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  • Client-side validation breaks in IE because of PropertyProxyValidator and ScriptManager cooperation.

    - by Eugene
    The specific of the project is in using Enterpise Library for Server side validation and jQuery for client-side validation. So I have the next simple form for example: <asp:Content ID="_mainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { "<%= _txtProjectName.UniqueID %>": { required: true } } }); }); </script> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtProjectName" runat="server" CssClass="textBoxWithValidator_long" /> <entlib:PropertyProxyValidator id="_validatorProjectName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="_txtProjectName" PropertyName="ProjectName" SourceTypeName="LabManagement.Project.Project" /> <asp:Button CssClass="cell_InlineElement" ID="_btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" onclick="_btnSave_Click" Width="50px" /> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> The problem is in the next: client-side validation worked correctly before I needed to implement some AJAX.NET feature. So I have to add to the page ScriptManager (the last two lines in the code). But after that the next situation appeared: In InternetExplorer((7) - only in IE !!! - in Firefox everything works correctly) after clicking save button, if left the textbox ProjectName empty the client-side jquery validation appears but (!) the page submits to the server anyway. Some notes: If delete PropertyProxyValidator from the page - the client-side validation works correctly in IE but I need it for specific of the project. It seems that the problem is in the function WebForm_OnSubmit() that is inserted to the form after PropertyProxyValidator adding. ( ... <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Project.aspx?TransType=NewProject" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" ...>) Could anyone help, please.

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  • How to model has_many with polymorphism?

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    I've run into a situation that I am not quite sure how to model. Suppose I have a User class, and a user has many services. However, these services are quite different, for example a MailService and a BackupService, so single table inheritance won't do. Instead, I am thinking of using polymorphic associations together with an abstract base class: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :services end class Service < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :user_id, :implementation_id, :implementation_type belongs_to :user belongs_to :implementation, :polymorphic = true delegate :common_service_method, :name, :to => :implementation end #Base class for service implementations class ServiceImplementation < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :user_id, :on => :create has_one :service, :as => :implementation has_one :user, :through => :service after_create :create_service_record #Tell Rails this class does not use a table. def self.abstract_class? true end #Default name implementation. def name self.class.name end protected #Sets up a service object def create_service_record service = Service.new(:user_id => user_id) service.implementation = self service.save! end end class MailService < ServiceImplementation #validations, etc... def common_service_method puts "MailService implementation of common service method" end end #Example usage MailService.create(..., :user_id => user.id) BackupService.create(...., :user_id => user.id) user.services.each do |s| puts "#{user.name} is using #{s.name}" end #Daniel is using MailService, Daniel is using BackupService So, is this the best solution? Or even a good one? How have you solved this kind of problem?

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • why the main method are not covered? urgent, please help me

    - by Mike.Huang
    main method: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { if (args.length != EXPECTED_NUMBER_OF_ARGUMENTS) { System.err.println("Usage - java XFRCompiler ConfigXML PackageXML XFR"); } String configXML = args[0]; String packageXML = args[1]; String xfr = args[2]; AutoConfigCompiler compiler = new AutoConfigCompiler(); compiler.setConfigDocument(loadDocument(configXML)); compiler.setPackageInfoDoc(loadDocument(packageXML)); // compiler.setVisiblityDoc(loadDocument("VisibilityFilter.xml")); compiler.compileModel(xfr); } private static Document loadDocument(String fileName) throws Exception { TXDOMParser parser = (TXDOMParser) ParserFactory.makeParser(TXDOMParser.class.getName()); InputSource source = new InputSource(new FileInputStream(fileName)); parser.parse(source); return parser.getDocument(); } testcase: @Test public void testCompileModel() throws Exception { // construct parameters URL configFile = Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader().getResource("Ford_2008_Mustang_Config.xml"); URL packageFile = Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader().getResource("Ford_2008_Mustang_Package.xml"); File tmpFile = new File("Ford_2008_Mustang_tmp.xfr"); if(!tmpFile.exists()) { tmpFile.createNewFile(); } String[] args = new String[]{configFile.getPath(),packageFile.getPath(),tmpFile.getPath()}; try { // test main method XFRCompiler.main(args); } catch (Exception e) { assertTrue(true); } try { // test args length is less than 3 XFRCompiler.main(new String[]{"",""}); } catch (Exception e) { assertTrue(true); } tmpFile.delete(); } coverage outputs displayed as the lines from “String configXML = args[0];" in main method are not covered

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • C++ function overloading and dynamic binding compile problem

    - by Olorin
    #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A { public: virtual void foo(void) const { cout << "A::foo(void)" << endl; } virtual void foo(int i) const { cout << i << endl; } virtual ~A() {} }; class B : public A { public: void foo(int i) const { this->foo(); cout << i << endl; } }; class C : public B { public: void foo(void) const { cout << "C::foo(void)" << endl; } }; int main(int argc, char ** argv) { C test; test.foo(45); return 0; } The above code does not compile with: $>g++ test.cpp -o test.exe test.cpp: In member function 'virtual void B::foo(int) const': test.cpp:17: error: no matching function for call to 'B::foo() const' test.cpp:17: note: candidates are: virtual void B::foo(int) const test.cpp: In function 'int main(int, char**)': test.cpp:31: error: no matching function for call to 'C::foo(int)' test.cpp:23: note: candidates are: virtual void C::foo() const It compiles if method "foo(void)" is changed to "goo(void)". Why is this so? Is it possible to compile the code without changing the method name of "foo(void)"? Thanks.

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • SpeechRecognizer causes ANR... I need help with Android speech API.

    - by Dondo Chaka
    I'm trying to use Android's speech recognition package to record user speech and translate it to text. Unfortunately, when I attempt initiate listening, I get an ANR error that doesn't point to anything specific. As the SpeechRecognizer API indicates, a RuntimeException is thrown if you attempt to call it from the main thread. This would make me wonder if the processing was just too demanding... but I know that other applications use the Android API for this purpose and it is typically pretty snappy. java.lang.RuntimeException: SpeechRecognizer should be used only from the application's main thread Here is a (trimmed) sample of the code I'm trying to call from my service. Is this the proper approach? Thanks for taking the time to help. This has been a hurdle I haven't been able to get over yet. Intent intent = new Intent(RecognizerIntent.ACTION_RECOGNIZE_SPEECH); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_LANGUAGE_MODEL, RecognizerIntent.LANGUAGE_MODEL_FREE_FORM); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_CALLING_PACKAGE, "com.domain.app"); SpeechRecognizer recognizer = SpeechRecognizer .createSpeechRecognizer(this.getApplicationContext()); RecognitionListener listener = new RecognitionListener() { @Override public void onResults(Bundle results) { ArrayList<String> voiceResults = results .getStringArrayList(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_RESULTS); if (voiceResults == null) { Log.e(getString(R.string.log_label), "No voice results"); } else { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Printing matches: "); for (String match : voiceResults) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), match); } } } @Override public void onReadyForSpeech(Bundle params) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Ready for speech"); } @Override public void onError(int error) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Error listening for speech: " + error); } @Override public void onBeginningOfSpeech() { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Speech starting"); } }; recognizer.setRecognitionListener(listener); recognizer.startListening(intent);

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  • performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

    - by oldbeamer
    Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • What OOP pattern to use when only adding new methods, not data?

    - by Jonathon Reinhart
    Hello eveyone... In my app, I have deal with several different "parameters", which derive from IParameter interface, and also ParamBase abstract base class. I currently have two different parameter types, call them FooParameter and BarParameter, which both derive from ParamBase. Obviously, I can treat them both as IParameters when I need to deal with them generically, or detect their specific type when I need to handle their specific functionality. My question lies in specific FooParameters. I currently have a few specific ones with their own classes which derive from FooParameter, we'll call them FP12, FP13, FP14, etc. These all have certain characteristics, which make me treat them differently in the UI. (Most have names associated with the individual bits, or ranges of bits). Note that these specific, derived FP's have no additional data associated with them, only properties (which refer to the same data in different ways) or methods. Now, I'd like to keep all of these parameters in a Dictionary<String, IParameter> for easy generic access. The problem is, if I want to refer to a specific one with the special GUI functions, I can't write: FP12 fp12 = (FP12)paramList["FP12"] because you can't downcast to a derived type (rightfully so). But in my case, I didn't add any data, so the cast would theoretically work. What type of programming model should I be using instead? Thanks!

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  • How to use data receive event in Socket class?

    - by affan
    I have wrote a simple client that use TcpClient in dotnet to communicate. In order to wait for data messages from server i use a Read() thread that use blocking Read() call on socket. When i receive something i have to generate various events. These event occur in the worker thread and thus you cannot update a UI from it directly. Invoke() can be use but for end developer its difficult as my SDK would be use by users who may not use UI at all or use Presentation Framework. Presentation framework have different way of handling this. Invoke() on our test app as Microstation Addin take a lot of time at the moment. Microstation is single threaded application and call invoke on its thread is not good as it is always busy doing drawing and other stuff message take too long to process. I want my events to generate in same thread as UI so user donot have to go through the Dispatcher or Invoke. Now i want to know how can i be notified by socket when data arrive? Is there a build in callback for that. I like winsock style receive event without use of separate read thread. I also do not want to use window timer to for polling for data. I found IOControlCode.AsyncIO flag in IOControl() function which help says Enable notification for when data is waiting to be received. This value is equal to the Winsock 2 FIOASYNC constant. I could not found any example on how to use it to get notification. If i am write in MFC/Winsock we have to create a window of size(0,0) which was just used for listening for the data receive event or other socket events. But i don't know how to do that in dotnet application.

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  • OSMF seek with Amazon Cloudfront

    - by giorrrgio
    I've written a little OSMF player that streams via RTMP from Amazon Cloudfront. There's a known issue, the mp3 duration is not correctly readed from metadata and thus the seek function is not working. I know there's a workaround implying the use of getStreamLength function of NetConnection, which I successfully implemented in a previous non-OSMF player, but now I don't know how and when to call it, in terms of OSMF Events and Traits. This code is not working: protected function initApp():void { //the pointer to the media var resource:URLResource = new URLResource( STREAMING_PATH ); // Create a mediafactory instance mediaFactory = new DefaultMediaFactory(); //creates and sets the MediaElement (generic) with a resource and path element = mediaFactory.createMediaElement( resource ); var loadTrait:NetStreamLoadTrait = element.getTrait(MediaTraitType.LOAD) as NetStreamLoadTrait; loadTrait.addEventListener(LoaderEvent.LOAD_STATE_CHANGE, _onLoaded); player = new MediaPlayer( element ); //Marker 5: Add MediaPlayer listeners for media size and current time change player.addEventListener( DisplayObjectEvent.MEDIA_SIZE_CHANGE, _onSizeChange ); player.addEventListener( TimeEvent.CURRENT_TIME_CHANGE, _onProgress ); initControlBar(); } private function onGetStreamLength(result:Object):void { Alert.show("The stream length is " + result + " seconds"); duration = Number(result); } private function _onLoaded(e:LoaderEvent):void { if (e.newState == LoadState.READY) { var loadTrait:NetStreamLoadTrait = player.media.getTrait(MediaTraitType.LOAD) as NetStreamLoadTrait; if (loadTrait && loadTrait.netStream) { var responder:Responder = new Responder(onGetStreamLength); loadTrait.connection.call("getStreamLength", responder, STREAMING_PATH); } } }

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  • Google AJAX Transliteration API :- How do i translate many elements in page to some language at one

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I have many elements on page and all of which i want to translate to some language. The language is not the same for all fields, that is, for 1st field it may be fr and for third field it may be en then again for 7th field it may be pa. Basically i wrote the code and it's working :- <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ google.load("language", "1"); window.onload = function(){ var elemPostTitles = document.getElementsByTagName("h4"); var flag = true; for(var i = 0 ; i < elemPostTitles.length ; i++){ while(flag == false){ } var postTitleElem = elemPostTitles[i]; var postContentElem = document.getElementById("postContent_" + i); var postTitle = postTitleElem.innerHTML; var postContent = postContentElem.innerHTML; var languageCode = document.getElementById("languageCode_" + i).value; google.language.detect(postTitle, function(result) { if (!result.error && result.language) { google.language.translate(postTitle, result.language, languageCode, function(result) { flag = true; if (result.translation) { postTitleElem.innerHTML = result.translation; } }); } }); flag = false; } As you can see, what i am trying to do is restrict the loop from traversing until the result of previous ajax call is receieved. If i don't do this only the last field gets translated. My code works nicely, but because of the infinite loop, i keep getting errors from Mozilla to "stop executing scripts". How do i get rid of this? Also, is my approach correct? Or some inbuilt function is available which can ease my task? Thanks in advance :)

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  • how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

    - by Zviadi
    Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

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  • WordPress: Related Posts by Tags, but in the Same Categories

    - by Norbert
    I'm using the script below to get related posts by tags, but noticed that if I have a picture of a bird tagged white and a table also tagged white, the table will show up in the related posts section of the bird. Is there a way to only get posts that match at least one of the categories, so bird and table won't be related, unless they share one category? I tried setting an category__in array inside $args, but no luck! <?php $tags = wp_get_post_tags($post->ID); if ($tags) { $tag_ids = array(); foreach($tags as $individual_tag) $tag_ids[] = $individual_tag->term_id; $args=array( 'tag__in' => $tag_ids, 'post__not_in' => array($post->ID), 'showposts'=>6, // Number of related posts that will be shown. 'caller_get_posts'=>1 ); $my_query = new wp_query($args); if( $my_query->have_posts() ) { while ($my_query->have_posts()) { $my_query->the_post(); ?> <?php if ( get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Image', true) ) { ?> <a style="text-decoration: none;" href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"> <img style="max-height: 125px; margin: 15px 10px; vertical-align: middle;" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/scripts/timthumb.php?src=<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, "Image", $single = true); ?>&w=125&zc=1" alt="" /> </a> <?php } ?> <?php } } } ?>

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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • How do I relate two models/tables in Django based on non primary non unique keys?

    - by wizard
    I've got two tables that I need to relate on a single field po_num. The data is imported from another source so while I have a little bit of control over what the tables look like but I can't change them too much. What I want to do is relate these two models so I can look up one from the other based on the po_num fields. What I really need to do is join the two tables so I can do a where on a count of the related table. I would like to do filter for all Order objects that have 0 related EDI856 objects. I tried adding a foreign key to the Order model and specified the db_column and to_fields as po_num but django didn't like that the fact that Edi856.po_num wasn't unique. Here are the important fields of my current models that let me display but not filter for the data that I want. class Edi856(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True ) class Order(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True) def in_edi(self): '''Has the edi been processed?''' return Edi856.objects.filter(po_num = self.po_num).count() Thanks for taking the time to read about my problem. I'm not sure what to do from here.

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  • Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

    - by Lee-Man
    I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

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  • Assign C++ instance method to a global-function-pointer ?

    - by umanga
    Greetings, My project structure is as follows: \- base (C static library) callbacks.h callbacks.c paint_node.c . . * libBase.a \-app (C++ application) main.cpp In C library 'base' , I have declared global-function-pointer as: in singleheader file callbacks.h #ifndef CALLBACKS_H_ #define CALLBACKS_H_ extern void (*putPixelCallBack)(); extern void (*putImageCallBack)(); #endif /* CALLBACKS_H_ */ in single C file they are initialized as callbacks.c #include "callbacks.h" void (*putPixelCallBack)(); void (*putImageCallBack)(); Other C files access this callback-functions as: paint_node.c #include "callbacks.h" void paint_node(node *node,int index){ //Call callbackfunction . . putPixelCallBack(node->x,node->y,index); } I compile these C files and generate a static library 'libBase.a' Then in C++ application, I want to assign C++ instance method to this global function-pointer: I did something like follows : in Sacm.cpp file #include "Sacm.h" extern void (*putPixelCallBack)(); extern void (*putImageCallBack)(); void Sacm::doDetection() { putPixelCallBack=(void(*)())&paintPixel; //call somefunctions in 'libBase' C library } void Sacm::paintPixel(int x,int y,int index) { qpainter.begin(this); qpainter.drawPoint(x,y); qpainter.end(); } But when compiling it gives the error: sacmtest.cpp: In member function ‘void Sacm::doDetection()’: sacmtest.cpp:113: error: ISO C++ forbids taking the address of an unqualified or parenthesized non-static member function to form a pointer to member function. Say ‘&Sacm::paintPixel’ sacmtest.cpp:113: error: converting from ‘void (Sacm::)(int, int, int)’ to ‘void ()()’ Any tips?

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  • How to display many SVGs in Java with high performance

    - by Oak
    What I want My goal is to be able to display a large number of SVG images on a single drawing area in Java, each with its own translation/rotation/scale values. I'm looking for the simplest solution allowing this, optionally even using OpenGL to speed things up. What I've Tried My initial naive approach was to use SVGSalamander to draw directly on a JPanel, but the performance was pathetic. I poked around around and learned that I should do something like manually convert each SVG into a BufferedImage created with createCompatibleImage, then do the transformations I want, then draw it using double buffering. I ran into some troubles here, and before I continued I tried looking for frameworks to simplify things. What I've Looked At I've been a bit overwhelmed by the available options, which is why I'm turning to SO for help. I've looked at: Cairo (with Glitz maybe?) Libart - not sure if this actually supports SVGs FengGUI Slick - looks promising but a bit of an overkill But couldn't decide what is best for me to start working with, and I hope someone here as experience with any of these doing similar things.

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  • C++: calling non-member functions with the same syntax of member ones

    - by peoro
    One thing I'd like to do in C++ is to call non-member functions with the same syntax you call member functions: class A { }; void f( A & this ) { /* ... */ } // ... A a; a.f(); // this is the same as f(a); Of course this could only work as long as f is not virtual (since it cannot appear in A's virtual table. f doesn't need to access A's non-public members. f doesn't conflict with a function declared in A (A::f). I'd like such a syntax because in my opinion it would be quite comfortable and would push good habits: calling str.strip() on a std::string (where strip is a function defined by the user) would sound a lot better than calling strip( str );. most of the times (always?) classes provide some member functions which don't require to be member (ie: are not virtual and don't use non-public members). This breaks encapsulation, but is the most practical thing to do (due to point 1). My question here is: what do you think of such feature? Do you think it would be something nice, or something that would introduce more issues than the ones it aims to solve? Could it make sense to propose such a feature to the next standard (the one after C++0x)? Of course this is just a brief description of this idea; it is not complete; we'd probably need to explicitly mark a function with a special keyword to let it work like this and many other stuff.

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  • Using a Context Menu to delete from a SQLite database in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hi, I have created a list view that displays the names and dates of items stored in a SQLite database, now I want to use a Context Menu to modify these items stored in the database such as edit the name, delete, and view. This is the code for the list view: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.listview); SQLiteDatabase myDB = null; myDB = this.openOrCreateDatabase(MY_DB_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE, null); Cursor cur = myDB.rawQuery("SELECT _id, trackname, tracktime" + " FROM " + MY_DB_TABLE, null); ListAdapter adapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.listview, cur, new String[] { Constants.TRACK_NAME, Constants.TRACK_TIME}, new int[] { R.id.text1, R.id.text2}); ListView list = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.list); list.setAdapter(adapter); registerForContextMenu(list); } and the Context Menu... public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo) { super.onCreateContextMenu(menu, v, menuInfo); menu.setHeaderTitle("Track Options"); menu.add(0, CHANGE_NAME, 0, "Change name"); menu.add(0, VIEW_TRACK, 0, "View track"); menu.add(0, SEND_TRACK, 0, "Send track"); menu.add(0, DELETE_TRACK, 0, "Delete track"); } I have used a Switch statement to control the menu items.. public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { switch (item.getItemId()){ case CHANGE_NAME: changename(); return true; case DELETE_TRACK: deletetrack(); return true; default: return super.onContextItemSelected(item); } So how would I go ahead and map the deletetrack(); method to find the ID of the track stored in the database to the item that has been selected in the list view?

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