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  • rewritten mysql query returning unexpected results, trying to figure out why

    - by dq
    I created a messy query in a hurry a while ago to get a list of product codes. I am now trying to clean up my tables and my code. I recently tried to rewrite the query in order for it to be easier to use and understand. The original query works great, but it requires multiple search strings in order to do one search because it uses UNIONS, and it has a few other issues. My newly modified query is easier to understand, and only requires one search string, but is returning different results. Basically the new query is leaving records out, and I would like to understand why, and how to fix it. Here are the two queries (search strings are all null): Original Query: $query = 'SELECT product_code FROM bus_warehouse_lots WHERE status=\'2\''.$search_string_1 .' UNION SELECT product_code FROM bus_po WHERE status=\'0\''.$search_string_2 .' UNION SELECT bus_warehouse_entries.new_product_code AS product_code FROM (bus_warehouse_entries LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_transfers ON bus_warehouse_entries.picking_ticket_num=bus_warehouse_transfers.pt_number) LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_lots ON bus_warehouse_entries.ebooks_lot_id=bus_warehouse_lots.id WHERE bus_warehouse_entries.type=\'6\' AND bus_warehouse_transfers.status=\'0\''.$search_string_3 .' UNION SELECT bus_contracts.main_product AS product_code FROM bus_contracts LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_lots ON bus_contracts.main_product=bus_warehouse_lots.product_code WHERE bus_contracts.status=\'0\''.$search_string_4 .' UNION SELECT prod_id AS product_code FROM bus_products WHERE last_usage > \''.date('Y-m-d', strtotime('-12 months')).'\''.$search_string_5 .' ORDER BY product_code'; New Query: $query = 'SELECT bus_products.prod_id FROM bus_products' .' LEFT JOIN (bus_warehouse_lots, bus_po, bus_warehouse_entries, bus_contracts) ON (' .'bus_products.prod_id = bus_warehouse_lots.product_code' .' AND bus_products.prod_id = bus_po.product_code' .' AND bus_products.prod_id = bus_warehouse_entries.new_product_code' .' AND bus_products.prod_id = bus_contracts.main_product)' .' LEFT JOIN bus_warehouse_transfers ON' .' bus_warehouse_entries.picking_ticket_num = bus_warehouse_transfers.pt_number' .' WHERE (bus_products.last_usage > \''.date('Y-m-d', strtotime('-12 months')).'\'' .' OR bus_warehouse_lots.status = \'2\'' .' OR bus_po.status = \'0\'' .' OR (bus_warehouse_entries.type = \'6\' AND bus_warehouse_transfers.status = \'0\')' .' OR bus_contracts.status = \'0\')' .$search_string_6 .' GROUP BY bus_products.prod_id' .' ORDER BY bus_products.prod_id';

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  • Openlayers - LayerRedraw() / Feature rotation

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR: I have an Openlayers map with a layer called 'track' I want to remove track and add track back in. I have an image 'imageFeature' on a layer that rotates on load to the direction being set. I want it to update this rotation that is set in 'styleMap' on a layer called 'tracking'. I set the var 'stylemap' to apply the external image & rotation. The 'imageFeature' is added to the layer at the coords specified. 'imageFeature' is removed. 'imageFeature' is added again in its new location. Rotation is not applied.. As the 'styleMap' applies to the layer I think that I have to remove the layer and add it again rather than just the 'imageFeature' Layer: var tracking = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Tracking", "coordinates.json", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); styleMap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ fillOpacity: 1, pointRadius: 10, rotation: heading, }); Now wrapped in a timed function the imageFeature: map.layers[3].addFeatures(new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(longitude, latitude), {rotation: heading, type: parseInt(Math.random() * 3)} )); Type refers to a lookup of 1 of 3 images.: styleMap.addUniqueValueRules("default", "type", lookup); var lookup = { 0: {externalGraphic: "Image1.png", rotation: heading}, 1: {externalGraphic: "Image2.png", rotation: heading}, 2: {externalGraphic: "Image3.png", rotation: heading} } I have tried the 'redraw()' function: but it returns "tracking is undefined" or "map.layers[2]" is undefined. tracking.redraw(true); map.layers[2].redraw(true); Heading is a variable: from a JSON feed. var heading = 13.542; But so far can't get anything to work it will only rotate the image onload. The image will move in coordinates as it should though. So what am I doing wrong with the redraw function or how can I get this image to rotate live? Thanks in advance -Ozaki Add: I managed to get map.layers[2].redraw(true); to sucessfully redraw layer 2. But it still does not update the rotation. I am thinking because the stylemap is updating. But it runs through the style map every n sec, but no updates to rotation and the variable for heading is updating correctly if i put a watch on it in firebug.

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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  • Summarising (permanently) data in a SQL table

    - by Cylindric
    Geetings, Stackers. I have a huge number of data-points in a SQL table, and I want to summarise them in a way reminiscent of RRD. Assuming a table such as ID | ENTITY_ID | SCORE_DATE | SCORE | SOME_OTHER_DATA ----+-----------+------------+-------+----------------- 1 | A00000001 | 01/01/2010 | 100 | some data 2 | A00000002 | 01/01/2010 | 105 | more data 3 | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 104 | various text ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... ... | A00009999 | 01/01/2010 | 101 | ... | A00000001 | 02/01/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000002 | 02/01/2010 | 119 | ... | A00000003 | 02/01/2010 | 119 | ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... | A00009999 | 02/01/2010 | 101 | arbitrary data ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... ... | A00000001 | 01/02/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000002 | 01/02/2010 | 119 | ... | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 119 | I want to end up with one record per entity, per month: ID | ENTITY_ID | SCORE_DATE | SCORE | ----+-----------+------------+-------+ ... | A00000001 | 01/01/2010 | 100 | ... | A00000002 | 01/01/2010 | 105 | ... | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000001 | 01/02/2010 | 100 | ... | A00000002 | 01/02/2010 | 105 | ... | A00000003 | 01/02/2010 | 104 | (I Don't care about the SOME_OTHER_DATA - I'll pick something - either the first or last record probably.) What's an easy way of doing this on a regular basis, so that anything in the last calendar month is summarised in this way? At the moment my plan is kind of: For each EntityID For each month Find average score for all records in given month Update first record with results of previous step Delete all records that aren't the first I can't think of a neat way of doing it though, that doesn't involve lots of updates and iteration. This can either be done in a SQL Stored Procedure, or it can be incorporated into the .Net app that's generating this data, so the solution doesn't really need to be "one big SQL script", but can be :) (SQL-2005)

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  • linq to sql with nservicebus table lock issue

    - by IGoor
    I am building a system using NServiceBus and my DataLayer is using Linq 2 SQL. The system is made up of 2 services. Service1 receives messages from NSB. It will query Table1 in my database and inserts a record into Table1 If a certain condition is met a new NSB message is sent to the 2nd service Service2 will update records also in Table1 when it receives messages from Service1 and it does some other non database related work. Service2 is a long running process. The problem I am having is the moment Service2 updates a record in Table1, the table is locked. The lock seems to be in place until Service2 has completed all it is processing. i.e. The lock is not released after my datacontext is disposed. This causes the query in Service1 to timeout. Once Service2 completes processing, Service1 resumes processing again without problem. So for example Service1 code may look like: int x =0; using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { x = (from dp in db.Table1 select dp).Count(); // this line will timeout while service2 is processing Table1 t = new Table1(); t.Data = "test"; db.Table1.InsertOnSubmit(t); db.SubmitChanges(); } if(x % 50 == 0) CallService2(); The code in service2 may look like: using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { Table1 t = db.Table1.Where(t => t.id == myId); t.Data = "updated"; db.SubmitChanges(); } // I would have expected the lock to have been released at this point, but this is not the case. DoSomeLongRunningTasks(); // lock will be released once service2 exits I don't understand why the lock is not released when the datacontext is disposed in Service2. To get around the problem I have been calling: db.ExecuteCommand("SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED"); and this works, but I am not happy using it. I want to solve this problem properly. Has any one experienced this sort of problem before and does any one know how to solve it? Why is the lock not released after the datacontext has been disposed? Thanks in advance. p.s. sorry for the extremely long post.

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  • Multi-Threading Question Concerning WPF

    - by Andrew
    Hello, I'm a newbie to threading, and I don't really know how to code a particular task. I would like to handle a mouse click event on a window that will kick off a while loop in a seperate thread. This thread, which is distinct from the UI thread, should call a function in the while loop which updates a label on the window being serviced by the UI thread. The while loop should stop running when the left mouse button is no longer being pressed. All the loop does is increment a counter, and then repeatedly call the function which displays the updated value in the window. The code for the window and all of the threading is given below (I keep getting some error about STA threading, but don't know where to put the attribute). Also, I'm hoping to use this solution, if it ever works, in another project that makes asynchronous calls elsewhere to a service via wcf, so I was hoping not to make any application-wide special configurations, since I'm really new to multi-threading and am quite worried about breaking other code in a larger program... Here's what I have: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication2" Name="MyMainWindow" Title="MainWindow" Width="200" Height="150" PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown="MyMainWindow_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown"> <Label Height="28" Name="CounterLbl" /> </Window> And here's the code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Threading; namespace WpfApplication2 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { private int counter = 0; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private delegate void EmptyDelegate(); private void MyMainWindow_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Thread counterThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(MyThread)); counterThread.Start(); } private void MyThread() { while (Mouse.LeftButton == MouseButtonState.Pressed) { counter++; Dispatcher.Invoke(new EmptyDelegate(UpdateLabelContents), null); } } private void UpdateLabelContents() { CounterLbl.Content = counter.ToString(); } } } Anyways, multi-threading is really new to me, and I don't have any experience implementing it, so any thoughts or suggestions are welcome! Thanks, Andrew

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  • Large number of UPDATE queries slowing down page

    - by Bryan Lewis
    I am reading and validating large fixed-width text files (range from 10-50K lines) that are submitted via our ASP.net website (coded in VB.Net). I do an initial scan of the file to check for basic issues (line length, etc). Then I import each row into a MS SQL table. Each DB rows basically consists of a record_ID (Primary, auto-incrementing) and about 50 varchar fields. After the insert is done, I run a validation function on the file that checks each field in each row based on a bunch of criteria (trimmed length, isnumeric, range checks, etc). If it finds an error in any field, it inserts a record into the Errors table, which has an error_ID, the record_ID and an error message. In addition, if the field fails in a particular way, I have to do a "reset" on that field. A reset might consist of blanking the entire field, or simply replacing the value with another value (e.g. replacing the string with a new one that has all illegals chars taken out). I have a 5,000 line test file. The upload, initial check, and import takes about 5-6 seconds. The detailed error check and insert into the Errors table takes about 5-8 seconds (this file has about 1200 errors in it). However, the "resets" part takes about 40-45 seconds for 750 fields that need to be reset. When I comment out the resets function (returning immediately without actually calling the UPDATE stored proc), the process is very fast. With the resets turned on, the pages take 50 seconds to return. My UPDATE stored proc is using some recommended code from http://sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html, whereby it uses CASE instead of dynamic SQL: UPDATE dbo.Records SET dbo.Records.file_ID = CASE @field_name WHEN 'file_ID' THEN @field_value ELSE file_ID END, . . (all 50 varchar field CASE statements here) . WHERE dbo.Records.record_ID = @record_ID Is there any way I can help my performance here. Can I somehow group all of these UPDATE calls into a single transaction? Should I be reworking the UPDATE query somehow? Or is it just sheer quantity of 750+ UPDATEs and things are just slow (it's a quad proc server with 8GB ram). Any suggestions appreciated.

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  • How does the event dispatch thread work?

    - by Roman
    With the help of people on stackoverflow I was able to get the following working code of the simples GUI countdown (it just displays a window counting down seconds). My main problem with this code is the invokeLater stuff. As far as I understand the invokeLater send a task to the event dispatching thread (EDT) and then the EDT execute this task whenever it "can" (whatever it means). Is it right? To my understanding the code works like that: In the main method we use invokeLater to show the window (showGUI method). In other words, the code displaying the window will be executed in the EDT. In the main method we also start the counter and the counter (by construction) is executed in another thread (so it is not in the event dispatching thread). Right? The counter is executed in a separate thread and periodically it calls updateGUI. The updateGUI is supposed to update GUI. And GUI is working in the EDT. So, updateGUI should also be executed in the EDT. It is why the code for the updateGUI is inclosed in the invokeLater. Is it right? What is not clear to me is why we call the counter from the EDT. Anyway it is not executed in the EDT. It starts immediately a new thread and the counter is executed there. So, why we cannot call the counter in the main method after the invokeLater block? import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class CountdownNew { static JLabel label; // Method which defines the appearance of the window. public static void showGUI() { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Simple Countdown"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); label = new JLabel("Some Text"); frame.add(label); frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); } // Define a new thread in which the countdown is counting down. public static Thread counter = new Thread() { public void run() { for (int i=10; i>0; i=i-1) { updateGUI(i,label); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch(InterruptedException e) {}; } } }; // A method which updates GUI (sets a new value of JLabel). private static void updateGUI(final int i, final JLabel label) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater( new Runnable() { public void run() { label.setText("You have " + i + " seconds."); } } ); } public static void main(String[] args) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { showGUI(); counter.start(); } }); } }

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  • How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

    - by Schnapple
    One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

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  • Different behaviour using unidirectional or bidirectional relation

    - by sinuhepop
    I want to persist a mail entity which has some resources (inline or attachment). First I related them as a bidirectional relation: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(mappedBy = "mail", cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) private List<MailResource> resource; private String receiver; private String subject; private String body; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date queued; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date sent; public Mail(String receiver, String subject, String body) { this.receiver = receiver; this.subject = subject; this.body = body; this.queued = new Date(); this.resource = new ArrayList<>(); } public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(this, name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Mail mail; private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } And when I saved them: Mail mail = new Mail("[email protected]", "Hi!", "..."); mail.addResource("image", MailResourceType.INLINE, someBytes); mail.addResource("documentation.pdf", MailResourceType.ATTACHMENT, someOtherBytes); mailRepository.save(mail); Three inserts were executed: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) Then I thought it would be better using only a OneToMany relation. No need to save which Mail is in every MailResource: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "mail_id") private List<MailResource> resource; ... public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } Generated tables are exactly the same (MailResource has a FK to Mail). The problem is the executed SQL: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) Why this two updates? I'm using EclipseLink, will this behaviour be the same using another JPA provider as Hibernate? Which solution is better?

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  • Webservice proxy class generation

    - by kaivalya
    I include the below xsd file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema xmlns="http://www.xxxx.com/schemas/2005/06/messages" attributeFormDefault="unqualified" elementFormDefault="qualified" targetNamespace="http://www.xxxx.com/schemas/2005/06/messages" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:include schemaLocation="xxxxCommonTypes.xsd" /> <xs:element name="HotelDetailRQ"> <xs:annotation> <xs:documentation>Request data to obtain detailed information for the specified hotel product.</xs:documentation> </xs:annotation> <xs:complexType> <xs:complexContent mixed="false"> <xs:extension base="CoreRequest"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="HotelCode"> <xs:annotation> <xs:documentation>Hotel code to obtain detailed inormation.</xs:documentation> </xs:annotation> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="1" /> <xs:maxLength value="10" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> to a wsdl file via; <xsd:schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://axis.frontend.hydra.xxxx.com"> <xsd:import schemaLocation="C:\Users\xxxx\HotelDetailRQ.xsd" namespace="http://www.xxxx.com/schemas/2005/06/messages" /> </xsd:schema> The problem is when I add the wsdl file to visual studio as a web reference, it does not generate the HotelDetailRQ proxy class in reference.cs file. So I am unable to use a generated HotelDetailRQ class. I am not experienced in using xsd files or wsdl files. Can you point me to where I might be making mistake here?

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  • What is causing this SQL 2005 Primary Key Deadlock between two real-time bulk upserts?

    - by skimania
    Here's the scenario: I've got a table called MarketDataCurrent (MDC) that has live updating stock prices. I've got one process called 'LiveFeed' which reads prices streaming from the wire, queues up inserts, and uses a 'bulk upload to temp table then insert/update to MDC table.' (BulkUpsert) I've got another process which then reads this data, computes other data, and then saves the results back into the same table, using a similar BulkUpsert stored proc. Thirdly, there are a multitude of users running a C# Gui polling the MDC table and reading updates from it. Now, during the day when the data is changing rapidly, things run pretty smoothly, but then, after market hours, we've recently started seeing an increasing number of Deadlock exceptions coming out of the database, nowadays we see 10-20 a day. The imporant thing to note here is that these happen when the values are NOT changing. Here's all the relevant info: Table Def: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent]( [MDID] [int] NOT NULL, [LastUpdate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Value] [float] NOT NULL, [Source] [varchar](20) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MarketDataCurrent] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [MDID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] - stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][1] [1]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4049/4690759452_6b94ff7b34.jpg I've got a Sql Profiler Trace Running, catching the deadlocks, and here's what all the graphs look like. stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][2] [2]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4035/4690125231_78d84c9e15_b.jpg Process 258 is called the following 'BulkUpsert' stored proc, repeatedly, while 73 is calling the next one: ALTER proc [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_BulkUpload] @updateTime datetime, @source varchar(10) as begin transaction update c with (rowlock) set LastUpdate = getdate(), Value = t.Value, Source = @source from MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #MDTUP t ON c.MDID = t.mdid where c.lastUpdate < @updateTime and c.mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') and c.value <> t.value insert into MarketDataCurrent with (rowlock) select MDID, getdate(), Value, @source from #MDTUP where mdid not in (select mdid from MarketDataCurrent with (nolock)) and mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') commit And the other one: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_LiveFeedUpload] AS begin transaction -- Update existing mdid UPDATE c WITH (ROWLOCK) SET LastUpdate = t.LastUpdate, Value = t.Value, Source = t.Source FROM MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #TEMPTABLE2 t ON c.MDID = t.mdid; -- Insert new MDID INSERT INTO MarketDataCurrent with (ROWLOCK) SELECT * FROM #TEMPTABLE2 WHERE MDID NOT IN (SELECT MDID FROM MarketDataCurrent with (NOLOCK)) -- Clean up the temp table DELETE #TEMPTABLE2 commit To clarify, those Temp Tables are being created by the C# code on the same connection and are populated using the C# SqlBulkCopy class. To me it looks like it's deadlocking on the PK of the table, so I tried removing that PK and switching to a Unique Constraint instead but that increased the number of deadlocks 10-fold. I'm totally lost as to what to do about this situation and am open to just about any suggestion. HELP!!

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  • Why does my entire page reload in Chrome and Firefox when using asynchronous UpdatePanel postbacks?

    - by Alex
    Being a bit perplexed about this issue by now, I hope some of you gurus can shed some light on my problem... I've developed a AJAX-enhanced website, which has been running fine in IE, Chrome and Firefox for a year or so. I use a Timer-control to check for incoming messages every 30 seconds, and this updates an UpdatePanel showing potential new messages. Now several one of my Firefox users complain about the page refreshing every 30 seconds! I my self cannot reproduce this behaviour, but given the "30 seconds"-description, I cursed my Timer-solution as the culprit. But now, I'm experiencing this error myself, not in Firefox though, but in Google Chrome! (And only on one of my two computers!) Every 30 seconds the page reloads! But I found that it's not only related to the Timer, because all other asynchronous postbacks to the server within UpdatePanels reloads the entire page as well. This error has never been experienced in Internet Explorer (to my knowledge). As I said, this it not only related to the Timer postback, but if it's of interest to anybody the code is like this: <asp:Timer runat="server" ID="MailCheckTimer" Interval="30000" OnTick="MailChecker_Tick"></asp:Timer> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="MailCheckerUpdatePanel" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <div class="newmail_box" runat="server" id="newmail_box"> <!-- Content stripped for this example --> </div> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="MailCheckTimer" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> In other places of the website I call the client side __doPostBack function directly from JavaScript in relation to an UpdatePanel. Normal behaviour for this call is to updated the referenced UpdatePanel with some content, but now in Chrome this refreshes the entire page! (but again not consistently, and never in IE) Even the most fundamental UpdatePanel operations like refreshing the content after a button (inside the panel) is clicked, forces the page to reload completely: <asp:Button ID="btnSearch" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="btnSearch_Click"></asp:Button> And just to torment me further, I only experience this on my public website, and not in my local development environment, making it a tedious affair for me to find the actual cause! :( Any ideas on why this happens? Why so inconsistently? Has it to do with my UpdatePanel-design? Or does some security setting in Firefox/Chrome that prevent some asynchronous UpdatePanel callbacks? Any help or idea is highly appreciated!

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  • Modular GWT design concerns

    - by GlGuru
    Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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  • IPHONE DEVELOPMENT PROFILE EXPIRED - I TRIED EVERYTHING AND YES, I READ THE DOCS

    - by theiphoneguy
    I really combed this site and others. I read and re-read the related links here and the Apple docs. I'm sorry, but either I am obviously missing something right under my nose, or this Apple profile/certificate stuff is a bit convoluted. Here it is: I have a product in the App Store. I have updated it several times and users like it. My development profile recently expired just when I was improving the app for its next release. I can run the app in the simulator. I can compile and put the distribution build on my iPhone just fine. I went to the Apple portal and renewed the development profile. I downloaded it and installed it in Xcode. I see it in the Organize window. I see it on my iPhone. I CANNOT put the debug build on my iPhone to debug or run with Instruments. The message is that either there is not a valid signed profile or it is untrusted. I subsequently tried to download and install the certificate to my Mac's keychain. Still no success. I checked the code signing section of Project settings and also for the target and the root. All appears to indicate that it is using the expected development profile for debug. Yes, I had deleted the old profile from my iPhone, from the Organizer. I cleaned the Xcode cache and all targets. I have done all of this several times and in varying sequences to try to cover every possibility. I am ready to do anything to be able to debug with Instruments in order to check for leaks or high memory usage. Even though the distribution compile runs fine on my iPhone and plays well with other running processes, I will not release anything without a leaks/memory test. Any ideas will be appreciated. If I missed something obvious, please forgive me - it was not due to just posting a question without searching for similar postings. Thanks!

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  • PDF Report generation

    - by IniTech
    EDIT : I completed this project using ABCpdf. For anyone interested, I love this product and their support is A+. Everything I listed as a 'Con' for the HTML - PDF solution was easily doable in ABCpdf. I've been charged with creating a data driven pdf report. After reviewing the plethora of options, I have narrowed it down to 2. I need you all to to help me decide, or offer alternatives I haven't considered. Here are the requirements: 100% Data driven Eventually PDF (a stop in HTML is fine, so long as it is converted) Can be run with multiple sets of data (the layout is always the same, the data is variable) Contains normal analysis-style copy (saved in DB with html markup) Contains tables (data for tables is generated at run-time) Header/Page # on each page Table of Contents .NET (VB or C#) Done quickly Now, because of the fact that the report is going to be generated with multiple sets of data, I don't think a stamped pdf template will work since I won't know how long or how many pages a certain piece of the report could require. So, I think my best options are: Programmatic creation using an iText-like solution. Generate in HTML and convert to PDF using a third-party application (ABCPdf is the tool I have played with so far) Both solutions have their pro's and con's. Programmatic solution: Pros: Flexible Easy page numbering/page header/table of contents Free Cons: Time consuming (to write a layer on top of iText to do what I need and keep maintainable) Since the copy is already stored in the db with html markup, I would have to parse through the data before I place it into the pdf, ensuring I don't have to break the paragraph into chunks so I can apply bold, italic, underline, etc. to specific phrases. This seems like a huge PITA, and I hope I am wrong about that assumption. HTML - PDF Pros: Easy to generate from db (no parsing necessary) Many tools for conversion Uses technology I am already familiar with Built-in "Print Preview" - not a req, but nice Cons: (Edited after project completion. All of my assumptions were incorrect and ABCpdf is awesome) 1. Almost impossible to generate page headers - Not True 2. Very difficult to generate page numbers Not True 3. Nearly impossible to generate table of contents Not True 4. (Cross-browser support isn't a con; Since its internal, I can dictate what browser to use) 5. Conversion tool quirks - may not convert exactly as rendered in browser Not True 6. Overall, I think it would be very hard to format the HTML exactly as I would want it to appear/convert to PDF. Not True That's it - I need the communitys help in deciding which way I should go. I might be wrong about some of my Pro/Con assumptions. If I am, please tell me. All thoughts and suggestions are welcome and appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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  • OpenGL ES functions not accepting values originating outside of it's view

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I've been unable to figure this out on my own. I currently have an Open GLES setup where a view controller both updates a game world (with a dt), fetches the data I need to render, passes it off to an EAGLView through two structures (built of Apple's ES1Renderer), and draws the scene. Whenever a value originates outside of the Open GL view, it can't be used to either translate objects using glTranslatef, or set up the scene using glOrthof. If I assign a new value to something, it will work - even if it is the exact same number. The two structures I have each contain a variety of floating-point numbers and booleans, along with two arrays. I can log the values from within my renderer - they make it there - but I receive errors from OpenGL if I try to do anything with them. No crashes result, but the glOrthof call doesn't work if I don't set the camera values to anything different. Code used to set up scene: [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); //clears the color buffer bit glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); //sets up the scene w/ ortho projection glViewport(0, 0, 320, 480); glLoadIdentity(); glOrthof(320, 0, dynamicData.cam_x2, dynamicData.cam_x1, 1.0, -1.0); glClearColor(1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); /*error checking code here*/ "dynamicData" (which is replaced every frame) is created within my game simulation. From within my controller, I call a method (w/in my simulation) that returns it, and pass the result on to the EAGLView, which passes it on to the renderer. I haven't been able to come up with a better solution for this - suggestions in this regard would be greatly appreciated as well. Also, this function doesn't work as well (values originate in the same place): glTranslatef(dynamicData.ship_x, dynamicData.ship_y, 0.0); Thanks in advance. Additional Definitions: Structure (declared in a separate header): typedef struct { float ship_x, ship_y; float cam_x1, cam_x2; } dynamicRenderData; Render data getter (and builder) (every frame) - (dynamicData)getDynRenderData { //d_rd is an ivar, zeroed on initialization d_rd.ship_x = mainShip.position.x; d_rd.ship_y = mainShip.position.y; d_rd.cam_x1 = d_rd.ship_x - 30.0f; d_rd.cam_x2 = d_rd.cam_x1 + 480.0f; return d_rd; } Zeroed at start. (d_rd.ship_x = 0;, etc…) Setting up the view. Prototype (GLView): - (void)draw: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData Prototype (Renderer): - (void)drawView: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData How it's called w/in the controller: //controller [glview draw: [world getDynRenderData]]; //glview (within draw) [renderer drawView: dynamicData];

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  • Error implementing Dynamic Tab with ListView within each Tab - Tabs don't show up

    - by Jon
    I am trying to create a dyanmic tab application that has tabs on the left for each type of Food (e.g. Pasta, Dairy, etc. including those dynamically defined by user) and for each tab, have a listview connected to a SQLite database that updates. This is in the onCreate method: setContentView(R.layout.foodCabinet_layout); dbHelper = new FoodStorageDBHelper(this); dbHelper.open(); Cursor foodTypes = dbHelper.getAllFoodTypes(); ArrayList<String> typeOfFood = new ArrayList<String>(); typeOfFoods.add(foodTypes.getString(1)); while(foodTypes.moveToNext()){ typeOfFoods.add(foodTypes.getString(1)); } final TabHost tbh = (TabHost)findViewById(R.id.food_tabhost_cabinet); tbh.setup(); for(final String s : typeOfFood){ TabSpec nts = tbh.newTabSpec(s); nts.setIndicator(s.replace('_', ' ')); nts.setContent(new TabHost.TabContentFactory(){ public View createTabContent(String tag) { ListView foodCabinetLV = new ListView(FoodCabinet.this); Cursor mCursor = dbHelper.getAllFoodsWithType(s); // Create an array to specify the fields we want to display in the list (only TITLE) String[] from = new String[]{FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_NAME, FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_YEAR,FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_RANK}; // and an array of the fields we want to bind those fields to (in this case just text1) int[] to = new int[]{R.id.childname,R.id.childyear,R.id.childrank}; // Now create a simple cursor adapter and set it to display SimpleCursorAdapter notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(FoodCabinet.this, R.layout.food_row, mCursor, from, to); foodCabinetLV.setAdapter(notes); startManagingCursor(mCursor); foodCabinetLV.setOnItemClickListener( new AdapterView.OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView arg0, View arg1, int arg2, long arg3) { Intent i = new Intent(); i.setClass(arg0.getContext(), EditFoodDialog.class); i.putExtra(FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_ROWID, Long.toString(arg3)); startActivityForResult(i, LoadFoodOrganizer.ACTIVITY_EDIT); } }); return foodCabinetLV; } }); } For some reason, it doesn't show anything... it's a blank screen. Any help would be very much appreciated. Let me know! Thanks! Jon

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  • Unresolved External Symbol linker error (C++)

    - by Niranjan
    Hi, I am trying to develop abstract design pattern code for one of my project as below.. But, I am not able to compile the code ..giving some compile errors(like "unresolved external symbol "public: virtual void __thiscall Xsecs::draw_lines(double,double)" (?draw_lines@Xsecs@@UAEXNN@Z)" ).. Can any one please help me out in this... #include "stdafx.h" #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include "Xsecs.h" using namespace std; //Product class class Xsecs { public: virtual void draw_lines(double pt1, double pt2); virtual void draw_curves(double pt1, double rad); }; class polyline: public Xsecs { public: virtual void draw_lines(double pt1,double pt2) { cout<<"draw_line in polygon"<<endl; } virtual void draw_curves(double pt1, double rad) { cout<<"Draw_curve in circle"<<endl; } /*void create_polygons() { cout<<"create_polygon_thru_draw_lines"<<endl; }*/ }; class circle: public Xsecs { public: virtual void draw_lines(double pt1,double pt2) { cout<<"draw_line in polygon"<<endl; } virtual void draw_curves(double pt1, double rad) { cout<<"Draw_curve in circle"<<endl; } /*void create_circles() { cout<<"Create circle"<<endl; }*/ }; //Factory class class Factory { public: virtual polyline* create_polyline()=0; virtual circle* create_circle()=0; }; class Factory1: public Factory { public: polyline* create_polyline() { return new polyline(); } circle* create_circle() { return new circle(); } }; class Factory2: public Factory { public: circle* create_circle() { return new circle(); } polyline* create_polyline() { return new polyline(); } }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { Factory1 f1; Factory * fp=&f1; return 0; }

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  • How can I programmatically add triggers to an ASP.NET UpdatePanel?

    - by scottm
    I am trying to write a quote generator. For each product, there are a set of options. I want to dynamically add a drop down list for each option, and then have their SelectedIndexChanged events all wired up to update the quote cost. I am not having any trouble adding the DropDownList controls to my UpdatePanel, but I can't seem to wire up the events. After the page loads, the drop downs are there, with their data, but changing them does not call the SelectedIndexChanged event handler, nor does the QuoteUpdatePanel update. I have something like this: QuotePanel.ASCX <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager" runat="server" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="QuoteUpdatePanel" runat="server" ChildrenAsTriggers="true"> <ContentTemplate> Cost: <asp:Label ID="QuoteCostLabel" runat="server" /> <fieldset id="standard-options"> <legend>Standard Options</legend> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="StandardOptionsUpdatePanel" runat="server" ChildrenAsTriggers="true" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </fieldset> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> The code to add the dropdowns and the event they are to be wire up for: protected void PopluateUpdatePanel(IQuoteProperty standardOptions) foreach (IQuoteProperty standardOp in standardOptions) { QuotePropertyDropDownList<IQuoteProperty> dropDownList = new QuotePropertyDropDownList<IQuoteProperty>(standardOp); dropDownList.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(QuotePropertyDropDown_SelectedIndexChanged); dropDownList.ID = standardOp.GetType().Name + "DropDownList"; ScriptManager.RegisterAsyncPostBackControl(dropDownList); Label propertyLabel = new Label() {Text = standardOp.Title, CssClass = "quote-property-label"}; this.StandardOptionsUpdatePanel.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(propertyLabel); this.StandardOptionsUpdatePanel.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(dropDownList); _standardOptionsListBoxes.Add(dropDownList); AsyncPostBackTrigger trigger = new AsyncPostBackTrigger() { ControlID = dropDownList.UniqueID, EventName = "SelectedIndexChanged" }; this.StandardOptionsUpdatePanel.Triggers.Add(trigger); } } void QuotePropertyDropDown_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { QuoteCostLabel.Text = QuoteCost.ToString(); }

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • How to add new object to an IList mapped as a one-to-many with NHibernate?

    - by Jørn Schou-Rode
    My model contains a class Section which has an ordered list of Statics that are part of this section. Leaving all the other properties out, the implementation of the model looks like this: public class Section { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual IList<Static> Statics { get; private set; } } public class Static { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } } In the database, the relationship is implemented as a one-to-many, where the table Static has a foreign key pointing to Section and an integer column Position to store its index position in the list it is part of. The mapping is done in Fluent NHibernate like this: public SectionMap() { Id(x => x.Id); HasMany(x => x.Statics).Cascade.All().LazyLoad() .AsList(x => x.WithColumn("Position")); } public StaticMap() { Id(x => x.Id); References(x => x.Section); } Now I am able to load existing Statics, and I am also able to update the details of those. However, I cannot seem to find a way to add new Statics to a Section, and have this change persisted to the database. I have tried several combinations of: mySection.Statics.Add(myStatic) session.Update(mySection) session.Save(myStatic) but the closest I have gotten (using the first two statements), is to an SQL exception reading: "Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'Position'". Clearly an INSERT is attempted here, but NHibernate does not seem to automatically append the index position to the SQL statement. What am I doing wrong? Am I missing something in my mappings? Do I need to expose the Position column as a property and assign a value to it myself? EDIT: Apparently everything works as expected, if I remove the NOT NULL constraint on the Static.Position column in the database. I guess NHibernate makes the insert and immediatly after updates the row with a Position value. While this is an anwers to the question, I am not sure if it is the best one. I would prefer the Position column to be not nullable, so I still hope there is some way to make NHibernate provide a value for that column directly in the INSERT statement. Thus, the question is still open. Any other solutions?

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