Much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Good DB Migrations for CakePHP?

    - by Martin Westin
    Hi, I have been trying a few migration scripts for CakePHP but I ran into problems with all of the in some form or another. Please advice me on a migration option for Cake that you use live and know works. I'd like the following "features": -Support CakePHP 1.2(e.g. CakeDCs migrations will only be an option when 1.3 is stable and my app migrated to the new codebase) -Support for (or at least not halt on) Models with a different database config. -Support Models in sub-folders of app/models -Support Models in plugins -Support tables that do not conform to Cake conventions (I have a few special tables that do not have a single primary key field and need to keep them) -Plays well with automated deployment via Capistrano and Git. I do not need rails-style versioned files a git versioned schema file that is compared live to the existing schema will do. That is: I like the SchemaShell in Cake apart from it not being compatible with most of my requirements above. I have looked at and tested: CakePHP Schema Shell http://book.cakephp.org/view/734/Schema-management-and-migrations CakeDC migrations http://cakedc.com/downloads/view/cakephp_migrations_plugin YAML migrations http://github.com/georgious/cakephp-yaml-migrations-and-fixtures joelmoss migrations http://code.google.com/p/cakephp-migrations

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  • VS2008 EF and non crud SP usage.

    - by SteveO
    Using an edmx version of EF. My returned data is a join between tables that has a COMPOUND filter on the primary table. In essence this query is going to return a SEGMENT of Law codes and descriptions that a user can tie to a Sex Offender report. I have a complex SP because Linq2SQL cannot pass in a between statement, or at least that is how I understand the error. The Code itself is broken up by '-' marks. 39-13-504 "Aggravated Sexual Battery" User wants to have a query with 4 parmas 39, 13, 500, 599. Get all codes from Title 39 and Chapter 13 with parts between 500 and 599. I have the SP in place to do the work, is there are way to consume the SP within the EF? I find many blogs about SPs with CRUD operations as their use of an SP. That doesn't fit this need at all. I do not have a single table but a join to the "prior selections" table that maps the key for the code. Any pointers on how to get a READ with an SP? TIA

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  • Can I select 0 columns in SQL Server?

    - by Woody Zenfell III
    I am hoping this question fares a little better than the similar Create a table without columns. Yes, I am asking about something that will strike most as pointlessly academic. It is easy to produce a SELECT result with 0 rows (but with columns), e.g. SELECT a = 1 WHERE 1 = 0. Is it possible to produce a SELECT result with 0 columns (but with rows)? e.g. something like SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo. (This is not valid T-SQL.) I came across this because I wanted to insert several rows without specifying any column data for any of them. e.g. (SQL Server 2005) CREATE TABLE Bar (id INT NOT NULL IDENTITY PRIMARY KEY) INSERT INTO Bar SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo -- Invalid column name 'NO'. -- An explicit value for the identity column in table 'Bar' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. One can insert a single row without specifying any column data, e.g. INSERT INTO Foo DEFAULT VALUES. One can query for a count of rows (without retrieving actual column data from the table), e.g. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Foo. (But that result set, of course, has a column.) I tried things like INSERT INTO Bar () SELECT * FROM Foo -- Parameters supplied for object 'Bar' which is not a function. -- If the parameters are intended as a table hint, a WITH keyword is required. and INSERT INTO Bar DEFAULT VALUES SELECT * FROM Foo -- which is a standalone INSERT statement followed by a standalone SELECT statement. I can do what I need to do a different way, but the apparent lack of consistency in support for degenerate cases surprises me. I read through the relevant sections of BOL and didn't see anything. I was surprised to come up with nothing via Google either.

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  • Ellipsize not working for textView inside custom listView

    - by aspartame
    Hi, I have a listView with custom objects defined by the xml-layout below. I want the textView with id "info" to be ellipsized on a single line, and I've tried using the attributes android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="end" without success. If I set the layout_width to a fixed width like e.g. android:layout_width="100px" the text is truncated fine. But for portability reasons this is not an acceptable solution. Can you spot the problem? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:paddingBottom="5px" > <TextView android:id="@+id/destination" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="22dp" android:paddingLeft="5px" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/date" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="15dp" android:paddingLeft="5px" /> <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/info_table" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="5px" android:paddingTop="10px" > <TableRow> <TextView android:id="@+id/driver_label" android:gravity="right" android:paddingRight="5px" android:text="@string/driver_label" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/driver" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <TextView android:id="@+id/passenger_label" android:gravity="right" android:paddingRight="5px" android:text="@string/passenger_label" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/passengers" /> </TableRow> <TableRow> <TextView android:id="@+id/info_label" android:gravity="right" android:paddingRight="5px" android:text="@string/info_label"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/info" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="end" /> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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  • .NET 4 RTM MetadataType attribute ignored when using Validator

    - by bart
    I am using VS 2010 RTM and trying to perform some basic validation on a simple type using MetadataTypeAttribute. When I put the validation attribute on the main class, everything works. However, when I put it on the metadata class, it seems to be ignored. I must be missing something trivial, but I've been stuck on this for a while now. I had a look at the Enterprise Library validation block as a workaround, but it doesn't support validation of single properties out of the box. Any ideas? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Stuff t = new Stuff(); try { Validator.ValidateProperty(t.X, new ValidationContext(t, null, null) { MemberName = "X" }); Console.WriteLine("Failed!"); } catch (ValidationException) { Console.WriteLine("Succeeded!"); } } } [MetadataType(typeof(StuffMetadata))] public class Stuff { //[Required] //works here public string X { get; set; } } public class StuffMetadata { [Required] //no effect here public string X { get; set; } }

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  • LINQ to SQL : Too much CPU Usage: What happens when there are multiple users.

    - by soldieraman
    I am using LINQ to SQL and seeing my CPU Usage sky rocketting. See below screenshot. I have three questions What can I do to reduce this CPU Usage. I have done profiling and basically removed everything. Will making every LINQ to SQL statement into a compiled query help? I also find that even with compiled queries simple statements like ByID() can take 3 milliseconds on a server with 3.25GB RAM 3.17GHz - this will just become slower on a less powerful computer. Or will the compiled query get faster the more it is used? The CPU Usage (on the local server goes to 12-15%) for a single user will this multiply with the number of users accessing the server - when the application is put on a live server. i.e. 2 users at a time will mean 15*2 = 30% CPU Usage. If this is the case is my application limited to maximum 4-5 users at a time then. Or doesnt LINQ to SQL .net share some CPU usage.

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  • How to count each digit in a range of integers?

    - by Carlos Gutiérrez
    Imagine you sell those metallic digits used to number houses, locker doors, hotel rooms, etc. You need to find how many of each digit to ship when your customer needs to number doors/houses: 1 to 100 51 to 300 1 to 2,000 with zeros to the left The obvious solution is to do a loop from the first to the last number, convert the counter to a string with or without zeros to the left, extract each digit and use it as an index to increment an array of 10 integers. I wonder if there is a better way to solve this, without having to loop through the entire integers range. Solutions in any language or pseudocode are welcome. Edit: Answers review John at CashCommons and Wayne Conrad comment that my current approach is good and fast enough. Let me use a silly analogy: If you were given the task of counting the squares in a chess board in less than 1 minute, you could finish the task by counting the squares one by one, but a better solution is to count the sides and do a multiplication, because you later may be asked to count the tiles in a building. Alex Reisner points to a very interesting mathematical law that, unfortunately, doesn’t seem to be relevant to this problem. Andres suggests the same algorithm I’m using, but extracting digits with %10 operations instead of substrings. John at CashCommons and phord propose pre-calculating the digits required and storing them in a lookup table or, for raw speed, an array. This could be a good solution if we had an absolute, unmovable, set in stone, maximum integer value. I’ve never seen one of those. High-Performance Mark and strainer computed the needed digits for various ranges. The result for one millon seems to indicate there is a proportion, but the results for other number show different proportions. strainer found some formulas that may be used to count digit for number which are a power of ten. Robert Harvey had a very interesting experience posting the question at MathOverflow. One of the math guys wrote a solution using mathematical notation. Aaronaught developed and tested a solution using mathematics. After posting it he reviewed the formulas originated from Math Overflow and found a flaw in it (point to Stackoverflow :). noahlavine developed an algorithm and presented it in pseudocode. A new solution After reading all the answers, and doing some experiments, I found that for a range of integer from 1 to 10n-1: For digits 1 to 9, n*10(n-1) pieces are needed For digit 0, if not using leading zeros, n*10n-1 - ((10n-1) / 9) are needed For digit 0, if using leading zeros, n*10n-1 - n are needed The first formula was found by strainer (and probably by others), and I found the other two by trial and error (but they may be included in other answers). For example, if n = 6, range is 1 to 999,999: For digits 1 to 9 we need 6*105 = 600,000 of each one For digit 0, without leading zeros, we need 6*105 – (106-1)/9 = 600,000 - 111,111 = 488,889 For digit 0, with leading zeros, we need 6*105 – 6 = 599,994 These numbers can be checked using High-Performance Mark results. Using these formulas, I improved the original algorithm. It still loops from the first to the last number in the range of integers, but, if it finds a number which is a power of ten, it uses the formulas to add to the digits count the quantity for a full range of 1 to 9 or 1 to 99 or 1 to 999 etc. Here's the algorithm in pseudocode: integer First,Last //First and last number in the range integer Number //Current number in the loop integer Power //Power is the n in 10^n in the formulas integer Nines //Nines is the resut of 10^n - 1, 10^5 - 1 = 99999 integer Prefix //First digits in a number. For 14,200, prefix is 142 array 0..9 Digits //Will hold the count for all the digits FOR Number = First TO Last CALL TallyDigitsForOneNumber WITH Number,1 //Tally the count of each digit //in the number, increment by 1 //Start of optimization. Comments are for Number = 1,000 and Last = 8,000. Power = Zeros at the end of number //For 1,000, Power = 3 IF Power 0 //The number ends in 0 00 000 etc Nines = 10^Power-1 //Nines = 10^3 - 1 = 1000 - 1 = 999 IF Number+Nines <= Last //If 1,000+999 < 8,000, add a full set Digits[0-9] += Power*10^(Power-1) //Add 3*10^(3-1) = 300 to digits 0 to 9 Digits[0] -= -Power //Adjust digit 0 (leading zeros formula) Prefix = First digits of Number //For 1000, prefix is 1 CALL TallyDigitsForOneNumber WITH Prefix,Nines //Tally the count of each //digit in prefix, //increment by 999 Number += Nines //Increment the loop counter 999 cycles ENDIF ENDIF //End of optimization ENDFOR SUBROUTINE TallyDigitsForOneNumber PARAMS Number,Count REPEAT Digits [ Number % 10 ] += Count Number = Number / 10 UNTIL Number = 0 For example, for range 786 to 3,021, the counter will be incremented: By 1 from 786 to 790 (5 cycles) By 9 from 790 to 799 (1 cycle) By 1 from 799 to 800 By 99 from 800 to 899 By 1 from 899 to 900 By 99 from 900 to 999 By 1 from 999 to 1000 By 999 from 1000 to 1999 By 1 from 1999 to 2000 By 999 from 2000 to 2999 By 1 from 2999 to 3000 By 1 from 3000 to 3010 (10 cycles) By 9 from 3010 to 3019 (1 cycle) By 1 from 3019 to 3021 (2 cycles) Total: 28 cycles Without optimization: 2,235 cycles Note that this algorithm solves the problem without leading zeros. To use it with leading zeros, I used a hack: If range 700 to 1,000 with leading zeros is needed, use the algorithm for 10,700 to 11,000 and then substract 1,000 - 700 = 300 from the count of digit 1. Benchmark and Source code I tested the original approach, the same approach using %10 and the new solution for some large ranges, with these results: Original 104.78 seconds With %10 83.66 With Powers of Ten 0.07 A screenshot of the benchmark application: If you would like to see the full source code or run the benchmark, use these links: Complete Source code (in Clarion): http://sca.mx/ftp/countdigits.txt Compilable project and win32 exe: http://sca.mx/ftp/countdigits.zip Accepted answer noahlavine solution may be correct, but l just couldn’t follow the pseudo code, I think there are some details missing or not completely explained. Aaronaught solution seems to be correct, but the code is just too complex for my taste. I accepted strainer’s answer, because his line of thought guided me to develop this new solution.

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  • Trouble understanding SSL certificate chain verification

    - by Josh K
    My app uses SSL to communicate securely with a server and it's having trouble verifying the certificate chain. The chain looks like this: Entrust.net Secure Server Certification Authority - DigiCert Global CA - *.ourdomain.com We are using a certificate store pulled from Mozilla. It contains the Entrust.net certificate, but not the DigiCert Global CA one. My understanding is that an intermediate authority doesn't have to be trusted as long as the root authority is, but the verification fails: % openssl verify -CAfile mozilla-root-certs.crt ourdomain.com.crt error 20 at 0 depth lookup:unable to get local issuer certificate So do I need to explicitly trust the DigiCert Global CA in order for verification to pass? That seems wrong. But you tell me! EDIT: I now understand that the certificate file needs to be available to OpenSSL up front. Something like this works: % openssl verify -CAfile mozilla-root-certs.crt -untrusted digicert.crt ourdomain.com.crt ourdomain.com.crt: OK This allows me to provide a copy of the DigiCert CA without explicitly saying "I trust it", the whole chain still needs to be verified. But surely browsers like Firefox won't always ship with a copy of every single certificate it'll ever need. There's always going to be new CAs and the point is to use the security of the root certificate to make sure all intermediate CAs are valid. Right? So how does this work? Is it really as silly as it looks?

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  • improve my code for collapsing a list of data.frames

    - by romunov
    Dear StackOverFlowers (flowers in short), I have a list of data.frames (walk.sample) that I would like to collapse into a single (giant) data.frame. While collapsing, I would like to mark (adding another column) which rows have came from which element of the list. This is what I've got so far. This is the data.frame that needs to be collapsed/stacked. > walk.sample [[1]] walker x y 1073 3 228.8756 -726.9198 1086 3 226.7393 -722.5561 1081 3 219.8005 -728.3990 1089 3 225.2239 -727.7422 1032 3 233.1753 -731.5526 [[2]] walker x y 1008 3 205.9104 -775.7488 1022 3 208.3638 -723.8616 1072 3 233.8807 -718.0974 1064 3 217.0028 -689.7917 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 [[3]] [1] 3 [[4]] walker x y 546 2 629.9041 831.0852 524 2 627.8698 873.3774 578 2 572.3312 838.7587 513 2 633.0598 871.7559 538 2 636.3088 836.6325 1079 3 206.3683 -729.6257 1095 3 239.9884 -748.2637 1005 3 197.2960 -780.4704 1045 3 245.1900 -694.3566 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 I have written a function to add a column that denote from which element the rows came followed by appending it to an existing data.frame. collapseToDataFrame <- function(x) { # collapse list to a dataframe with a twist walk.df <- data.frame() for (i in 1:length(x)) { n.rows <- nrow(x[[i]]) if (length(x[[i]])>1) { temp.df <- cbind(x[[i]], rep(i, n.rows)) names(temp.df) <- c("walker", "x", "y", "session") walk.df <- rbind(walk.df, temp.df) } else { cat("Empty list", "\n") } } return(walk.df) } > collapseToDataFrame(walk.sample) Empty list Empty list walker x y session 3 1 -604.5055 -123.18759 1 60 1 -562.0078 -61.24912 1 84 1 -594.4661 -57.20730 1 9 1 -604.2893 -110.09168 1 43 1 -632.2491 -54.52548 1 1028 3 240.3905 -724.67284 1 1040 3 232.5545 -681.61225 1 1073 3 228.8756 -726.91980 1 1091 3 209.0373 -740.96173 1 1036 3 248.7123 -694.47380 1 I'm curious whether this can be done more elegantly, with perhaps do.call() or some other more generic function?

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  • Getting a ResultSet/RefCursor over a database link

    - by JonathanJ
    From the answers to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1122175/calling-a-stored-proc-over-a-dblink it seems that it is not possible to call a stored procedure and get the ResultSet/RefCursor back if you are making the SP call across a remote DB link. We are also using Oracle 10g. We can successfully get single value results across the link, and can successfully call the SP and get the results locally but we get the same 'ORA-24338: statement handle not executed' error when reading the ResultSet from the remote DB. My question - is there any workaround to using the stored procedure? Is a shared view a better solution? Piped rows? Sample Stored Procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY example_SP IS PROCEDURE get_terminals(p_CD_community IN community.CD_community%TYPE, p_cursor OUT SYS_REFCURSOR) IS BEGIN OPEN p_cursor FOR SELECT cd_terminal FROM terminal t, community c WHERE c.cd_community = p_CD_community AND t.id_community = c.id_community; END; END example_SP; / Sample Java code that works locally but not remotely: Connection conn = DBConnectionManagerFactory.getDBConnectionManager().getConnection(); CallableStatement cstmt = null; ResultSet rs = null; String community = "EXAMPLE"; try { cstmt = conn.prepareCall("{call example_SP.get_terminals@remote_address(?,?)}"); cstmt.setString(1, community); cstmt.registerOutParameter(2, OracleTypes.CURSOR); cstmt.execute(); rs = (ResultSet)cstmt.getObject(2); while (rs.next()) { LogUtil.getLog().logInfo("Terminal code=" + rs.getString( "cd_terminal" )); } }

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  • Load Balance WCF and Share a Remote MSMQ for High Throughput

    - by BarDev
    After a ton of reading in books and on the web, I have noticed hints of information that WCF and MSMQ can be used in achieving high throughput. The information I have seen mentions using multiple WCF services in a farm that reads from a single MSMQ queue. The problem is that I have found paragraphs here and there that mentions that high throughput can be done, but I cannot seem to find a document of how to implement it. The following is an excerpt from a MSDN article. The following paragraph is from Best Practices for Queued Communication http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms731093.aspx To achieve higher throughput and availability, use a farm of WCF services that read from the queue. This requires that all of these services expose the same contract on the same endpoint. The farm approach works best for applications that have high production rates of messages because it enables a number of services to all read from the same queue. This is what I'm trying to solve. I have an intranet application where a client sends a request to a WCF service. But I want the ability to load balance the WCF services on multiple servers in a farm. I also want these WCF services in the farm to do transactional reads from a remote MSMQ when an item is available in the Queue. If this is possible, an issue I have is that I do not understand the activation process of WCF to retrieve messages from a remote queue. If this is possible, does anyone know of any articles or Webcasts that would explain it in detail? BarDev

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  • Force x86 CLR on 'Any CPU' .NET assembly

    - by jeffora
    In .NET, the 'Platform Target: Any CPU' compiler option allows a .NET assembly to run as 64bit on a x64 machine, and 32bit on an x86 machine. It is also possible to force an assembly to run as x86 on an x64 machine using the 'Platform Target: x86' compiler option. Is it possible to run an assembly with the 'Any CPU' flag, but determine whether it should be run in the x86 or x64 CLR? Normally this decision is made by the CLR/OS Loader (as is my understanding) based on the bitness of the underlying system. I am trying to write a C# .NET application that can interact with (read: inject code into) other running processes. x64 processes can only inject into other x64 processes, and the same with x86. Ideally, I would like to take advantage of JIT compilation and the Any CPU option to allow a single application to be used to inject into either x64 or x86 processes (on an x64 machine). The idea is that the application would be compiled as Any CPU. On an x64 machine it would run as x64. If the target process is x86, it should relaunch itself, forcing the CLR to run it as x86. Is this possible?

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  • git-p4 submit fails with "Not a valid object name HEAD~261"

    - by Harlan
    I've got a git repository that I'd like to mirror to a Perforce repository. I've downloaded the git-p4 script (the more recent version that doesn't give deprecation warnings), and have been working with that. I've figured out how to pull changes from Perforce, but I'm getting an error when I try to sync changes from the git repo back. Here's what I've done so far: git clone [email protected]:asdf/qwerty.git git-p4 sync //depot/path/to/querty git merge remotes/p4/master (there was a single README file...) So, I've copied the origin to a clean, new director, got a lovely looking merged tree of files, and git status shows I'm up-to-date. But: > git-p4 submit fatal: Not a valid object name HEAD~261 Command failed: git cat-file commit HEAD~261 This thread on the git mailing list seems to be relevant, but I can't figure out what they're doing with all the A, B, and Cs. Could someone please clarify what "Not a valid object name" means, and what I can do to fix the problem? All I want to do is to periodically snapshot the origin/master into Perforce; a full history is not required. Thanks.

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  • dll's loaded through reflection - Phantom Bug

    - by Seattle Leonard
    Ok, I got a strange one here and I want to know if any of you have ever run accross anything like it. So I've got this web app that loads up a bunch of dll's through reflection. Basically it looks for Types that are derived from certain abstract types and adds them to the list of things it can make. Here's the weird part. While developing there is never a problem. When installing it, there is never a problem to start with. Then, at a seemingly random time, the application breaks while trying to find all the types. I've had 2 sites sitting side by side and one worked while the other did not, and they were configured exactly(and I mean exactly) the same. IISRESET's never helped, but this did: I simply moved all the dll's out of the bin directory then moved them back. That's right I just moved them out of the bin directory then put them right back where they came from and everything worked fine. Any ideas? Got some more info When the site is working I notice this behavior: After IISRESET it still works, but recycling the app pool will cause it to break. When the site is broken: Neiter IISRESET nor recycling the app pool fixes it, but moving a single dll out then back in fixes it.

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  • why does Integrated Windows Authentication fail when clients access off the network

    - by Bryan
    My background is not with web applications so this problem is hard for me to explain easily. First I'll try to describe the setup. Client setup:-Only browser that is effected is IE 6-8 (Firefox, chrome, opera, and safari all work fine) -A user will try to access our web application from a company laptop that is not connected to our network. -This machine will be a member of our workgroup and have the company DNS listed as a trusted intranet site. (to which the application in question would be a member) -The security logon mode is set to Automatic Logon only in intranet zone only, and IWA authentication is enabled on the clients browser.Server setup:-Windows server 2003 fp2-The application will first redirect to an Authorization asp page which has anonymous access disabled and IWA enabled in IIS.what should happen is that, since the client is not currently on the network, when this page is called it should prompt the user for network credentials. But with IE, instead of prompting, the user gets a page cannot be displayed error because the IIS manager is denying access to the asp page. If the company DNS is removed from the trusted intranet site list then it prompts correctly but disables single sign on the next time that computer is connected to the network or vpn. My assumption is that since IE uses IWA and the site is listed as an internal site, when no network is found IE just sends nulls to the server attempting to authenticate which is swiftly punted back. Other browsers do not have security zones so when network credentials are not present the server prompts for them. Is there a way to get around this so that our clients can keep the company DNS in the intranet zone but still have the server prompt for credentials when not on the network? Any attempt to allow for anonymous access on the asp page, as far as I know, will cause AUTH_USER to return null and again break SSO. I realize this is slightly rambling so I will do my best to clarify and questions you guys might have. Thanks in advance.

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  • Post on a logged in users facebook wall

    - by Matt Nathanson
    Hey all, I've created a widget that will essentially unlock a music track, providing you post to either your twitter account, or facebook wall. I've signed up through facebook connect and I am able to successfully post onto my own wall... but the functionality I'm looking for is to be able to take ones username and password and automatically log in to facebook, and send my desired message. Like I said, it posts on my wall successfully, it's just not using the username and password from the field to log in to their respective facebooks and post. <?php $facename = $_POST['facename']; $facepass = $_POST['facepass']; define('FB_APIKEY', 'my_api_key'); define('FB_SECRET', 'my_secret_phrase_'); define('FB_SESSION', 'my_session_id'); require_once('facebook.php'); echo "post on wall"; try { $facebook = new Facebook(FB_APIKEY, FB_SECRET); $facebook->api_client->session_key = FB_SESSION; $fetch = array('friends' => array('pattern' => '.*', 'query' => "select uid2 from friend where uid1={$facename}")); echo $facebook->api_client->admin_setAppProperties(array('preload_fql' => json_encode($fetch))); $message = 'I downloaded Automatic Loveletter\'s new single \'To Die For\' here!'; if( $facebook->api_client->stream_publish($message)) echo "Added on FB Wall"; } catch(Exception $e) { echo $e . "<br />"; } ?> Any help in the right direction is greatly appreciated! Thanks, Matt

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  • Page.User.Identity.Name is blank on pages of subdomains

    - by sparks
    I have multiple subdomains trying to use a single subdomain for authentiction using forms authentication all running on windows server 2008 r2. All of the forms authentication pages are setup to use the same name, and on the authentication page the cookie is added with the following snippet: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(txtUserName.Text, false); System.Web.HttpCookie MyCookie = System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie(User.Identity.Name.ToString(), false); MyCookie.Domain = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["domainName"]; Response.AppendCookie(MyCookie); When I am logged in to signon.mysite.com the page.user.identity.isauthenticated and page.user.identity.name properties both work fine. When I navigate to subdomain.mysite.com the page.user.identity.isauthenticated returns true, bue the name is empty. I tried to retrieve it from the cookie using the following, but it also was blank. HttpCookie cookie = Request.Cookies[".ASPXAUTH"]; FormsAuthenticationTicket fat = FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cookie.Value); user2_lbl.Text = fat.Name; When googling the issue I found some people saying something must be added to global.asax and other saying it wasn't necessary. The goal is to be able to login on the authentication subdomain and have the user identity accessible from the root site and other subdomains. Machine keys match in all web.config, and the AppSettings["domainName"] is set to "mysite.com" currently. Does anyone know what is preventing me from accessing the user information?

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