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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • jQuery to hide and show divs with an indicator

    - by songdogtech
    Using the jQuery below to toggle the hiding and showing of divs of text: how would I add some sort of indicator - like an up and down arrow as a graphic - to the titles when the divs are either open and closed? What's the best way to do that? Two images? A CSS sprite? And most importantly: how would that be integrated into the JS? I've looked at other jQuery that assigns a random number to each div and then determines which are open and which are closed and toggles one of two images. But I'm using php in a WordPress loop to show a posts, and that gives problems with incrementing in the loop, so there must be an easier way that doesn't require changes in the name of the title div. Thanks.... This JS fires the showing and hiding. Each div can be expanded and collapsed independently. $(document).ready(function() { $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> div').hide(); $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> h3').click(function() { $(this).next().slideToggle('fast'); }); }); This is the HTML it works with: <div class="collapser"> <p class="title">Header-1 </p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> <p class="title">Header-2</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum </div> <p class="title">Header-3</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> </div> The CSS is arbitrary: .collapser { margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 500px; } .title { margin: 1px; color: #fff; padding: 3px 10px; cursor: pointer; position: relative; background-color:#c30; } .contents { padding: 5px 10px; background-color:#fafafa; }

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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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  • Template function as a template argument

    - by Kos
    I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

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  • Releasing the keyboard stops shake events. Why?

    - by Moshe
    1) How do I make a UITextField resign the keyboard and hide it? The keyboard is in a dynamically created subview whose superview looks for shake events. Resigning first responder seems to break the shake event handler. 2) how do you make the view holding the keyboard transparent, like see through glass? I have seen this done before. This part has been taken care of thanks guys. As always, code samples are appreciated. I've added my own to help explain the problem. EDIT: Basically, - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event; gets called in my main view controller to handle shaking. When a user taps on the "edit" icon (a pen, in the bottom of the screen - not the traditional UINavigationBar edit button), the main view adds a subview to itself and animates it on to the screen using a custom animation. This subview contains a UINavigationController which holds a UITableView. The UITableView, when a cell is tapped on, loads a subview into itself. This second subview is the culprit. For some reason, a UITextField in this second subview is causing problems. When a user taps on the view, the main view will not respond to shakes unless the UITextField is active (in editing mode?). Additional info: My Motion Event Handler: - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"%@", [event description]); SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"shake" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); [self genRandom:TRUE]; } The genRandom: Method: /* Generate random label and apply it */ -(void)genRandom:(BOOL)deviceWasShaken{ if(deviceWasShaken == TRUE){ decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [shakeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [shakeReplies count])])]; }else{ SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"string" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [pokeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [pokeReplies count])])]; } } shakeReplies and pokeReplies are both NSArrays of strings. One is used for when a certain part of the screen is poked and one is for when the device is shaken. The app will randomly choose a string from the NSArray and display onscreen. For those of you who work graphically, here is a diagram of the view hierarchy: Root View -> UINavigationController -> UITableView -> Edit View -> Problem UITextfield

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  • Running out of memory.. How?

    - by maxdj
    I'm attempting to write a solver for a particular puzzle. It tries to find a solution by trying every possible move one at a time until it finds a solution. The first version tried to solve it depth-first by continually trying moves until it failed, then backtracking, but this turned out to be too slow. I have rewritten it to be breadth-first using a queue structure, but I'm having problems with memory management. Here are the relevant parts: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { ... int solved = 0; do { solved = solver(queue); } while (!solved && !pblListIsEmpty(queue)); ... } int solver(PblList *queue) { state_t *state = (state_t *) pblListPoll(queue); if (is_solution(state->pucks)) { print_solution(state); return 1; } state_t *state_cp; puck new_location; for (int p = 0; p < puck_count; p++) { for (dir i = NORTH; i <= WEST; i++) { if (!rules(state->pucks, p, i)) continue; new_location = in_dir(state->pucks, p, i); if (new_location.x != -1) { state_cp = (state_t *) malloc(sizeof(state_t)); state_cp->move.from = state->pucks[p]; state_cp->move.direction = i; state_cp->prev = state; state_cp->pucks = (puck *) malloc (puck_count * sizeof(puck)); memcpy(state_cp->pucks, state->pucks, puck_count * sizeof(puck)); /*CRASH*/ state_cp->pucks[p] = new_location; pblListPush(queue, state_cp); } } } return 0; } When I run it I get the error: ice(90175) malloc: *** mmap(size=2097152) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Bus error The error happens around iteration 93,000. From what I can tell, the error message is from malloc failing, and the bus error is from the memcpy after it. I have a hard time believing that I'm running out of memory, since each game state is only ~400 bytes. Yet that does seem to be what's happening, seeing as the activity monitor reports that it is using 3.99GB before it crashes. I'm using http://www.mission-base.com/peter/source/ for the queue structure (it's a linked list). Clearly I'm doing something dumb. Any suggestions?

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  • .NET XmlSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp"). The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List<T> then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong? // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; }

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  • What classes should I map against with NHibernate?

    - by apollodude217
    Currently, we use NHibernate to map business objects to database tables. Said business objects enforce business rules: The set accessors will throw an exception on the spot if the contract for that property is violated. Also, the properties enforce relationships with other objects (sometimes bidirectional!). Well, whenever NHibernate loads an object from the database (e.g. when ISession.Get(id) is called), the set accessors of the mapped properties are used to put the data into the object. What's good is that the middle tier of the application enforces business logic. What's bad is that the database does not. Sometimes crap finds its way into the database. If crap is loaded into the application, it bails (throws an exception). Sometimes it clearly should bail because it cannot do anything, but what if it can continue working? E.g., an admin tool that gathers real-time reports runs a high risk of failing unnecessarily instead of allowing an admin to even fix a (potential) problem. I don't have an example on me right now, but in some instances, letting NHibernate use the "front door" properties that also enforce relationships (especially bidi) leads to bugs. What are the best solutions? Currently, I will, on a per-property basis, create a "back door" just for NHibernate: public virtual int Blah {get {return _Blah;} set {/*enforces BR's*/}} protected virtual int _Blah {get {return blah;} set {blah = value;}} private int blah; I showed the above in C# 2 (no default properties) to demonstrate how this gets us basically 3 layers of, or views, to blah!!! While this certainly works, it does not seem ideal as it requires the BL to provide one (public) interface for the app-at-large, and another (protected) interface for the data access layer. There is an additional problem: To my knowledge, NHibernate does not give you a way to distinguish between the name of the property in the BL and the name of the property in the entity model (i.e. the name you use when you query, e.g. via HQL--whenever you give NHibernate the name (string) of a property). This becomes a problem when, at first, the BR's for some property Blah are no problem, so you refer to it in your O/R mapping... but then later, you have to add some BR's that do become a problem, so then you have to change your O/R mapping to use a new _Blah property, which breaks all existing queries using "Blah" (common problem with programming against strings). Has anyone solved these problems?!

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  • Is it possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server?

    - by Mark Bowen
    I was just wondering if it's at all possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server using PHP? Basically I have a site which has RSS feeds which are dynamic in nature and can search from thousands of posts based on many different criteria. I have the RSS feed working fine and bringing back data dynamically for whatever criteria I want so that bits fine. I am using the ExpressionEngine CMS to handle the site and there will be thousands of users on the site (currently there are around 2,0000) but that number is exponentially growing every single day. What I want to be able to do is allow the users to choose from certain criteria which will then build a dynamic RSS URL which will then be stored in a database table (one row for each user). This bit I will be able to do myself but then I want to be able to send out new RSS feed items via e-mail to each user. This is the part I'm a little stuck on. I'm guessing I would somehow need to run a cron job to hit a page which would check each users RSS feed and then if there are new items to send them to the user via e-mail. That's where I am totally stuck though and I'm just wondering what the best way to go about it would be? That or any software in PHP that already does this sort of thing would be great. I tried out phpList but it has severe problems working with RSS and I only ever got it to work once and now never again and I've read that lots of people have had this same problem so unfortunately it's not just me :-( I know there are services such as Feed My Inbox which I could easily set up so that users click a link and their RSS feed URL is added to go and use that service but I want to keep users from seeing the dynamic nature of the feed or they will easily be able to modify it to get at other items in the feed. I need this so that I can charge for access to the feeds but if people can see the URL of the feed then I will be totally unstuck as they will be able to get at whatever they want very easily. Therefore I'd like to be able to send the items out to them. Would really love to hear if anyone knows if this kind of thing is possible at all and what would be involved?

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  • mootools fx working except in ie9

    - by Craig
    This is my first attempt with Mootools, so I welcome a critique of the code. I have a dynamic list of images that expand on the 'click" event and contract on the 'mouseout' event. The code works fine in all browsers (FF, Safari, Chrome, even the smartphones) but not in IE9 (JS is enabled) Anyone with similar problem or solution? I plan to use a lightbox effect, downloading a larger & clearer image to the center of the page, instead of just resizing a small image. However, I am hesitant to attempt this, if there is problems with IE9. I have coded three image sizes with the upload commit, so the larger image is available for the lightbox, but, I don't see anything in mootools for a lightbox, or am I missing it? $i = 0; while($i < count($validate)) { <div class="validate"> <div class="validate_image_<?php echo $validate[$i]['validate_type']; ?>"> <div class="validate_image" id="validate_image_wrapper_<?php echo $i; ?>"> <?php if ($validate[$i]['validate_image_filename'] != '') { if (file_exists(UPLOAD_DIR . 'validate_image/' . str_replace('.', '_medium.', $validate[$i]['validate_image_filename']))) { echo '<img src="' . UPLOAD_URL . 'validate_image/' . str_replace('.', '_medium.', $validate[$i]['validate_image_filename']) . '" alt="Listing Image" />'; } else { echo '<img src="' . UPLOAD_URL . 'validate_image/' . str_replace('.', '_large.', $validate[$i]['validate_image_filename']) . '" alt="Listing image" />'; } } else { ?> <img src="/images/no_image_posted_validate.png" alt="no image posted" /> <?php } ?> </div> ... remainder of HTML display code function setupEnlargeImage() { window.myFx = new Fx({ duration: 200, transition: Fx.Transitions.Sine.easeOut }); $$('.validate_image').addEvent('click', function() { window.selectedImage = this.id; myFx.start(1,2.0); }); $$('.validate_image').addEvent('mouseout', function() { window.selectedImage = this.id; myFx.start(1.0,1); }); myFx.set = function(value) { var style = "scale(" + (value) + ")"; $(window.selectedImage).setStyles({ "-webkit-transform": style, "-moz-transform": style, "-o-transform": style, "-ms-transform": style, transform: style }); } }

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  • ASP.Net MVC Ajax form with jQuery validation

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have an MVC view with a form built with the Ajax.BeginForm() helper method, and I'm trying to validate user input with the jQuery Validation plugin. I get the plugin to highlight the inputs with invalid input data, but despite the invalid input the form is posted to the server. How do I stop this, and make sure that the data is only posted when the form validates? My code The form: <fieldset> <legend>leave a message</legend> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Post", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "GBPostList", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertBefore, OnSuccess = "getGbPostSuccess", OnFailure = "showFaliure" })) { %> <div class="column" style="width: 230px;"> <p> <label for="Post.Header"> Rubrik</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Post.Header", null, new { @style = "width: 200px;", @class="text required" }) %></p> <p> <label for="Post.Post"> Meddelande</label> <%= Html.TextArea("Post.Post", new { @style = "width: 230px; height: 120px;" }) %></p> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="OK!" /></p> </fieldset> The JavaScript validation: $(document).ready(function() { // for highlight var elements = $("input[type!='submit'], textarea, select"); elements.focus(function() { $(this).parents('p').addClass('highlight'); }); elements.blur(function() { $(this).parents('p').removeClass('highlight'); }); // for validation $("form").validate(); }); EDIT: As I was getting downvotes for publishing follow-up problems and their solutions in answers, here is also the working validate method... function ajaxValidate() { return $('form').validate({ rules: { "Post.Header": { required: true }, "Post.Post": { required: true, minlength: 3 } }, messages: { "Post.Header": "Please enter a header", "Post.Post": { required: "Please enter a message", minlength: "Your message must be 3 characters long" } } }).form(); }

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • Function returning MYSQL_ROW

    - by Gabe
    I'm working on a system using lots of MySQL queries and I'm running into some memory problems I'm pretty sure have to do with me not handling pointers right... Basically, I've got something like this: MYSQL_ROW function1() { string query="SELECT * FROM table limit 1;"; MYSQL_ROW return_row; mysql_init(&connection); // "connection" is a global variable if (mysql_real_connect(&connection,HOST,USER,PASS,DB,0,NULL,0)){ if (mysql_query(&connection,query.c_str())) cout << "Error: " << mysql_error(&connection); else{ resp = mysql_store_result(&connection); //"resp" is also global if (resp) return_row = mysql_fetch_row(resp); mysql_free_result(resp); } mysql_close(&connection); }else{ cout << "connection failed\n"; if (mysql_errno(&connection)) cout << "Error: " << mysql_errno(&connection) << " " << mysql_error(&connection); } return return_row; } And function2(): MYSQL_ROW function2(MYSQL_ROW row) { string query = "select * from table2 where code = '" + string(row[2]) + "'"; MYSQL_ROW retorno; mysql_init(&connection); if (mysql_real_connect(&connection,HOST,USER,PASS,DB,0,NULL,0)){ if (mysql_query(&connection,query.c_str())) cout << "Error: " << mysql_error(&conexao); else{ // My "debugging" shows me at this point `row[2]` is already fubar resp = mysql_store_result(&connection); if (resp) return_row = mysql_fetch_row(resp); mysql_free_result(resp); } mysql_close(&connection); }else{ cout << "connection failed\n"; if (mysql_errno(&connection)) cout << "Error : " << mysql_errno(&connection) << " " << mysql_error(&connection); } return return_row; } And main() is an infinite loop basically like this: int main( int argc, char* args[] ){ MYSQL_ROW row = NULL; while (1) { row = function1(); if(row != NULL) function2(row); } } (variable and function names have been generalized to protect the innocent) But after the 3rd or 4th call to function2, that only uses row for reading, row starts losing its value coming to a segfault error... Anyone's got any ideas why? I'm not sure the amount of global variables in this code is any good, but I didn't design it and only got until tomorrow to fix and finish it, so workarounds are welcome! Thanks!

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  • Why is this simple Mobile Form not closed when using the player

    - by ajhvdb
    Hi, I created this simple sample Form with the close button. Everything is working as expected when NOT using the Interop.WMPLib.dll I've seen other applications using this without problems but why isn't the Form process closed when I just add the line: SoundPlayer myPlayer = new SoundPlayer(); and of course dispose it: if (myPlayer != null) { myPlayer.Dispose(); myPlayer = null; } The Form closes but the debugger VS2008 is still active. The Form project and the dll are still active. If you send me an email to [email protected], I can send you the zipped project. Below is the class for the dll: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Threading; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using WMPLib; namespace WindowsMobile.Utilities { public delegate void SoundPlayerStateChanged(SoundPlayer sender, SoundPlayerState newState); public enum SoundPlayerState { Stopped, Playing, Paused, } public class SoundPlayer : IDisposable { [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutSetVolume(int hwo, uint dwVolume); [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutGetVolume(int hwo, out uint dwVolume); WindowsMediaPlayer myPlayer = new WindowsMediaPlayer(); public SoundPlayer() { myPlayer.uiMode = "invisible"; myPlayer.settings.volume = 100; } string mySoundLocation = string.Empty; public string SoundLocation { get { return mySoundLocation; } set { mySoundLocation = value; } } public void Pause() { myPlayer.controls.pause(); } public void PlayLooping() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.settings.setMode("loop", true); } public int Volume { get { return myPlayer.settings.volume; } set { myPlayer.settings.volume = value; } } public void Play() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.controls.play(); } public void Stop() { myPlayer.controls.stop(); myPlayer.close(); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { try { Stop(); } catch (Exception) { } // need this otherwise the process won't exit?! try { int ret = Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(myPlayer); } catch (Exception) { } myPlayer = null; GC.Collect(); } #endregion } }

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  • How do I solve "405 Method Not Allowed" for our subversion setup?

    - by macke
    We're serving our source code using VisualSVN running on Windows Server 2003. Recently, we split a portion of a project into a new project in it's own repository, and then linked it back to the original project using svn:externals. Since then, we've been having issues when we try to commit files with Subclipse. The error we're getting is: svn: Commit failed (details follow): svn: PROPFIND of '/svn': 405 Method Not Allowed (https://svn.ourserver.com) Googling for a while didn't really help, our config seems to be correct. It should also be noted that we've been running this server for a while no without these problems and apart from splitting the project into two repositories, no changes have been made to the server (ie, config files are the same). It should also be noted that these errors only appear when we try to check in multiple files at once. If we check in one file at a time there are no errors. Also, it only appears in Subclipse as far as we know right now, Versions.app (OS X) seems to work fine so that is our current workaround. So, the questions is how do I analyze the error to find the cause and subsequently fix it? I'm by no means a svn guru and right now I'm clueless. EDIT: It seems we can check in multiple files in the same package, but not files from multiple packages. Also, when I "split" the project into two repositories, I imported the original repository with a new name. I did not do a dump and then import that dump. Could that be the source of our issues, and if so, how would I solve that? EDIT: After some jerking around it seems as though it is indeed related to when checking in files in different repositories. If I try to do a single commit in both Repo A and Repo B (referenced by svn:externals) at the same time, I get the error. Versions.app handles this correctly, but I guess it might just be doing two commits, not a single one. Subclipse fails miserably. For now, we simply do multiple commits, one for Repo A and one for Repo B, that works just fine. If anyone smarter than me could fill in the details why this is happening, whether or not this kind of setup is stupid etc, please go right ahead.

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  • Android: onListItemClick not getting called in ListActivity

    - by user521469
    I'm having problems with my first Android app. I have subclassed ListActivity, and I'm having no luck getting the overridden onListItemClick() to respond to click events. I've read focus can be a problem, but changing focus in the XML files does not seem to work. Here's the relevant bits of code. Anyone see what's I've buggered up? public class Notepadv1 extends ListActivity { private int mNoteNumber = 1; private NotesDbAdapter mDbHelper; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.notepad_list); mDbHelper = new NotesDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); fillData(); } private void fillData() { // Get all of the notes from the database and create the item list Cursor c = mDbHelper.fetchAllNotes(); startManagingCursor(c); String[] from = new String[] { NotesDbAdapter.KEY_TITLE }; int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; SimpleCursorAdapter notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.notes_row, c, from, to); setListAdapter(notes); } @Override public void onListItemClick (ListView l, View v, int position, long id){ super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); AlertDialog alert = new AlertDialog.Builder(this).create(); String message = "row clicked!"; alert.setMessage(message); alert.show(); } notepad_list.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <ListView android:id="@android:id/list" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:dividerHeight="6dp"/> <TextView android:id="@android:id/empty" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/no_notes" /> </LinearLayout> And notes_row.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TextView android:id="@+id/text1" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="60dp" android:focusable="false"/>

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  • Rewriting Live TCP/IP (Layer 4) (i.e. Socket Layer) Streams

    - by user213060
    I have a simple problem which I'm sure someone here has done before... I want to rewrite Layer 4 TCP/IP streams (Not lower layer individual packets or frames.) Ettercap's etterfilter command lets you perform simple live replacements of Layer 4 TCP/IP streams based on fixed strings or regexes. Example ettercap scripting code: if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "gzip")) { replace("gzip", " "); msg("whited out gzip\n"); } } if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "deflate")) { replace("deflate", " "); msg("whited out deflate\n"); } } http://ettercap.sourceforge.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=2833 I would like to rewrite streams based on my own filter program instead of just simple string replacements. Anyone have an idea of how to do this? Is there anything other than Ettercap that can do live replacement like this, maybe as a plugin to a VPN software or something? I would like to have a configuration similar to ettercap's silent bridged sniffing configuration between two Ethernet interfaces. This way I can silently filter traffic coming from either direction with no NATing problems. Note that my filter is an application that acts as a pipe filter, similar to the design of unix command-line filters: >[eth0] <----------> [my filter] <----------> [eth1]< What I am already aware of, but are not suitable: Tun/Tap - Works at the lower packet layer, I need to work with the higher layer streams. Ettercap - I can't find any way to do replacements other than the restricted capabilities in the example above. Hooking into some VPN software? - I just can't figure out which or exactly how. libnetfilter_queue - Works with lower layer packets, not TCP/IP streams. Again, the rewriting should occur at the transport layer (Layer 4) as it does in this example, instead of a lower layer packet-based approach. Exact code will help immensely! Thanks!

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  • Primary language - C++/Qt, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Google Maps rendering locally but not in live environment

    - by marcusstarnes
    I have a page that renders a simple google map for a specified location. This map renders without any problems at all when I run it locally on localhost, however, when I deploy this code to our live web servers (using our LIVE google API key for the appropriate domain) it fails to render, and upon putting a series of alerts within the javascript on the page, it appears that the 'Initialize' method (which should be called within body onLoad) is not being called. When I view the HTML source that is rendered on the live server it appears exactly as per the local version of the site (including the call to initialize() within the body onLoad event), albeit with the different maps API key. I have output the host (alert(window.location.host);) to ensure that the key I generated via the google maps api site, corresponds exactly to the live server, which it does. Does anyone have any ideas why it would be working locally but not when deployed to the live servers? The live site is hosted on 2 load-balanced web servers. This is the javascript that is rendered: <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;sensor=false&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-BU8POZj19wRlTaKIXVM9xTz76xxk4yAELG9u79oXrhnLTB5NRRvAZ-bkKn1x8J68nfRTVOIWNPJEA" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var geocoder; alert(window.location.host); function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("businessMap")); map.setUIToDefault(); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); showAddress('St Margarets Street SW1P 3 London'); } } function showAddress(address) { geocoder.getLatLng( address, function(point) { if (!point) { // Address could not be located. jQuery('#googleMap').hide(); } else { map.setCenter(point, 13); var marker = new GMarker(point); map.addOverlay(marker); var html = 'Address info for the marker'; marker.openInfoWindow(html); GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function() { marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); }); } } ); } </script> Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

    - by Larry
    I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

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  • c++ templates: problem with member specialization

    - by ChAoS
    I am attempting to create a template "AutoClass" that create an arbitrary class with an arbitrary set of members, such as: AutoClass<int,int,double,double> a; a.set(1,1); a.set(0,2); a.set(3,99.7); std::cout << "Hello world! " << a.get(0) << " " << a.get(1) << " " << a.get(3) << std::endl; By now I have an AutoClass with a working "set" member: class nothing {}; template < typename T1 = nothing, typename T2 = nothing, typename T3 = nothing, typename T4 = nothing, typename T5 = nothing, typename T6 = nothing> class AutoClass; template <> class AutoClass<nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing> { public: template <typename U> void set(int n,U v){} }; template < typename T1, typename T2, typename T3, typename T4, typename T5, typename T6> class AutoClass: AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6> { public: T1 V; template <typename U> void set(int n,U v) { if (n <= 0) V = v; else AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::set(n-1,v); } }; and I started to have problems implementing the corresponding "get". This approach doesn't compile: template < typename T1, typename T2, typename T3, typename T4, typename T5, typename T6> class AutoClass: AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6> { public: T1 V; template <typename U> void set(int n,U v) { if (n <= 0) V = v; else AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::set(n-1,v); } template <typename W> W get(int n) { if (n <= 0) return V; else return AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::get(n-1); } template <> T1 get(int n) { if (n <= 0) return V; else return AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::get(n-1); } }; Besides, it seems I need to implement get for the <nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing> specialization. Any Idea on how to solve this?

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  • waiting for 2 different events in a single thread

    - by João Portela
    component A (in C++) - is blocked waiting for alarm signals (not relevant) and IO signals (1 udp socket). has one handler for each of these. component B (java) - has to receive the same information the component A udp socket receives. periodicaly gives instructions that should be sent through component A udp socket. How to join both components? it is strongly desirable that: the changes to attach component B to component A are minimal (its not my code and it is not very pleasent to mess with). the time taken by the new operations (usually communicating with component B) interfere very little with the usual processing time of component A - this means that if the operations are going to take a "some" time I would rather use a thread or something to do them. note: since component A receives udp packets more frequently that it has component B instructions to forward, if necessary, it can only forward the instructions (when available) from the IO handler. my initial ideia was to develop a component C (in C++) that would sit inside the component A code (is this called an adapter?) that when instanciated starts the java process and makes the necessary connections (that not so little overhead in the initialization is not a problem). It would have 2 stacks, one for the data to give component B (lets call it Bstack) and for the data to give component A (lets call it Astack). It would sit on its thread (lets call it new-thread) waiting for data to be available in Bstack to send it over udp, and listen on the udp socket to put data on the Astack. This means that the changes to component A are only: when it receives a new UDP packet put it on the Bstack, and if there is something on the Astack sent it over its UDP socket (I decided for this because this socket would only be used in the main thread). One of the problems is that I don't know how to wait for both of these events at the same time using only one thread. so my questions are: Do I really need to use the main thread to send the data over component A socket or can I do it from the new-thread? (I think the answer is no, but I'm not sure about race conditions on sockets) how to I wait for both events? boost::condition_variable or something similar seems the solution in the case of the stack and boost::asio::io_service io_service.run() seems like the thing to use for the socket. Is there any other alternative solution for this problem that I'm not aware of? Thanks for reading this long text but I really wanted you to understand the problem.

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