Search Results

Search found 32492 results on 1300 pages for 'reporting database'.

Page 575/1300 | < Previous Page | 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582  | Next Page >

• MySQL LIMIT 1 but query 15 rows?

  - by Ian

  Basically what I'm trying to do is compare the ID's of rows against 15 results in MySQL, eliminating all but 1 (using NOT IN) and then pull that result. Now normally this would be fine by itself, however the order of the 15 rows I'm doing the SQL query for are constantly changing based on a ranking, so there is a possibility that between the time the ranking updates, and the ajax request (which I submit the ID's for NOT IN) more than just one ID has changed, which would of course bring back more than one row which I do not want. So in short, is there a way in which I can query 15 rows, but only return one? Without having to run two separate queries. Any help is appreciated, thank you. EXAMPLE: Say I have 7 items in my database, and I'm displaying 5 on the page to the user. These are what are being displayed to the user: Apple Orange Kiwi Banana Grape But in the database I also have Peach Blackberry Now what I want to do is if the user deletes an item from their list, it will add another item (based on a ranking they have) Now the issue is, in order to know what they have on their list at the moment I send the remaining items to the database (say they deleted Kiwi, I would send Apple, Orange, Banana, and Grape) So now I select the highest ranked 5 items from are remaining six items, make sure they are not the ones already displayed on the page, and then add the new one to list (either Peach or Blackberry) All good and well, except that if both peach and blackberry now outrank grape, then I will be returning two results instead of just one. Because it would've searched... Apple Orange Banana Peach Blackberry and excluded... Apple Orange Banana Grape Which leaves us with both Peach and Blackberry, instead of just Peach or Blackberry

  Read the article

• Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

  - by Dite

  A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

  Read the article

• What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

  - by Pichan

  I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

  Read the article

• Design an Application That Stores and Processes Files

  - by phasetwenty

  I'm tasked with writing an application that acts as a central storage point for files (usually document formats) as provided by other applications. It also needs to take commands like "file 395 needs a copy in X format", at which point some work is offloaded to a 3rd party application. I'm having trouble coming up with a strategy for this. I'd like to keep the design as simple as possible, so I'd like to avoid big extra frameworks or techniques like threads for as long as it makes sense. The clients are expected to be web applications (for example, one is a django application that receives files from our customers; the others are not yet implemented). The platform it will be running on is likely going to be Python on Linux, unless I have a strong argument to use something else. In the beginning I thought I could fit the information I wanted to communicate in the filenames, and let my application parse the filename to figure out what it needed to do, but this is proving too inflexible with the amount of information I'm realizing I need to make available. Another idea is to pair FTP with a database used as a communication medium (client uploads a file and updates the database with a command as a row in a table) but I don't like this idea because adding commands (a known change) looks like it will require adding code as well as changing database schemas. It will also muddy up the interface my clients will have to use. I looked into Pyro to let applications communicate more directly but I don't like the idea of running an extra nameserver for this one purpose. I also don't see a good way to do file transfer within this framework. What I'm looking for is techniques and/or technologies applicable to my problem. At the simplest level, I need the ability to accept files and messages with them.

  Read the article

• ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

  - by Tedd Hansen

  I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

  Read the article

• MSI install sequence - run DB scripts before services start

  - by marc_s

  Folks, we're running into some sequencing troubles with our MSI install. As part of our app, we install a bunch of services and allow the user to pick whether to start them right away or later. When they start right away, they seem to start too early in the install sequence - before our database manager had a chance to update the database. Right now, our custom action to run the database updater looks like this - it's being run after "InstallFinalize" - very late in the process. <InstallExecuteSequence> <RemoveExistingProducts After='InstallInitialize' /> <Custom Action='RunDbUpdateManagerAction' After='InstallFinalize'> DbUpdateManager=3</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> What would be the more appropriate step to run after or before, to make sure the DB scripts are executed before any of the installed services start up? Is there a "BeforeServiceStart" step? EDIT: Just defining the "Before='StartServices'" attribute on the tag didn't solve my problem. I am assuming the issue is this: the custom action has an "inner text", which represents a condition, and this condition is: "&DbUpdateManager=3". From what I can deduce from trial & error, this probably means "the DbUpdateManager feature must be published". Now, trouble is: "PublishFeature" comes way at the end in the install sequence, just before "InstallFinalize", and definitely AFTER InstallServices / StartServices. So when I specify the "Before=StartServices" requirement, the condition "DbUpdateManager feature must be published" isn't true yet, so the DbUpdateManager doesn't get executed :-( I tried removing the condition - in that case, my DbUpdateManager sometimes doesn't execute at all, sometimes more than once - no real clear pattern as to what happens when..... Any more ideas?? Is there a way I could check for a condition "the DbUpdateManager feature is installed" which would be true after the "InstallFiles" step?? Marc

  Read the article

• How to implement Administrator rights in Java Application?

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am developing a Data Modeling Software that is implemented in Java. This application converts the textual data (stored in a database) to graphical form so that users can interpret the data in a more efficient form. Now, this application will be accessed by 3 kinds of persons: 1. Managers (who can fill the database with data and they can also view the visual form of the data after entering the data into the database) 2. Viewers (who can only view the visual form of data that has been filled by managers) 3. Administrators (who can create and manage other administrators, managers and viewers) Now, how to implement 3 diff. views of the same application. Note: Managers, Viewers and Administrators can be located in any part of the world and should access the application through internet. One idea that came in my mind is as follows: Step1: Code all the business logic in EJBs so that it can be used in distributed environment (means which can be accessed by several users through internet) Step2: Code 3 Swing GUI Clients: One for administrators, one for managers and one for viewers. These 3 GUI clients can access business logic written in EJBs. Step3: Distribute the clients corresponding to their users. For instance, manager client to managers. =================================QUESTIONS======================================= Q1. Is the above approach is correct? Q2. This is very common functionality that various softwares have. So, Do they implement this kind of functionality through this way or any other way? Q3. If any other approach would be more better, then what is that approach?

  Read the article

• SQL Structure of DB table with different types of columns

  - by Dmitry Dvornikov

  I have a problem with the optimization of the structure of the database. I'll try to explain it exactly. I create a project, where we can add different values??, but this values must have different types of the columns in the database (eg, int, double , varchar). What is the best way to store the different types of values ??in the database. In the project I'm using Propel 1.6. The point is availability to add value with 'int', 'varchar' and other columns types, to search the table was efficient. In total, I have two ideas. The first is to create a table of "value", which will have columns: "id ", "value_int", "value_double", "value_varchar", etc - with the corresponding column types. Depending on the type of values??, records will be saved with the value in the appropriate column (the rest will be NULL). The second solution is to create separate tables such as "value_int", "value_varchar" etc. There would be columns: "id", "value", which correspond to the relevant types of "value" (ie, such as int, varchar, etc). I must admit that I do not believe any of the above solutions, originally I was thinking about one table "value", where the column would be a "text" type - but this solution would probably be even worse. I would like to know your opinion on this topic, maybe something else would be better. Thanks in advance. EDIT: For example : We have three tables: USER: [table of users] * id * name FIELD: [table of profile fields - where the column 'type' is the type of field, eg int or varchar) * id * type * name VALUE : * id * User_id - ( FK user.id ) * Field_id - ( FK field.id ) * value So we have in each row an user in USER table, and the profile is stored in the VALUE table. Bit each profile field may have a different type (column 'type' in the FIELD table), and based on that I would want this value to add to the appropriate column of the appropriate type.

  Read the article

• Why is this MySQL INSERT INTO running twice?

  - by stuboo

  I'm attempting to use the mysql insert statement below to add information to a database table. When I execute the script, however, the insert statement is run twice. Here's the URL mysite.com/save.php?Body=p220,c180 Thanks in advance. <?php //tipping fees application require('base.inc.php'); require('functions.inc.php'); // connect to the database & save this message there try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$dbhost;dbname=$dbname", $dbuser, $dbpass); //$number = formatPhone($_REQUEST['From']); //if($number != 'xxx-xxx-xxxx'){die('SMS from unknown number');} // kill this if from anyone but mike $message = $_REQUEST['Body']; //$Sid = $_REQUEST['SmsSid']; $now = time(); echo $message; $message = explode(",",$message); echo '<pre>'; print_r($message); echo 'message count = '.count($message); echo '</pre>'; $i = 0; $j = count($message); while($i<$j){ $quantity =$message[$i]; $material = substr($quantity, 0, 1); $amount = substr($quantity, 1); switch ($material) { case 'p': $m = "paper"; break; case 'c': $m = "containers"; break; default: $m = "other"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO tippingtotals(sid,time,material,weight) VALUES('$i+$j','$now','$m','$amount')"); echo $count; echo '<br />'; $i++; } //close the database connection $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } ?>

  Read the article

• Oracle 10.1 and 11.2 produce different XML using the same statement

  - by MindFyer

  I am migrating a database from Oracle 10.1 to 11.2 and I have the following problem. The statement SELECT '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?>' || (Xml).getClobVal() AS XmlClob FROM ( SELECT XmlElement( "Element1", ( SELECT XmlAgg(tpx.Xml) FROM ( SELECT XmlElement("Element3",XmlForest('content' as Element4)) AS Xml FROM dual ) tpx ) AS "Element2" ) AS Xml FROM dual ) On the original 10.1 database produces XML like this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Element1> <Element2> <Element3> <ELEMENT4>content</ELEMENT4> </Element3> </Element2> </Element1> On the new 11.2 system it looks like this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Element1> <Element3> <ELEMENT4>content</ELEMENT4> </Element3> </Element1> Is there some environmental variable I am missing that tells Oracle how to format its XML. There are hundreds of thousands of lines of PL/SQL in the database; it would be a mammoth task to rewrite if it turned out they had changed they way Oracle formats XML between versions. Hopefully someone has come accross this before. Thanks

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Show/Hide Sections in a Datagrid row.

  - by ViperMAN

  Hi All, I have a datagrid where each row has information on Employees in a company. I would like to allow each row the ability to show/hide extra information. My first idea was use the CollapsiblePanelExtender from the AJAX toolkit and have each row like this: <ajaxtoolkit:collapsiblepanelextender TargetControlID="panel2"> ExpandControlID="LinkButton1" CollapseControlID="LinkButton1"> </ajaxtoolkit:collapsiblepanelextender> <asp:panel> FirstName | LastName | Phone | Email <LinkButton1> <- this hides/show extra info in panel2 </asp:panel> <asp:panel2> <textbox ="FirstName"> <textbox ="LastName"> <textbox ="EmailName"> ... ...lots of textboxes where information is assigned from the database. </asp:panel2> This works very well but it can be computationally expensive. The extra information panel has a lot of textboxes/labels, all of which gets its values from the database. Everytime the page loads all the data is got from the database at the start, some of it is hidden. Is there a better way to achieve my goal? Or is there a way to only load an employees extra details when the Show/Hide button is click? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Input questions mysql php html

  - by Marcelo

  (Q1)Hi I'm using textbox in my project and I can't receive the values that are typed <textarea rows="5" cols="60"> Type your suggestion </textarea> <br> <input type="submit" name="sugestao" value="Submit" /> Sorry I don't know how to 'kill' html code, that's why < is missing. All I'm getting in the column of the database from this text box is "Submit", I'd like to receive whatever is written in the text area. How can I make the value equal whaterever is typed? (Q2) How can I make sure that I'll only store the same type(int,varchar,text) that I setted,declared in the database. For example: age(int), but if someone types "abc" in the input it will be stored in my database as the value 0 . How can I forbid this, and only save the age when it's just int and all the other fields(like name, email) are filled ?. And if is still possible warn the user that he is typing something wrong, don't need to say where. Sorry for any mistake in English and Thanks for the attention.

  Read the article

• C# & SQL Server Authentication

  - by Peter

  Hello, I'm currently developing a C# app with an SQL Server DB back-end. I'm approaching the point of deployment and hitting a problem. The applicaiton will be deployed within an active directory network. As far as SQL authentication goes, I understand that I have 2 options - Windows Authenticaiton or Server Authenticaiton. If I use Server Authentication, I'm concerned that the username and password for the account will be stored in plain text in the app.config file, and therefore leave the database vulnerable. Using Windows Authenticaiton will avoid this issue, however it would mean giving every member of staff within our organisation read/write access to the database in order to run the app correctly. Whilst this is ok, it also means that they can easily connect to the database themselves via other means and directly alter the data outside of the app. I'm guessing there is someting really obvious I'm missing here, but I've been googling all evening to no avail. Any advice/guidance would be much appreciated! Peter Addition - my project is Windows Form based not ASP.NET - is encrypting the app.config file still the right answer? If it is, does anyone have any examples that are not ASP.NET based?

  Read the article

• Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

  - by sevennineteen

  This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

  Read the article

• Accettend letter and other graphic simbols PHP->JS

  - by Kreker

  I have to read a txt via file php. This file contains some normal so may contains this kind of symbols : € é ò à ° % etc I read the content in php with file_get_contents and transform these for inserenting in SQL database. $contFile = file_get_contents($pathFile); $testoCommento = htmlspecialchars($contFile,ENT_QUOTES); $testoCommento = addslashes($testoCommento); Now if I have this text for example : "l'attesa ?é cruciale fino a quando il topo non viene morso dall'?€" in the database I have this: l&#039;attesa è cruciale fino a quando il topo non veniene morso dall&#039;€ When I was GETTING the data from the database I use the php function for decode html entites $descrizione = htmlspecialchars_decode($risultato['descrizione'],ENT_QUOTES); $descrizione = addslashes($descrizione); Now I use jasvascript and AJAX for getting the table content and display to an HTML page In the browser instead of getting the correct text (€,è) I have square symbol. I think there is some mess with charset code/decode but never figured out. The SQL' table is in "utf8_unicode_ci" format and the column in "utf8_general_ci". The content-type of the page is <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Thanks for help me!

  Read the article

• Access DB Transaction on insert or updating

  - by Raju Gujarati

  I am going to implement the database access layer of the Window application using C#. The database (.accdb) is located to the project files. When it comes to two notebooks (clients) connecting to one access database through switches, it throws DBConcurrency Exception Error. My target is to check the timestamp of the sql executed first and then run the sql . Would you please provide me some guidelines to achieve this ? The below is my code protected void btnTransaction_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string custID = txtID.Text; string CompName = txtCompany.Text; string contact = txtContact.Text; string city = txtCity.Text; string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["CustomersDatabase"].ConnectionString; OleDbConnection connection = new OleDbConnection(connString); connection.Open(); OleDbCommand command = new OleDbCommand(); command.Connection = connection; OleDbTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(); command.Transaction = transaction; try { command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO Customers(CustomerID, CompanyName, ContactName, City, Country) VALUES(@CustomerID, @CompanyName, @ContactName, @City, @Country)"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CustomerID", custID); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CompanyName", CompName); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ContactName", contact); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@City", city); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); command.CommandText = "UPDATE Customers SET ContactName = @ContactName2 WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID2"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CustomerID2", custIDUpdate); command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ContactName2", contactUpdate); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); adapter.Fill(table); GridView1.DataSource = table; GridView1.DataBind(); transaction.Commit(); lblMessage.Text = "Transaction successfully completed"; } catch (Exception ex) { transaction.Rollback(); lblMessage.Text = "Transaction is not completed"; } finally { connection.Close(); } }

  Read the article

• Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

  - by PartlyCloudy

  Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Why won't EF4 generate a method to support my Function Import?

  - by Deane

  I have a stored proc in my database which returns an integer. I added a Function Import to my model. This appears in the EDMX file: <Function Name="GetTotalEntityCount" Aggregate="false" BuiltIn="false" NiladicFunction="false" IsComposable="false" ParameterTypeSemantics="AllowImplicitConversion" Schema="dbo" /> However, no method actually gets generated for this. It should be top level, right? using (MyContext context = new MyContext()) { context.MyMethodShouldBeRightHere(); } Nothing appears in Intellisense, I've gone through the designer.cs file and there's nothing in there, and reflected the DLL...nothing. The code generator is just not generating any code to support this stored proc. I added another table to my database and updated the model, and that came in, so the model will update, it's just specifically ignoring this stored proc. I've tried everything I can think of, and consulted every resource I can find, and as near as I can tell, I'm doing everything right. I'm using EF4, database-first. (I'm pretty sure on the version, anyway. This shows up in the generated file: Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 )

  Read the article

• Loading city/state from SQL Server to Google Maps?

  - by knawlejj

  I'm trying to make a small application that takes a city & state and geocodes that address to a lat/long location. Right now I am utilizing Google Map's API, ColdFusion, and SQL Server. Basically the city and state fields are in a database table and I want to take those locations and get marker put on a Google Map showing where they are. This is my code to do the geocoding, and viewing the source of the page shows that it is correctly looping through my query and placing a location ("Omaha, NE") in the address field, but no marker, or map for that matter, is showing up on the page: function codeAddress() { <cfloop query="GetLocations"> var address = document.getElementById(<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>).value; if (geocoder) { geocoder.geocode( {<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>: address}, function(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: results[0].geometry.location, title: <cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput> }); } else { alert("Geocode was not successful for the following reason: " + status); } }); } </cfloop> } And here is the code to initialize the map: var geocoder; var map; function initialize() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(42.4167,-90.4290); var myOptions = { zoom: 5, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, title: "Test" }); map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); } I do have a map working that uses lat/long that was hard coded into the database table, but I want to be able to just use the city/state and convert that to a lat/long. Any suggestions or direction? Storing the lat/long in the database is also possible, but I don't know how to do that within SQL.

  Read the article

• Knowing which annotation is selected and accessing properties of it.

  - by kevin Mendoza

  So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

  Read the article

• What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

  - by MainMa

  Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

  Read the article

• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

  Read the article

• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

  Read the article

• SQL Server: Can you help me with this query?

  - by rlb.usa

  I want to run a diagnostic report on our MS SQL 2008 database server. I am looping through all of the databases, and then for each database, I want to look at each table. But, when I go to look at each table (with tbl_cursor), it always picks up the tables in the database 'master'. I think it's because of my tbl_cursor selection : SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' How do I fix this? Here's the entire code: SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @table_count INT DECLARE @db_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE database_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM sys.databases where name<>N'master' OPEN database_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN PRINT @db_cursor SET @table_count = 0 DECLARE @table_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE tbl_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' OPEN tbl_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN DECLARE @table_cmd NVARCHAR(255) SET @table_cmd = N'IF NOT EXISTS( SELECT TOP(1) * FROM ' + @table_cursor + ') PRINT N'' Table ''''' + @table_cursor + ''''' is empty'' ' --PRINT @table_cmd --debug EXEC sp_executesql @table_cmd SET @table_count = @table_count + 1 FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor END CLOSE tbl_cursor DEALLOCATE tbl_cursor PRINT @db_cursor + N' Total Tables : ' + CAST( @table_count as varchar(2) ) PRINT N'' -- print another blank line SET @table_count = 0 FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor END CLOSE database_cursor DEALLOCATE database_cursor SET NOCOUNT OFF

  Read the article

• How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

  - by Bill_BsB

  I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582  | Next Page >