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  • Create a variable which is named depending on an ID number?

    - by gray
    Is there any way to create a variable, and add an ID to the end of the actual variable name? I have a variable called 'gauge', used to create a new Gauge object: var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); I want to add an ID to the variable, so something like: var gauge+id = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); It's because I'm creating a number of these objects, and have a specific ID already for each one, which I want to attach to the gauge object if possible? All my code for this function is below, if it gives you a better idea of what i need to do: function go(id, votes) { var val = $('#votes_'+id).text(); var target = document.getElementById('foo_'+id); // your canvas element var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); // create sexy gauge! gauge.maxValue = 100; // set max gauge value gauge.animationSpeed = 20; // set animation speed (32 is default value) var a=votes+0.5; gauge.set(val); // set actual value } My main problem arises on the last line. It says gauge.set(val), and it only sets the last object, ignoring all the other ones...

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  • Static Analyzer says I have a leak....why?

    - by Walter
    I think this code should be fine but Static Analyzer doesn't like it. I can't figure out why and was hoping that someone could help me understand. The code works fine, the analyzer result just bugs me. Coin *tempCoin = [[Coin alloc] initalize]; self.myCoin = tempCoin; [tempCoin release]; Coin is a generic NSObject and it has an initalize method. myCoin is a property of the current view and is of type Coin. I assume it is telling me I am leaking tempCoin. In my view's .h I have set myCoin as a property with nonatomic,retain. I've tried to autorelease the code as well as this normal release but Static Analyzer continues to say: 1. Method returns an Objective-C object with a +1 retain count (owning reference) 2. Object allocated on line 97 is no longer referenced after this point and has a retain count of +1 (object leaked) Line 97 is the first line that I show.

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  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

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  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

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  • do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

    - by msw
    I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

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  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

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  • Issue with class design to model user preferences for different classes

    - by Mulone
    Hi all, I'm not sure how to design a couple of classes in my app. Basically that's a situation: each user can have many preferences each preference can be referred to an object of different classes (e.g. album, film, book etc) the preference is expressed as a set of values (e.g. score, etc). The problem is that many users can have preferences on the same objects, e.g.: John: score=5 for filmid=apocalypsenow Paul: score=3 for filmid=apocalypsenow And naturally I don't want to duplicate the object film in each user. So I could create a class called "preference" holding a score and then a target object, something like: User{ hasMany preferences } Preference{ belongsTo User double score Film target Album target //etc } and then define just one target. Then I would create an interface for the target Classes (album, film etc): Interface canBePreferred{ hasMany preferences } And implement all of those classes. This could work, but it looks pretty ugly and it would requires a lot of joins to work. Do you have some patterns I could use to model this nicely? Cheers, Mulone

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  • Have something loaded only when JList item is visibile

    - by elvencode
    Hello, i'm implementing a Jlist populated with a lot of elements. Each element corresponds to a image so i'd like to show a resized preview of them inside each row of the list. I've implemented a custom ImageCellRenderer extending the Jlabel and on getListCellRendererComponent i create the thumbnail if there'snt any for that element. Each row corresponds to a Page class where i store the path of the image and the icon applied to the JLabel. Each Page object is put inside a DefaultListModel to populate the JList. The render code is something like this: public Component getListCellRendererComponent( JList list, Object value, int index, boolean isSelected, boolean cellHasFocus) { Page page = (Page) value; if (page.getImgIcon() == null) { System.out.println(String.format("Creating thumbnail of %s", page.getImgFilename())); ImageIcon icon = new ImageIcon(page.getImgFilename()); int thumb_width = icon.getIconWidth() > icon.getIconHeight() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconWidth() * 128) / icon.getIconHeight()); int thumb_height = icon.getIconHeight() > icon.getIconWidth() ? 128 : ((icon.getIconHeight() * 128) / icon.getIconWidth()); icon.setImage(getScaledImage(icon.getImage(), thumb_width, thumb_height)); page.setImgIcon(icon); } setIcon(page.getImgIcon()); } I was thinking that only a certain item is visibile in the List the cell renderer is called but i'm seeing that all the thumnails are created when i add the Page object to the list model. I've tried to load the items and after set the model in the JList or set the model first and after starting appending the items but the results are the same. Is there any way to load the data only when necessary or do i need to create a custom control like a JScrollPanel with stacked items inside where i check myself the visibility of each elements? Thanks

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  • Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

    - by soow.fr
    I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

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  • Link Button on asp.net user control not firing

    - by andyriome
    Hi I have a user control, which is added to another user control. The nested user control is built up of a gridview, an image button and a link button. The nested user control is added to the outer control as a collection object based upon the results bound to the gridview. The problem that I have is that my link button doesn't work. I click on it and the event doesn't fire. Even adding a break point was not reached. As the nested user control is added a number of times, I have set image button to have unique ids and also the link button. Whilst image button works correctly with its java script. The link button needs to fire an event in the code behind, but despite all my efforts, I can't make it work. I am adding the link button to the control dynamically. Below is the relevant code that I am using: public partial class ucCustomerDetails : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected override void CreateChildControls( ) { base.CreateChildControls( ); string strUniqueID = lnkShowAllCust.UniqueID; strUniqueID = strUniqueID.Replace('$','_'); this.lnkShowAllCust.ID = strUniqueID; this.lnkShowAllCust.Click += new EventHandler(this.lnkShowAllCust_Click); this.Controls.Add(lnkShowAllCust); } protected override void OnInit (EventArgs e) { CreateChildControls( ); base.OnInit(e); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.EnsureChildControls( ); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (IsPostBack) { CreateChildControls( ); } } protected void lnkShowAllCust_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.OnCustShowAllClicked(new EventArgs ( )); } protected virtual void OnCustShowAllClicked(EventArgs args) { if (this.ViewAllClicked != null) { this.ViewAllClicked(this, args); } } public event EventHandler ViewAllClicked; } I have been stuggling with this problem for the last 3 days and have had no success with it, and I really do need some help. Can anyone please help me?

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  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

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  • Hibernate: fetching multiple bags efficiently

    - by Jens Jansson
    Hi! I'm developing a multilingual application. For this reason many objects have in their name and description fields collections of something I call LocalizedStrings instead of plain strings. Every LocalizedString is basically a pair of a locale and a string localized to that locale. Let's take an example an entity, let's say a book -object. public class Book{ @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> names; @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> description; //and so on... } When a user asks for a list of books, it does a query to get all the books, fetches the name and description of every book in the locale the user has selected to run the app in, and displays it back to the user. This works but it is a major performance issue. For the moment hibernate makes one query to fetch all the books, and after that it goes through every single object and asks hibernate for the localized strings for that specific object, resulting in a "n+1 select problem". Fetching a list of 50 entities produces about 6000 rows of sql commands in my server log. I tried making the collections eager but that lead me to the "cannot simultaneously fetch multiple bags"-issue. Then I tried setting the fetch strategy on the collections to subselect, hoping that it would do one query for all books, and after that do one query that fetches all LocalizedStrings for all the books. Subselects didn't work in this case how i would have hoped and it basically just did exactly the same as my first case. I'm starting to run out of ideas on how to optimize this. So in short, what fetching strategy alternatives are there when you are fetching a collection and every element in that collection has one or multiple collections in itself, which has to be fetch simultaneously.

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  • How do I capture keystrokes on the web?

    - by Sean
    Using PHP, JS, or HTML (or something similar) how would I capture keystokes? Such as if the user presses ctrl+f or maybe even just f, a certain function will happen. ++++++++++++++++++++++++EDIT+++++++++++++++++++ Ok, so is this correct, because I can't get it to work. And I apologize for my n00bness is this is an easy question, new to jQuery and still learning more and more about JS. <script> var element = document.getElementById('capture'); element.onkeypress = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70) { alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123 </div> ++++++++++++++++EDIT++++++++++++++++++ Here is everything, but I can't get it to work: <link rel="icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <style> * { margin: 0px } div { height: 250px; width: 630px; overflow: hidden; vertical-align: top; position: relative; background-color: #999; } iframe { position: absolute; left: -50px; top: -130px; } </style> <script> document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].onkeyup = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70 && ev.ctrlKey) { //control+f alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123<!--<iframe src="http://www.pandora.com/" scrolling="no" width="1000" height="515"frameborder="0"></iframe>--> </div>

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  • Populate table fields on query execution

    - by Jason
    I'm trying to build an ASP site that populates a Table based on the results of a selection in a ListBox. In order to do this, I've created a GridView table inside a div element. Currently the default behavior is to show all the items in the specified table in sortable order. However, I'd like to refine this further to allow for display of matches based on the results from the ListBox selection, but am not sure how to execute this. The ListBox fires off a OnSelectionChanged event to the method defined below and the GridView element is defined as <asp:GridView ID="dataListings" runat="server" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="LinqDataSource1" OnDataBinding="ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged"> protected void ListBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int itemSelected = selectTopics.SelectedIndex; string[] listing = null; switch (itemSelected)//assign listing the array of course numbers { case 0: break; case 1: listing = arts; break; case 2: listing = currentEvents; break; .... More cases here default: listing = arts; break; } using (OLLIDBDataContext odb = new OLLIDBDataContext()) { var q = from c in odb.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops where listing.Contains(c.tbl_Course_Description.tbl_CoursesAndWorkshops.course_workshop_number) select c; dataListings.DataSource = q; dataListings.DataBind(); } } However, this method never gets fired. I can see a request being made when changing the selection, but setting a breakpoint at the method declaration does nothing at all. Based on this, setup, I have three related questions What do I need to modify to get the OnSelectionChanged event handler to fire? How can I alter the GridView area to be empty on page load? How do I send the results from the dataListings.DataBind() execution to show in the GridView?

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  • Problem with moving a winform using C#

    - by karthik
    My form doesn't have a title bar, so I am implementing the code to drag the entire form around the screen. I am using the below code to do it, which works fine. I have two panels in my form, PanelA and PanelB. During the startup I show PanelA where the dragging works perfectly. Later when the user clicks the button in PanelA, I need to make PanelA invisible and show PanelB However, the dragging does not work when PanelB is shown. What's the problem here? private void SerialPortScanner_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = false; } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = true; this.start_point = new Point(e.X, e.Y); } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (this.drag) { Point p1 = new Point(e.X, e.Y); Point p2 = this.PointToScreen(p1); Point p3 = new Point(p2.X - this.start_point.X, p2.Y - this.start_point.Y); this.Location = p3; } }

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

    - by msalvadores
    I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

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  • How to hide canvas content from parent rounded corners in any webkit for Mac?

    - by Jose Rui Santos
    I have a parent div with rounded corners that contains a canvas: <div id="box"> <canvas width="300px" height="300px"></canvas> </div>? #box { width: 150px; height: 150px; background-color: blue; border-radius: 50px; overflow: hidden; }? The canvas renders a red rectangle that overflows the parent. As expected, this is what I get in all browsers: The problem: However, for webkit browsers running in Mac OS lion (I tested Safari 5.1.5 and Chrome 19), the canvas is still visible in the round corners: Interestingly, this problem seems to happen only when the inner element is a canvas. For any other child element, the content is correctly hidden. One workaround would be to apply the same rounded corners to the canvas itself, but unfortunately this is not possible, since I need to animate the canvas relative position. Another workaround that should work, is to redraw the canvas in a clipped region that resembles the rounded corners shape, but I would prefer a cleaner CSS3 solution. So, does one know how to fix this for Safari and Chrome on Mac? EDIT: Problem also happens in Chrome on Win7 jsFiddle here

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  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

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  • How do i selext text nodes using XSL

    - by user323719
    How do i select all the text nodes within a specific element node using XSL? Input xml: <node1 id="1"> <node2 id="2"> <node3 id="3" /> <node4 id="4"> <node5 id="5">Text node1</node5> <node6 id="6">Text node2</node6> </node4> </node2> <node7 id="7">Text node3 <node8 id="8">Text node4</node8> <node9 id="9">Text node5</node9> </node7> <node10 id="10">Text node6</node10> <node11 id="11">Text node3 <node12 id="12">Text node4</node12> <node13 id="13">Text node5</node13> </node11> </node1> Input Param: List of ids of the element nodes whose txt nodes are to be retrieved. <nodes><node>4</node><node>7</node><node>10</node></nodes> Expected Output: Text node1 Text node2 Text node3 Text node4 Text node5 Text node6 How can this be achieved using XSL? Please share your ideas.

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  • What is the best practice for including jQuery ext functions?

    - by Metropolis
    Hey everyone, Currently I have a file that I named JQuery.ext.js which I am including in all of my pages. Inside this file I have numerous functions that do things like the following, (function($) { /** * Checks to see is the value inside ele is blank * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is blank * @return bool */ $.fn.isEmpty = function(message) { var b_IsEmpty = false; //Loop through all elements this.each(function() { //Check to see if an empty value is found if($(this).val().length <= 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsEmpty = true; return false; } return true; }); //Return false if the evaluation failed, otherwise return the jquery object so we can reuse it return (b_IsEmpty) ? true : false; }; /** * Checks to see if the value inside ele is numbers only * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is not numeric * @return bool */ $.fn.isNumeric = function(message) { var expression = /^[0-9]+$/; var b_IsNumeric = true; //Loop through elements checking each one this.each( function() { //Check to see if this value is not numeric if(!$(this).val().match(expression) && $(this).val().length > 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsNumeric = false; } return b_IsNumeric; }); return b_IsNumeric; }; })(jQuery); Is there another way to do this? or is this the way most people do it? Thanks for any help, Metropolis

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  • What are the original reasons for ToString() in Java and .NET?

    - by d.
    I've used ToString() modestly in the past and I've found it very useful in many circumstances. However, my usage of this method would hardly justify to put this method in none other than System.Object. My wild guess is that, at some point during the work carried out and meetings held to come up with the initial design of the .NET framework, it was decided that it was necessary - or at least extremely useful - to include a ToString() method that would be implemented by everything in the .NET framework. Does anyone know what the exact reasons were? Am I missing a ton of situations where ToString() proves useful enough as to be part of System.Object? What were the original reasons for ToString()? Thanks a lot! PS - Again: I'm not questioning the method or implying that it's not useful, I'm just curious to know what makes it SO useful as to be placed in System.Object. Side note - Imagine this: AnyDotNetNativeClass someInitialObject = new AnyDotNetNativeClass([some constructor parameters]); AnyDotNetNativeClass initialObjectFullCopy = AnyDotNetNativeClass.FromString(someInitialObject.ToString()); Wouldn't this be cool? EDIT(1): (A) - Based on some answers, it seems that .NET languages inherited this from Java. So, I'm adding "Java" to the subject and to the tags as well. If someone knows the reasons why this was implemented in Java then please shed some light! (B) - Static hypothetical FromString vs Serialization: sure, but that's quite a different story, right?

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  • Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

    - by AJM
    I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

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