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  • Spring Dependency Injecting an annotated Aspect

    Using Spring I've had some issues with doing a dependency injection on an annotated Aspect class. CacheService is injected upon the Spring context's startup, but when the weaving takes place, it says that the cacheService is null. So I am forced to relook up the spring context manually and get the bean from there. Is there another way of going about it? Here is an example of my Aspect: import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.aspectj.lang.ProceedingJoinPoint; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Around; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Aspect; import com.mzgubin.application.cache.CacheService; @Aspect public class CachingAdvice { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(CachingAdvice.class); private CacheService cacheService; @Around("execution(public *com.mzgubin.application.callMethod(..)) &&" + "args(params)") public Object addCachingToCreateXMLFromSite(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, InterestingParams params) throws Throwable { log.debug("Weaving a method call to see if we should return something from the cache or create it from scratch by letting control flow move on"); Object result = null; if (getCacheService().objectExists(params))}{ result = getCacheService().getObject(params); } else { result = pjp.proceed(pjp.getArgs()); getCacheService().storeObject(params, result); } return result; } public CacheService getCacheService(){ return cacheService; } public void setCacheService(CacheService cacheService){ this.cacheService = cacheService; } }

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  • JSON Array Created in PHP/MySQL incorrectly decoded using JQuery

    - by Zak
    I am attempting to make an AJAX call to a very small PHP script that should return me an array that could be echo'd and decoded using JQuery. Here is what I have: My PHP page called to by AJAX: $web_q=mysql_query("select * from sec_u_g where uid='$id' "); $rs = array(); while($rs[] = mysql_fetch_assoc($web_q)) { } print_r(json_encode($rs)); This outputs: [{"id":"3","uid":"39","gid":"16"},{"id":"4","uid":"39","gid":"4"},{"id":"5","uid":"39","gid":"5"},{"id":"6","uid":"39","gid":"6"},{"id":"7","uid":"39","gid":"7"},{"id":"8","uid":"39","gid":"8"},{"id":"9","uid":"39","gid":"9"},false] I don't understand the "false" at the end for one .. But then I send to to JQuery and use: $.each(json.result, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { alert(property + "=" + value); }); }); This just fails. I try to alert "result" by itself which is set by: $.post("get_ug.php",{id:txt},function(result){ }); My output alerts are as follows: 1) The key is '0' and the value is '[' 2) The key is '1' and the value is 'f' 3) The key is '2' and the value is 'a' 4) The key is '3' and the value is 'l' 5) The key is '4' and the value is 's' 6) The key is '5' and the value is 'e' 7) The key is '6' and the value is ']' 8) The key is '7' and the value is ' ' (<-- Yes the line break is there in the alert) I am exhausted from trying different ideas and scripts. Other than setting a delimiter myself and concatenating my own array and decoding it with a custom script, does anyone have any ideas?? Thank you!!

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  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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  • Need a refresher course on property access...

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

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  • Updating Embedded Video in Firefox

    - by Slevin
    I am working on a Videos page where my intention is to load a video with the page but by clicking a link, the original video will be updated and replaced with the corresponding video. For instance, if video1 loads with the page and the user clicks to view video2, the original div's innerHTML holding video1 is updated to play video2. Now, I have works great in IE and Chrome but nothing loads at all in Firefox. Below are some snippets of my code. Any idea how to load these videos in a manner that Firefox supports? Javascript Function function updateVideo(arraynum) { var arraynum; var vidId = document.anchors(arraynum).name; document.getElementById("movieDiv").innerHTML = "<object width='340' height='300'><param name='movie' value='http://www.youtube.com/v/" + vidId + "&h1=en&fs=1&color1=0x5d1719&color2=0xcd311b'></param><param name='wmode' value='opaque'></param><embed src='http://www.youtube.com/v/" + vidId + "&h1=en&fs=1&color1=0x5d1719&color2=0xcd311b' type='application/x-shockwave-flash' wmode='opaque' width='340' height='300'></embed></object>"; Html <div id = "movieDiv"> </div> Links <a name="-MQf_Ol00nk" href = "#" onclick="updateVideo(4)"><img src="../images/content/videos/kaleidoscope/2010/May/Arts-and-Events.jpg" border = "0"></a> Any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated. And on a smaller note, every time a link in clicked in IE, a '#' is added into the title bar. So clicking three or four videos would result in the page title being followed up with three or four # signs.

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  • ASP.Net event only being raised every other time?

    - by eftpotrm
    I have an ASP.Net web user control which represents a single entry in a list. To allow users to reorder the items, each item has buttons to move the item up or down the list. Clicking on one of these raises an event to the parent page, which then shuffles the items in the placeholder control. Code fragments from the list entry: Public Event UpClicked As System.EventHandler Protected Sub btnUp_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnUp.Click RaiseEvent UpClicked(Me, New EventArgs()) End Sub And the parent container: rem (within the code to add an individual item to the placeholder) AddHandler l_oItem.UpClicked, AddressOf UpClicked Protected Sub UpClicked(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) MoveItem(DirectCast(sender, ScriptListItem), -1) End Sub It originally looked in testing like every other time the value for sender (verified by its properties) that reaches UpClicked is of an adjacent ListItem, not the one I've just clicked on - the first click is always wrong, then the second for the correct control. At present, testing appears to show that the button's click event is just being ignored every other time through. Breakpoints on the click events within the control simply aren't being hit, though the events are definitely being established. Why?

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  • WPF Event Handler in Another Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have built a series of event handlers for some custom WPF controls. The event handles format the text displayed when the user enters or leaves a textbox based on the type of data contained (Phone number, zip code, monetary value, etc.) Right now I have all of the events locally in the C# code directly attached to the xaml. Because I have developed a could controls, this means that the logic is repeated a lot, and if I want to change the program-wide functionality I would have to make changes everywhere the event code is located. I am sure there is a way to put all of my event handlers in a single class. Can anyone help point me in the correct direction? I saw this article: Event Handler located in different class than MainWindow But I'm not sure if it directly relates to what I'm doing. I would rather make small changes to the existing logic that I have, as it works, then rewrite everything into commands. I would essentially like to something like this if possible: LostFocus="ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBox_LostFocus" It is easy enough to do something like this: private void TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyGotFocus(sender, e); } private void TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ExpandedTextBoxEvents.TextBoxCurrencyLostFocus(sender, e); } But that is less elegant.

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  • Help with c# event listening and usercontrols

    - by Jen
    OK so I have a page which has a listview on it. Inside the item template of the listview is a usercontrol. This usercontrol is trying to trigger an event so that the hosting page can listen to it. My problem is that the event is not being triggered as the handler is null. (ie. EditDateRateSelected is my handler and its null when debugging) protected void lnkEditDate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (EditDateRateSelected != null) EditDateRateSelected(Convert.ToDateTime(((LinkButton)frmViewRatesDate.Row.FindControl("lnkEditDate")).Text)); } On the item data bound of my listvew is where I'm adding my event handlers protected void PropertyAccommodationRates1_ItemDataBound(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListViewItemType.DataItem) { UserControls_RatesEditDate RatesViewDate1 = (UserControls_RatesEditDate)e.Item.FindControl("RatesViewDate1"); RatesViewDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); RatesViewDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesViewDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } RatesViewDate1.Rate = (PropertyCMSRate)((ListViewDataItem)e.Item).DataItem; } } My event code all works fine if the control is inside the page and on page load I have the line: RatesEditDate1.EditDateRateSelected += new UserControls_RatesEditDate.EditDateRateEventHandler(RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected); But obviously I need listen for events inside the listviewcontrols. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. I have tried setting EnableViewState to true for my listview but that hasn't made a difference. Is there somewhere else I'm supposed to be wiring up the control handler? Note - apologies if I've got my terminology wrong and I'm referring to delegates as handlers and such :)

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  • What's the best way to communicate the purpose of a string parameter in a public API?

    - by Dave
    According to the guidance published in New Recommendations for Using Strings in Microsoft .NET 2.0, the data in a string may exhibit one of the following types of behavior: A non-linguistic identifier, where bytes match exactly. A non-linguistic identifier, where case is irrelevant, especially a piece of data stored in most Microsoft Windows system services. Culturally-agnostic data, which still is linguistically relevant. Data that requires local linguistic customs. Given that, I'd like to know the best way to communicate which behavior is expected of a string parameter in a public API. I wasn't able to find an answer in the Framework Design Guidelines. Consider the following methods: f(string this_is_a_linguistic_string) g(string this_is_a_symbolic_identifier_so_use_ordinal_compares) Is variable naming and XML documentation the best I can do? Could I use attributes in some way to mark the requirements of the string? Now consider the following case: h(Dictionary<string, object> dictionary) Note that the dictionary instance is created by the caller. How do I communicate that the callee expects the IEqualityComparer<string> object held by the dictionary to perform, for example, a case-insensitive ordinal comparison?

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  • Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

    - by Sen Jacob
    Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

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  • Javascript/Jquery pop-up window in Asp.Net MVC4

    - by Mark
    Below I have a "button" (just a span with an icon) that creates a pop-up view of a div in my application to allow users to compare information in seperate windows. However, I get and Asp.Net Error as follows: **Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Requested URL: /Home/[object Object]** Does anyone have an Idea of why this is happending? Below is my code: <div class="module_actions"> <div class="actions"> <span class="icon-expand2 pop-out"></span> </div> </div> <script> $(document).ajaxSuccess(function () { var Clone = $(".pop-out").click(function () { $(this).parents(".module").clone().appendTo("#NewWindow"); }); $(".pop-out").click(function popitup(url) { LeftPosition = (screen.width) ? (screen.width - 400) / 1 : 0; TopPosition = (screen.height) ? (screen.height - 700) / 1 : 0; var sheight = (screen.height) * 0.5; var swidth = (screen.width) * 0.5; settings = 'height=' + sheight + ',width=' + swidth + ',top=' + TopPosition + ',left=' + LeftPosition + ',scrollbars=yes,resizable=yes,toolbar=no,status=no,menu=no, directories=no,titlebar=no,location=no,addressbar=no' newwindow = window.open(url, '/Index', settings); if (window.focus) { newwindow.focus() } return false; }); });

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  • How do I implement Hibernate Pagination using a cursor (so the results stay consistent, despite new

    - by hunterae
    Hey all, Is there any way to maintain a database cursor using Hibernate between web requests? Basically, I'm trying to implement pagination, but the data that is being paged is consistently changing (i.e. new records are added into the database). We are trying to set it up such that when you do your initial search (returning a maximum of 5000 results), and you page through the results, those same records always appear on the same page (i.e. we're not continuously running the query each time next and previous page buttons are clicked). The way we're currently implementing this is by merely selecting 5000 (at most) primary keys from the table we're paging, storing those keys in memory, and then just using 20 primary keys at a time to fetch their details from the database. However, we want to get away from having to store these keys in memory and would much prefer a database cursor that we just keep going back to and moving backwards and forwards over the cursor to generate pages. I tried doing this with Hibernate's ScrollableResults but found that I could not call methods like next() and previous() would cause an exception if you within a different web request / Hibernate session (no surprise there). Is there any way to reattach a ScrollableResults object to a Session, much the same way you would reattach a detached database object to make it persistent? Are there any other approaches to implement this data paging with consistent paging results without caching the primary keys?

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  • Business Tier | client state in desktop application- way around Stateful Session Beans?

    - by arthur
    I read positive inputs on the following posts concerning client state management: Stateful EJBs in web application?, here, and here. I want to know how implement such client state management for desktop applications (Swing, AWT, SWT, and other). let's assume there are n desktop clients supposed to use some (remote) services provided on an Application Server. How to maintain a separate and permanent data state for each client , distinct from the other without have to use using stateful session Beans (SFSB) ? is that even possible on this application type ? With Webapp(Servlets / JsSF and JSP) some can avoid using SFSB by HttpSession object and/or coupling it with stateless session beans (SLSB). HttpSession object would keep information for each (Web)client separate and the SLSB would play the business logic music. But HttpSession objects aren't present on desktop application and I go stuck with only SFSB and SLSB. Knowing the problems(Concurrency, Error Handling, usw ) of SFSB, I would have not wanted to use it. What would be the other options? is there only SFSB available? Thanks in advances

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  • XML Serialization and Deserialization in C#

    - by SOF User
    <job id="ID00004" name="PeakValCalcO"> <uses file="Seismogram_FFI_0_1_ID00003.grm" link="input" /> <uses file="PeakVals_FFI_0_1_ID00003.bsa" link="output" /> </job> <job id="ID00005" name="SeismogramSynthesis" > <uses file="FFI_0_1_txt.variation-s07930-h00000" link="input" /> <uses file="Seismogram_FFI_0_1_ID00005.grm" link="output" /> </job> Let say I have this XML I want to convert into .net Object how can do this i tried it but it doesn't work correct... public class jobs : List<job> { } public class job { public string id { get; set; } public string name { get; set; } public List<uses> Files { get; set; } } public class uses { public string file { get; set; } public string link { get; set; } } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(jobs)); TextReader tr = new StreamReader("CyberShake_100.xml"); job b = (job)serializer.Deserialize(tr); tr.Close(); }

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  • Updating database row from model

    - by Jamie Dixon
    Hey everyone, I'm haing a few problems updating a row in my database using Linq2Sql. Inside of my model I have two methods for updating and saving from my controller, which in turn receives an updated model from my view. My model methods like like: public void Update(Activity activity) { _db.Activities.InsertOnSubmit(activity); } public void Save() { _db.SubmitChanges(); } and the code in my Controller likes like: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Activity activity) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel<Activity>(activity); _activitiesModel.Update(activity); _activitiesModel.Save(); } return View(activity); } The problem I'm having is that this code inserts a new entry into the database, even though the model item i'm inserting-on-submit contains a primary key field. I've also tried re-attaching the model object back to the data source but this throws an error because the item already exists. Any pointers in the right direction will be greatly appreciated. UPDATE: I'm using dependancy injection to instantiate my datacontext object as follows: IMyDataContext _db; public ActivitiesModel(IMyDataContext db) { _db = db; }

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  • ASP .NET Button event handlers do not fire on the first click, but on the second click after a PostB

    - by John
    Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers were triggered. On the second click, they fired. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition (within GetAdministrationInterface) public override Control GetAdministrationInterface() { // more code... Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me!"; btn.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); // more code... } Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something } Page_Load Method that calls GetAdministrationInterface protected void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsAsync) { List<AdministrationInterface> interfaces = <DATABASE CALL>; foreach(AdministrationInteface ai in interfaces) { placeholderDiv.Controls.Add(ai.GetAdministrationInterface()); } } }

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  • JavaScript: How is "function x() {}" different from "x = function() {}" ?

    - by jleedev
    In the answers to this question, we read that function f() {} defines the name locally, while [var] f = function() {} defines it globally. That makes perfect sense to me, but there's some strange behavior that's different between the two declarations. I made an HTML page with the script onload = function() { alert("hello"); } and it worked as expected. When I changed it to function onload() { alert("hello"); } nothing happened. (Firefox still fired the event, but WebKit, Opera, and Internet Explorer didn't, although frankly I've no idea which is correct.) In both cases (in all browsers), I could verify that both window.onload and onload were set to the function. In both cases, the global object this is set to the window, and I no matter how I write the declaration, the window object is receiving the property just fine. What's going on here? Why does one declaration work differently from the other? Is this a quirk of the JavaScript language, the DOM, or the interaction between the two?

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  • Flex component setActualSize

    - by dlots
    I am a little confused about the setActualSize method. It appears from what I've read, that if it is not called on a component by its parent, the component will not be rendered. So it appears that setActualSize is a critical method that is directly bound to rendering the UIComponent. It also appears that the width and height properties of UIComponent override the functionality of the width and height properties of flash.display.DisplayObject, in that they are not directly bound to the rendering of the object but are virtual values that are mainly used by the getExplicitOrMeasured when the parent of the component calls the component's setActualSize method. So the question are: 1) Why isn't the default behavior of every component to just call setActualSize(getExplicitOrMeasuredWidth(),getExplicitOrMeasuredHeight()) on itself? 2) I guess this question stems from the above question and the behavior as I understand it as described above: does setActualSize change the visibility of the component? It appears that that the behavior is that a component is not rendered until setActualSize is called, but if it contains display object children itself (expected behavior as it can calculate measure on itself) and is added to the display list, the only reason why flash isn't rendering it, is because its not visible. 3) Relating to question #1, does updateDisplayList of UIComponent have a method that goes through its children calling setActualSize on each of them?

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  • structDelete doesn't effect the shallow copy?

    - by Travis
    I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset variables.XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset variables.startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset variables.stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

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  • design pattern for related inputs

    - by curiousMo
    My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. ddlCountry (DropDownList) ddlState (DropDownList) ddlCity (DropDownList) ddlBoro (DropDownList) txtAddress (TxtBox) txtZipcode(TxtBox) and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each: countrySeqid stateSeqid citySeqid boroSeqid address zipCode naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the DropDownLists. i have some code that would grab the object,look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load the ddlCountry with possible values, then assign values, then do the same thing for the rest of the ddls. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern.

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  • Cancelling BackgroundWorker While Running

    - by Nevets
    I have an application in which I launch a window that displays byte data coming in from a 3rd party tool. I have included .CancelAsync() and .CancellationPending into my code (see below) but I have another issue that I am running into. private void backgroundWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { Thread popupwindow = new Thread(() => test()); popupwindow.Start(); // start test script if(backgroundWorker.CancellationPending == true) { e.Cancel = true; } } private voide window_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { try { this.backgroundWorker.CancelAsync(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message.ToString()); } } Upon cancelling the test I get an `InvalidOperationException occurred" error from my rich text box in my pop-up window. It states that "Invoke or BeginInvoke" cannot be called on a control until the window handle has been created". I am not entirely sure what that means and would appreciate your help. LogWindow code for Rich Text Box: public void LogWindowText(LogMsgType msgtype, string msgIn) { rtbSerialNumberValue.Invoke(new EventHandler(delegate { rtbWindow.SelectedText = string.Empty; rtbWindow.SelectionFont = new Font(rtbWindow.SelectionFont, FontStyle.Bold); rtbWindow.SelectionColor = LogMsgTypeColor[(int)msgtype]; rtbWindow.AppendText(msgIn); rtbWindow.ScrollToCaret(); })); }

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  • After calling a COM-dll component, C# exceptions are not caught by the debugger

    - by shlomil
    I'm using a COM dll provided to me by 3rd-party software company (I don't have the source code). I do know for sure they used Java to implement it because their objects contain property names like 'JvmVersion'. After I instantiated an object introduced by the provided COM dll, all exceptions in my C# program cannot be caught by the VS debugger and every time an exception occurs I get the default Windows Debugger Selection dialog (And that's while executing my program in debug mode under a full VisualStudio debugging environment). To illustrate: throw new Exception("exception 1"); m_moo = new moo(); // Component taken from the COM-dll throw new Exception("exception 2"); Exception 1 will be caught by VS and show the "yellow exception window". Exception 2 will open a dialog titled "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger" containing the text "An unhandled win32 exception occurred in myfile.vshost.exe[1348]." followed by a list of the existing VS instances on my system to select from. I guess the instantiation of "moo" object overrides C#'s exception handler or something like that. Am I correct and is there a way to preserve C#'s exception handler?

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  • help in selecting a row in a tableview and pushing that row into anotherview? sturgling on this sinc

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I have a list of about 5 items in a tableview which I bought them from a database and now when i am trying to push each of them into different views in DidSelectRow() what I am seeing is it is showing me all the views in all the categories.... here is the code I have written.... Here is the code written in cell for row at indexpath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } BeautyQuotes *bQuote = (BeautyQuotes*)[mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = bQuote.qBeauty; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator] ; return cell; and in didselectrow() i have written this code: id count1 = [mBeautyQ count]; while (count1--) { object = [mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:count1]; } [mBeautyQ release]; if([[object objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual : @"Beauty Quotes"]){ [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; BeautysubViewController *subBeauty = [[BeautysubViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BeautysubViewController" bundle:nil]; //subBeauty.selected =[regions objectAtIndex:indexPath.row];(this is not working) [subBeauty setTitle:@"Beauty Quotes"]; NSLog(@"it is about push beauty subview controller"); [self.navigationController pushViewController:subBeauty animated:YES]; [subBeauty release]; } in this way i am pusing all the rows in to different views....but when I am pushing this into beautyquotes it is showing me all other views along with this.... struggling on this a lot please help me in dealing with this....

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  • SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

    - by dev_darin
    I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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