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  • Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

    - by max
    Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

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  • I've registered my oath about 5 times now, but... (twitteR package R)

    - by user2985989
    I'm attempting to mine twitter data in R, and am having trouble getting started. I created a twitter account, an app in twitter developers, changed the settings to read, write, and access, created my access token, and followed instructions to the letter in registering it: My code: > library(twitteR) > download.file(url="http://curl.haxx.se/ca/cacert.pem", + destfile="cacert.pem") > requestURL <- "https://api.twitter.com/oauth/request_token" > accessURL <- "https://api.twitter.com/oauth/access_token" > authURL <- "https://api.twitter.com/oauth/authorize" > consumerKey <-"my key" #took this part out for privacy's sake > consumerSecret <- "my secret" #this too > twitCred <- OAuthFactory$new(consumerKey=consumerKey, consumerSecret = consumerSecret, requestURL = requestURL, accessURL = accessURL, authURL = authURL) > twitCred$handshake(cainfo="cacert.pem") To enable the connection, please direct your web browser to: https://api.twitter.com/oauth/authorize?oauth_token=zxgHXJkYAB3wQ2IVAeyJjeyid7WK6EGPfouGmlx1c When complete, record the PIN given to you and provide it here: 0010819 > registerTwitterOAuth(twitCred) [1] TRUE > save(list="twitCred", file="twitteR_credentials") And yet, this: > s <- searchTwitter('#United', cainfo="cacert.pem") [1] "Unauthorized" Error in twInterfaceObj$doAPICall(cmd, params, "GET", ...) : Error: Unauthorized I'm about to have a temper tantrum. I'd be extremely grateful if someone could explain to me what is going wrong, or, better yet, how to fix it. Thank you.

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  • WIN32 Logon question

    - by Lalit_M
    We have developed a ASP.NET 3.5 web application with Web Server 2008 and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. I need to get the token back after the authentication (authenticated \ password locked \ wrong password ) its futher use and based on logic showing different web pages Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Please answer the following issue: Is it possible to disable this behavior to create the folder as taking 2.78 MB of space for every new user and it eating my disck space? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. For any solution related to LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH, can you please confirm if that will stop creating the folders at location C:\users. Also for any possible solution I need either I am able to disable the folder to be created at C:\user or Any other option to authenticated user which will not creat folders.

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  • Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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  • Why are argument substitutions not replaced during rescanning?

    - by James McNellis
    Consider the following macro definitions and invocation: #define x x[0] #define y(arg) arg y(x) This invocation expands to x[0] (tested on Visual C++ 2010, g++ 4.1, mcpp 2.7.2, and Wave). Why? Specifically, why does it not expand to x[0][0]? During macro replacement, A parameter in the replacement list...is replaced by the corresponding argument after all macros contained therein have been expanded. Before being substituted, each argument’s preprocessing tokens are completely macro replaced (C++03 §16.3.1/1). Evaluating the macro invocation, we take the following steps: The function-like macro y is invoked with x as the argument for its arg parameter The x in the argument is macro-replaced to become x[0] The arg in the replacement list is replaced by the macro-replaced value of the argument, x[0] The replacement list after substitution of all the parameters is x[0]. After all parameters in the replacement list have been substituted, the resulting preprocessing token sequence is rescanned...for more macro names to replace (C++03 §16.3.4/1). If the name of the macro being replaced is found during this scan of the replacement list...it is not replaced. Further, if any nested replacements encounter the name of the macro being replaced, it is not replaced (C++03 §16.3.4/2). The replacement list x[0] is rescanned (note that the name of the macro being replaced is y): x is identified as an object-like macro invocation x is replaced by x[0] Replacement stops at this point because of the rule in §16.3.4/2 preventing recursion. The replacement list after rescanning is x[0][0]. I have clearly misinterpreted something since all of the preprocessors I've tested say I am wrong. In addition, this example is a piece of a larger example in the C++0x FCD (at §16.3.5/5) and it too says that the expected replacement is x[0]. Why is x not replaced during rescanning? C99 and C++0x effectively have the same wording as C++03 in the quoted sections.

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  • Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

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  • Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

    - by Tom
    I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

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  • Rails 3 HABTM Strange Association: Project and Employee in a tree.

    - by Mauricio
    Hi guys I have to adapt an existing model to a new relation. I have this: A Project has many Employees. the Employees of a Project are organized in some kind of hierarchy (nothing fancy, I resolved this adding a parent_id for each employee to build the 'tree') class Employee < AR:Base belongs_to :project belongs_to :parent, :class_name => 'Employee' has_many :childs, :class_name => 'Employee', :foreign_column => 'parent_id' end class Project < AR:Base has_many :employees, end That worked like a charm, now the new requirement is: The Employees can belong to many Projects at the same time, and the hierarchy will be different according to the project. So I though I will need a new table to build the HABTM, and a new class to access the parent_id to build the tree. Something like class ProjectEmployee < AR:Base belongs_to :project belongs_to :employee belongs_to :parent, :class_name => 'Employee' # <--- ?????? end class Project < AR:Base has_many :project_employee has_many :employees, :through => :project_employee end class Employee < AR:Base has_many :project_employee has_many :projects, :through => :project_employee end How can I access the parent and the childs of an employee for a given project? I need to add and remove childs as wish from the employees of a project. Thank you!

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  • data ownership and performance

    - by Ami
    We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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  • How to create a separate thread to do some operation periodically and update UI in WPF?I'm stack

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! I'm trying to do a periodic separated thread operation let's say check for internet connection or check for user's info via web service and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement that.So i created an inner class for the window i need to update.That inner class does what is meant for but the problem is that i don't know how to access parent's(window class) members form the child(inner class). for example public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public string doMyOperation() { //code here return result; } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //Now here i could be able to call a label of name lblNotif //lblNotif.Content = result; } } } Well the whole idea works but i'm stacked at here i need to access a controls of Window2 Since i'm stacked i tried Spring.Net way of implementing Quartz hoping that i could use MethodInvokingJobDetailFactoryObject and rather have the Operation done on Window2 itself.But for some reason i'm having an exception Cannot resolve type [System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows];, could not load type from string value System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows and the wiring is done so <object name="UpdateLabelJob" type="System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows"/> What i'm i doing wrong here?Is that a way round? thanks for reading and for helping out

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  • Prompting for authentication from a wxPython program and passing it along to IIS?

    - by MetaHyperBolic
    I have a client (written in Python, with a wxPython front end in dead-simple wizard style) which communicates a website running IIS. A python script receives requests and does the usual client-server dance. I would have written this as a browser application, but for the requirement that certain things happen on the local PC that the web can't help with (file manipulation, interfacing with certain USB hardware, etc.) Right now, I am simply using the logon credentials, compounded as a string from os.environ['USERDOMAIN'] and os.environ['USERNAME'], to pass along to the server, which connects to Active Directory and enumerates the members of the group, looking for those logon credentials. It's an ugly hack, but it works. Obviously, I could make people log out of the generic helper accounts and log back into Windows using specific accounts. However, I wondered how feasible it would be to provide some kind of logon prompt wherein the user can type in a name and password, then some kind of authorization token could be passed on to IIS. This seems like something I would not want to do myself, given that amateurs almost always make huge security mistakes. Now you can see why I am wishing this was purely web-based. What's a good way to handle this?

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  • How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

    - by Alex Reisner
    I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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  • Accessing variables with different scope in C++

    - by Portablejim
    With #include <iostream> using namespace std; int a = 1; int main() { int a = 2; if(true) { int a = 3; cout << a << " " << ::a // Can I access a = 2 here? << " " << ::a << endl; } cout << a << " " << ::a << endl; } having the output 3 1 1 2 1 Is there a way to access the 'a' equal to 2 inside the if statement where there is the 'a' equal to 3, with the output 3 2 1 2 1 Note: I know this should not be done (and the code should not get to the point where I need to ask). This question is more "can it be done".

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  • Read data from form

    - by Superhuman
    This is a strange question, I've never tried to do this before. I have a repetitive process requiring that I copy and paste data from text boxes in one program into another program for further processing. I'd like to automate this process using VB .NET. The application from which the data is gathered isn't mine, so I don't have ActiveX-like access to its controls. How would you write an application to gain access to a form from another application, to be able to find the controls on the form, and gather the values from them? Just experimenting, I've used the following code. This resulted in only the name of the form to which this code belongs. It didn't find the names of any other forms I have open, and I have a lot open to choose from. This is frustrating because it's only step one of what I'll need to do to make my life easier... Public Declare Function EnumWindows Lib "user32" (ByVal lpEnumFunc As CallBack, ByVal lParam As Integer) As Integer Public Delegate Function CallBack(ByVal hwnd As IntPtr, ByVal lParam As IntPtr) As Boolean Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim cb As New CallBack(AddressOf MyCallBack) EnumWindows(cb, 8) End Sub Public Function MyCallBack(ByVal hwnd As Long, ByVal lparam As Long) As Boolean Dim frm As System.Windows.Forms.Control frm = System.Windows.Forms.Form.FromHandle(hwnd) If frm Is Nothing Then Return True If frm.Text <> "" Then TextBox1.Text += frm.Text & ", " End If Return True End Function Does anyone have a recommendation? Thanks, SH

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  • Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

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  • Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

    - by Luca Matteis
    Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

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  • including pre-built java classes into an android project

    - by moonlightcheese
    i'm trying to include a maven java project into my android project. the maven project is the greader-unofficial project which allows developers access to google reader accounts, and handles all of the http transactions and URI/URL building, making grabbing feeds and items from google reader transparent to the developer. the project is available here: http://code.google.com/p/greader-unofficial/ the code is originally written for the standard jdk and uses classes from java.net that are not a part of the standard Android SDK. i actually tried to manually resolve all dependencies and ran into a problem when i got as far as including com.sun.syndication pieces required by the class be.lechtitseb.google.reader.api.util.AtomUtil.java... some of the classes in java.net that are in the standard jdk (i'm using 1.6) are not in the Android SDK. in addition, resolving all of these dependencies manually is just ridiculous when i'm compiling a maven project that should be pretty simple. however, i can use maven to compile the sources with no issue. how can i include this maven project, which is dependent on the complete jdk, into my android project in such a way that it will compile so that i can access the GoogleReader class from my android project? and for the record, i don't have the expertise to rewrite this entire api to work with the standard Android SDK.

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  • Route URL laravel 4

    - by nabil l.
    How can I do this in Laravel 4 URL::route('auth.reset', array('kh34KHh4K342')) Instead of http://domain.tld/auth/reset?kh34KHh4K342 I want to get this : http://domain.tld/auth/reset/kh34KHh4K342 EDIT This my routes.php : The problem is because I have two routes with the same name? How do you explain that ? Should i set a different name event is the same kind, and different methods // Set locale $locale = Request::segment(1); if(in_array($locale, Config::get('app.languages'))) { \App::setLocale($locale); } else { $locale = null; } Route::group( array( 'prefix' => $locale ), function () { Route::get('/'), array( 'uses' => 'HomeController@getIndex', 'as' => '/' )); // Auth Route::group( array( 'prefix' => 'auth' ), function () { // Login Route::get( 'login', array( 'before' => 'guest', 'uses' => 'UserController@getLogin', 'as' => 'auth.login' ) ); Route::post( 'login', array( 'before' => 'guest|csrf', 'uses' => 'UserController@postLogin', 'as' => 'auth.login' ) ); Route::get( 'reset/{$token}', array( 'uses' => 'UserController@getReset', 'as' => 'auth.reset' ) ); Route::post( 'reset', array( 'uses' => 'UserController@postReset', 'as' => 'auth.reset' ) ); } );

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  • Rails: How to name and create unique divs within a loop?

    - by sscirrus
    I have a view with a div that is looped many times. Each of the created divs need to have a unique ID so I can access them specifically (at the moment, all my divs have the same ID specified in html so whenever I try to access a specific div it just finds the first one). This is the version that I currently have (multiple 'rowBox'es are not discernible). <% @customers.each do |customer| %> <div id="customer" class="rowBox"> ... </div> <% end %> I would like to be able to do something like: <% @customers.each do |customer| %> <div id="box<%=customer.id%>"> ... </div> <% end %> This doesn't seem to work. Any ideas on how to accomplish this?

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  • Retrieving my own data via FaceBook API

    - by goggin13
    I am building a website for a comedy group which uses Facebook as one of their marketing platforms; one of the requirements for the new site is to display all of their Facebook events on a calendar. Currently, I am just trying to put together a Python script which can pull some data from my own Facebook account, like a list of all my friends. I presume once I can accomplish this I can move to pulling more complicated data out of my clients account (since they have given me access to their account). I have looked at many of the posts here, and also went through the Facebook API documentation, including Facebook Connect, but am really beating my head against the wall. Everything I have read seems like overkill, as it involves setting up a good deal of infrastructure to allow my app to set up connections to any arbitrary user's account (who authorizes me). Shouldn't it be much simpler, given I only ever need to access 1 account? I cannot find a way to retrieve data without having to display the Facebook login window. I have a script which will retrieve all my friends, but it includes a redirect where I have to physically log myself in to Facebook. Would appreciate any advice or links, I just feel like I must be missing something simple. Thank you!

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • Unable to parse variable length string separated by delimiter

    - by Technext
    Hi, I have a problem with parsing a string, which consists only of directory path. For ex. My input string is Abc\Program Files\sample\ My output should be Abc//Program Files//sample The script should work for input path of any length i.e., it can contain any no. of subdirectories. (For ex., abc\temp\sample\folder\joe) I have looked for help in many links but to no avail. Looks like FOR command extracts only one whole line or a string (when we use ‘token’ keyword in FOR syntax) but my problem is that I am not aware of the input path length and hence, the no. of tokens. My idea was to use \ as a delimiter and then extract each word before and after it (), and put the words to an output file along with // till we reach the end of the string. I tried implementing the following but it did not work: @echo off FOR /F "delims=\" %%x in (orig.txt) do ( IF NOT %%x == "" echo.%%x//output.txt ) The file orig.txt contains only one line i.e, Abc\Program Files\sample\ The output that I get contains only: Abc// The above output contains blank spaces as well after ‘Abc//’ My desired output should be: Abc//program Files//sample// Can anyone please help me with this? Regards, Technext

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  • [c++] accessing the hidden 'this' pointer

    - by Kyle
    I have a GUI architecture wherein elements fire events like so: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED, this); Every single event fired passes 'this' as the caller of the event. There is never a time I dont want to pass 'this', and further, no pointer except for 'this' should ever be passed. This brings me to a problem: How can I assert that fireEvent is never given a pointer other than 'this', and how can I simplify (and homogenize) calls to fireEvent to just: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED); At this point, I'm reminded of a fairly common compiler error when you write something like this: class A { public: void foo() {} }; class B { void oops() { const A* a = new A; a->foo(); } }; int main() { return 0; } Compiling this will give you ../src/sandbox.cpp: In member function ‘void B::oops()’: ../src/sandbox.cpp:7: error: passing ‘const A’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void A::foo()’ discards qualifiers because member functions pass 'this' as a hidden parameter. "Aha!" I say. This (no pun intended) is exactly what I want. If I could somehow access the hidden 'this' pointer, it would solve both issues I mentioned earlier. The problem is, as far as I know you can't (can you?) and if you could, there would be outcries of "but it would break encapsulation!" Except I'm already passing 'this' every time, so what more could it break. So, is there a way to access the hidden 'this', and if not are there any idioms or alternative approaches that are more elegant than passing 'this' every time?

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  • Bizzare Java invalid Assignment Operator Error

    - by Kay
    public class MaxHeap<T extends Comparable<T>> implements Heap<T>{ private T[] heap; private int lastIndex; private static final int defaultInitialCapacity = 25; public void add(T newItem) throws HeapException{ if (lastIndex < Max_Heap){ heap[lastIndex] = newItem; int place = lastIndex; int parent = (place – 1)/2; //ERROR HERE********** while ( (parent >=0) && (heap[place].compareTo(heap[parent])>0)){ T temp = heap[place]; heap[place] = heap[parent]; heap[parent] = temp; place = parent; parent = (place-1)/2; }else { throw new HeapException(“HeapException: Heap full”); } } } Eclipse complains that there is a: "Syntax error on token "Invalid Character", invalid AssignmentOperator" With the red line beneath the '(place-1)' There shouldn't be an error at all since it's just straight-forward arithmetic. Or is it not that simple?

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