Search Results

Search found 16182 results on 648 pages for 'event tracing'.

Page 578/648 | < Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >

  • How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

    - by Scott Smith
    I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

    Read the article

  • [jQuery] What would be the best way to perform a basic CRUD using AJAX

    - by rasouza
    I'm having trouble to make a simple CRUD in my site. I have a table of registries <table> <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a **href="<?php echo $this->baseUrl(); ?>/history/delete/id/<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>"** class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> which I would like to perform a simple delete in these rows using AJAX (preferenciably with jQuery). The question is: do I have to create a function in JS and add onmouseclick event in the HTML? is there a more consistent way for doing this, like adding $('.delete').click() directly in the js file? If so, how do I pass the row ID for the ajax function? What I really want is to know how to pass the row ID to $.ajax() jQuery function through a clean! way

    Read the article

  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

    Read the article

  • Mono Text Based Web Browser

    - by powerbox
    Hi guys, is there any public text based web browser implementation for C# or on mono base api that I can use to fill up web forms automatically? I'll be using it to automate some web task that does not require any image authentication. I'm currently using a web browser control available on .Net Framework and waits for the event WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler to fire after a page is successfully loaded and invoke some actions like Submit or simulating a mouse click on some links. It actually does the job but I can't process bulk transactions since I needed to wait for the whole page to be loaded together with the images and other stuff. It is easy to use HttpWebRequest to fill up some forms , provide some data and then submit. But on some occasions I only need to simulate a mouse click to a certain link which I don't know how to do with HttpWebRequest. By the way using HttpWebRequest will still download all the images of a web page that I see pointless since I only need to provide correct data back to the server. I hope someone can pinpoint me the correct way of doing this kind of automation and thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • What legal disclaimer do you use?

    - by Egwor
    I'm working on some code at the moment, but I was wondering what legal disclaimers you have? This is for some work that I'm providing to a friend for free. This isn't open source since there's competitive advantage in the internal workings of the program. I was thinking of something like: Copyright 2008 Egwor.com All rights reserved. Except as contained in this notice, the name(s) of the above copyright holders shall not be used in advertising or otherwise to promote the sale, use or other dealings in this Software without prior written authorization. THE SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED "AS IS", WITHOUT WARRANTY OF ANY KIND, EXPRESS OR IMPLIED, INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO THE WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY, FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE AND NONINFRINGEMENT. IN NO EVENT SHALL THE AUTHORS OR COPYRIGHT HOLDERS BE LIABLE FOR ANY CLAIM, DAMAGES OR OTHER LIABILITY, WHETHER IN AN ACTION OF CONTRACT, TORT OR OTHERWISE, ARISING FROM, OUT OF OR IN CONNECTION WITH THE SOFTWARE OR THE USE OR OTHER DEALINGS IN THE SOFTWARE The above copyright notice and this permission notice shall be included in all copies or substantial portions of the Software. What do you use?

    Read the article

  • javascript not firing when asp.net user control loads

    - by Jawahar
    I am trying to fire a Javascript call when an ASP.net user control to an aspx page. The Web site allows users to add user controls to a page (similar to adding a widget etc to a page like google widgets). But when the control is added the javascript does not fire, only if the page is refreshed will it fire the javascript. IF the next time the website is accessd and the controlis still there the javascript fires too. Do I need to use the RegisterClientScript method to register the call (setAutoTimer()) on the control load or OnPreRender event. In the User control I have this at the start of the ascx file: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { if ($("#alarmList").length) { setAutoTimer(); getData(); } }); function setAutoTimer() { setInterval(getData, 10000); } function getData() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Service.asmx/getListData data: "{'inverterid': '" + "1'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { AjaxSucceeded(msg); }, error: AjaxFailed }); } function AjaxSucceeded(result) { $("#alarmList").empty(); $("#alarmsListTemplate").tmpl(result.d) .appendTo("#alarmList"); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert(result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); } </script>

    Read the article

  • Meteor: how to update DOM via Javascript without a page refresh?

    - by strack
    UPDATE: It looks like this script may be the catalyst I'm looking for. Will test it and answer/close this question if so. I'm sure I'll find the answer to this eventually, but I'm putting it out there now, in case someone else knows it right off... I am using RaphaelJS to manipulate the DOM (adds a bunch of SVG tags to an identified DIV), and I want to re-render those specific DOM parts, if there's an update to the MongoDB collection. As an example: -Let's say that I have a collection called PiePieces. -When the page is first rendered/ called, let's pretend that the number of pieces in the collection is 4. -I programmatically add a pie piece using console: PiePieces.insert({...}) -I want the page to update like it would for a standard handlebars binding situation, but the problem is, the new entry needs to go through the Raphael script, which performs direct DOM manipulation. So, the logic would go something like this: MongoDB collection update event - Client function call to manipulate DOM - DOM modified/ page updated without a refresh. I've tried implementing this by reading values from the DOM itself, and I can get the updated DOM, but the entire page refreshes and/or I have to manually refresh the page, OR the DOM tree isn't completed yet, and so it's blank until I refresh. Can you point me in the right direction, maybe with a small code snippet/example? (if something similar already exists, just tell me where and I'll go digging) Thanks in advance! (I am LOVING Meteor so far...)

    Read the article

  • Javascript: click and dblclick deliver different parentNodes on same html. Why?

    - by user1658206
    currently I work on an very small wysiwyg editor based on jquery. I dont care about IE oder Chrome, just Firefox. My problem is to find if the selection is in a link for to get the value of the href attribute if is set. With click the node of the link is found, with double click always the body. It is in designMode. My event-handler for click and dblclick. The vars current_selection, current_node, iframe and container are global. selection_handler:function() { current_selection = iframe.getSelection(); current_node = current_selection.anchorNode; if(current_node.nodeName == "#text") { current_node = current_node.parentNode; } $('#log').text(current_node.nodeName); }, The log shows mit for example 'body', when I click in unformated text. When I add a link with execCommand('createLink',...) the log shows 'A'. That works. When I mark the linked word with 2 click from start to end, the log shows 'A'. But with double click I always get 'body'. So I can't get the href attribute. The handler is defined in the init: init:function(options) { ... iframe = $('#wysiwyg-'+container.attr('id'))[0].contentWindow; iframe.addEventListener('dblclick',methods.selection_handler,false); iframe.addEventListener('click',methods.selection_handler,false); ... } Has somebody an idea what is wrong?

    Read the article

  • Route URL laravel 4

    - by nabil l.
    How can I do this in Laravel 4 URL::route('auth.reset', array('kh34KHh4K342')) Instead of http://domain.tld/auth/reset?kh34KHh4K342 I want to get this : http://domain.tld/auth/reset/kh34KHh4K342 EDIT This my routes.php : The problem is because I have two routes with the same name? How do you explain that ? Should i set a different name event is the same kind, and different methods // Set locale $locale = Request::segment(1); if(in_array($locale, Config::get('app.languages'))) { \App::setLocale($locale); } else { $locale = null; } Route::group( array( 'prefix' => $locale ), function () { Route::get('/'), array( 'uses' => 'HomeController@getIndex', 'as' => '/' )); // Auth Route::group( array( 'prefix' => 'auth' ), function () { // Login Route::get( 'login', array( 'before' => 'guest', 'uses' => 'UserController@getLogin', 'as' => 'auth.login' ) ); Route::post( 'login', array( 'before' => 'guest|csrf', 'uses' => 'UserController@postLogin', 'as' => 'auth.login' ) ); Route::get( 'reset/{$token}', array( 'uses' => 'UserController@getReset', 'as' => 'auth.reset' ) ); Route::post( 'reset', array( 'uses' => 'UserController@postReset', 'as' => 'auth.reset' ) ); } );

    Read the article

  • Predicate usually used for array/list how about here?

    - by amit kohan
    In following code (Josh Smith's article on MVVM), can somebody give me some insight about return _canExecute == null ? true : _canExecute(parameter); ? it is a normal if/else statement but I'm not getting the last part of it. public class RelayCommand : ICommand { #region Fields readonly Action<object> _execute; readonly Predicate<object> _canExecute; #endregion // Fields #region Constructors public RelayCommand(Action<object> execute) : this(execute, null) { } public RelayCommand(Action<object> execute, Predicate<object> canExecute) { if (execute == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("execute"); _execute = execute; _canExecute = canExecute; } #endregion // Constructors #region ICommand Members [DebuggerStepThrough] public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return _canExecute == null ? true : _canExecute(parameter); } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged { add { CommandManager.RequerySuggested += value; } remove { CommandManager.RequerySuggested -= value; } } public void Execute(object parameter) { _execute(parameter); } #endregion // ICommand Members } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Compile C++ in Visual Studio

    - by Kasun
    Hi All.. I use this method to compile C++ file in VS. But even i provide the correct file it returns false. Can any one help me... This is class called CL class CL { private const string clexe = @"cl.exe"; private const string exe = "Test.exe", file = "test.cpp"; private string args; public CL(String[] args) { this.args = String.Join(" ", args); this.args += (args.Length > 0 ? " " : "") + "/Fe" + exe + " " + file; } public Boolean Compile(String content, ref string errors) { if (File.Exists(exe)) File.Delete(exe); if (File.Exists(file)) File.Delete(file); File.WriteAllText(file, content); Process proc = new Process(); proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; proc.StartInfo.FileName = clexe; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = this.args; proc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; proc.Start(); //errors += proc.StandardError.ReadToEnd(); errors += proc.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd(); proc.WaitForExit(); bool success = File.Exists(exe); return success; } } This is my button click event private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string content = "#include <stdio.h>\nmain(){\nprintf(\"Hello world\");\n}\n"; string errors = ""; CL k = new CL(new string[] { }); if (k.Compile(content, ref errors)) Console.WriteLine("Success!"); else MessageBox.Show("Errors are : ", errors); }

    Read the article

  • ArgumentOutOfRangeException was unhandled by user code - (ASP .net)

    - by ASr..
    I use a GridView to display the records from the database. Also i've attached a Hyperlink to the GridView using TemplateField. When I try to add "onclick" attribute to the HyperLink inside the RowDateBound event, I get the following error.. GridView1.DataKeys[e.Row.RowIndex].Value = 'GridView1.DataKeys[e.Row.RowIndex]' threw an exception of type 'System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException' Message = "Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection.\r\nParameter name: index" This is the coding inside the RowDataBound mentod.. protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { HyperLink HyperLink1 = (HyperLink)e.Row.FindControl("HyperLink1"); //The following line makes the error HyperLink1.Attributes.Add("onclick", "ShowMyModalPopup('" + GridView1.DataKeys[e.Row.RowIndex].Value + "')"); } } This is "ShowMyModalPopup" function in javascript <script type="text/javascript"> function ShowMyModalPopup(userpk) { var modal = $find('ModalPopupExtender1'); modal.show(); WebService.FetchOneUser(userpk,DisplayResult); } </script> Can anyone please explain me why this error occurs.. Many thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • Javascript autocomplete function href

    - by user896692
    I´ve the following javascript-function: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var data = (<?php include("php/search_new.php"); ?>).Data.Recipes; var source = []; for (var i in data) { source.push({"href": "/php/get_recipe_byID.php?id=" + data[i].ID, "label": data[i].TITLE}); } $("#searchrecipes").autocomplete({ minLength: 3, source: source, select: function(event, ui) { window.location.href = ui.item.href; } }); }); </script> <input id="searchrecipes" type="text" name="searchrecipes" style="margin-left: 850px; margin-top: 0px; width:170px; background: #fff url(images/search_icon.png) no-repeat 100%;" onblur="this.style.background='#ffffff'; background: #fff url(images/search_icon.png) no-repeat 100%;" onfocus="this.style.background='#c40606'; background: url(images/search_icon.png) no-repeat 100%;" placeholder="Suchen..."></input> <input type="submit" name="buttonsenden" style="display:none;" value="" width: 5px></input> The function has already worked but suddenly it stopped working. The problem is, that the href on the dropdown-autocomplete isn´t clickable. var data = ({"Data":{"Recipes":{"Recipe_5":{"ID":"5","TITLE":"Spaghetti Bolognese"},"Recipe_7":{"ID":"7","TITLE":"Wurstel"},"Recipe_9":{"ID":"9","TITLE":"Schnitzel"},"Recipe_10":{"ID":"10","TITLE":null},"Recipe_19":{"ID":"19","TITLE":null},"Recipe_20":{"ID":"20","TITLE":"Hundefutter"},"Recipe_26":{"ID":"26","TITLE":"Apfelstrudel"},"Recipe_37":{"ID":"37","TITLE":null},"Recipe_38":{"ID":"38","TITLE":"AENDERUNG"},"Recipe_39":{"ID":"39","TITLE":null},"Recipe_40":{"ID":"40","TITLE":"Schnitzel"},"Recipe_42":{"ID":"42","TITLE":"Release-Test"},"Recipe_43":{"ID":"43","TITLE":"Wurstel2"}}},"Message":null,"Code":200}).Data.Recipes; All the necessary jquery scripts are available. What can be the problem?

    Read the article

  • How to cancel a deeply nested process

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

    Read the article

  • Will this cause a problem with different runtimes with DLL?

    - by Milo
    My gui application supports polymorphic timed events so that means that the user calls new, and the gui calls delete. This can create a problem if the runtimes are incompatible. So I was told a proposed solution would be this: class base; class Deallocator { void operator()(base* ptr) { delete ptr; } } class base { public: base(Deallocator dealloc) { m_deleteFunc = dealloc; } ~base() { m_deleteFunc(this); } private: Deallocator m_deleteFunc; } int main { Deallocator deletefunc; base baseObj(deletefunc); } While this is a good solution, it does demand that the user create a Deallocator object which I do not want. I was however wondering if I provided a Deallocator to each derived class: eg class derived : public base { Deallocator dealloc; public: Derived() : base(dealloc); { } }; I think this still does not work though. The constraint is that: The addTimedEvent() function is part of the Widget class which is also in the dll, but it is instanced by the user. The other constraint is that some classes which derive from Widget call this function with their own timed event classes. Given that "he who called new must call delete" what could work given these constraints? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why represent shopping carts and order invoices differently in a domain model?

    - by Todd
    I've built some shopping cart systems in the past, but I always designed them such that the final order invoice is just a shopping cart that has been marked as "purchased". All the logic for adding/removing/changing items in a cart is also the logic for the order. All data is stored in the same tables in the database. But it seems this is not the proper way to design an e-commerce site.. Can someone explain the benefit of separating the shopping cart from invoices in the domain model? It seems to me this would lead to a lot of duplicated code, an extra set of tables in the database, and make it harder to maintain in the event the system need to start accommodating more complicated orders (like specifying selected options for an item which may or may not change the price/availability/shipping time of the order). I'm assuming I just haven't seen the light, as every book and other example I see seems to separate these two seemingly similar concerns -- but I can't find any explanation as to the benefit of doing such! It's also the case in the systems that I design that changes are often made after the initial order is confirmed. It's not uncommon for items to be removed, replaced, or added afterwards (but prior to fulfillment).

    Read the article

  • Using delegate Types vs methods

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I see increasing use of the delegate types offered in the System namespace (Action; Predicate etc). As these are delegates, my understanding is that they should be used where we have traditionally used delegates in the past (asynchronous calls; starting threads, event handling etc). Is it just preference or is it considered practice to use these delegate types in scenarios such as the below; rather than using calls to methods we have declared (or anonymous methods): public void MyMethod { Action<string> action = delegate(string userName { try { XmlDocument profile = DataHelper.GetProfile(userName); UpdateMember(profile); } catch (Exception exception) { if (_log.IsErrorEnabled) _log.ErrorFormat(exception.Message); throw (exception); } }; GetUsers().ForEach(action); } At first, I found the code less intuitive to follow than using declared or anonymous methods. I am starting to code this way, and wonder what the view are in this regard. The example above is all within a method. Is this delegate overuse.

    Read the article

  • TreeView update bug in the VB.NET

    - by CFP
    Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again. EDIT 2: Posted a bug report at Microsoft Connect

    Read the article

  • Display the value of a select list without a button

    - by Max Zeygelshefer
    How can I get the value to be displayed after the selection from the list is made, without the use of a button. I tried to implement an onChange event for the select list, and doing away with the button, but I can't get it to work. I'd like the value (1,2,3) to display below the select box after an option (a,b,c) is selected. <script> function displayResult() { this.nextSibling.nodeValue = document.getElementById("mySelect").value; } </script> <body> <form> <select id="mySelect" style="width:220px"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3">c</option> </select> </form> <button type="button" onclick="displayResult.call(this)">List Locations</button>

    Read the article

  • Problems with binding to Window Height and Width

    - by D.H.
    I have some problems when I try to bind the height and width of a window to properties in my view model. Here is a small sample app to illustrate the problem. This is the code in app.xaml.xs public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); MainWindow mainWindow = new MainWindow(); MainWindowViewModel mainWindowViewModel = new MainWindowViewModel(); mainWindow.DataContext = mainWindowViewModel; mainWindow.Show(); } } This is MainWindow.xaml: <Window x:Class="TestApp.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="{Binding WindowHeight}" Width="{Binding WindowWidth}" BorderThickness="{Binding WindowBorderThickness}"> </Window> And this is the view model: public class MainWindowViewModel { public int WindowWidth { get { return 100; } } public int WindowHeight { get { return 200; } } public int WindowBorderThickness { get { return 8; } } } When the program is started the getters of WindowHeight and WindowBorderThickness (but not WindowWidth) are called, so the height and the border of the window is set properly, but not the width. I then add button that will trigger PropertyChanged for all properties, so that the view model now looks like this: public class MainWindowViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public void TriggerPropertyChanges() { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("WindowWidth")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("WindowHeight")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("WindowBorderThickness")); } } public ICommand ButtonCommand { get { return new RelayCommand(delegate { TriggerPropertyChanges(); }); } } public int WindowWidth { get { return 100; } } public int WindowHeight { get { return 200; } } public int WindowBorderThickness { get { return 8; } } } Now, when I click the button, the getter of WindowBorderThickness is called, but not the ones for WindowWidth and WindowHeight. It all just seems very weird and inconsistent to me. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Question about array subscripting in C#

    - by Michael J
    Back in the old days of C, one could use array subscripting to address storage in very useful ways. For example, one could declare an array as such. This array represents an EEPROM image with 8 bit words. BYTE eepromImage[1024] = { ... }; And later refer to that array as if it were really multi-dimensional storage BYTE mpuImage[2][512] = eepromImage; I'm sure I have the syntax wrong, but I hope you get the idea. Anyway, this projected a two dimension image of what is really single dimensional storage. The two dimensional projection represents the EEPROM image when loaded into the memory of an MPU with 16 bit words. In C one could reference the storage multi-dimensionaly and change values and the changed values would show up in the real (single dimension) storage almost as if by magic. Is it possible to do this same thing using C#? Our current solution uses multiple arrays and event handlers to keep things synchronized. This kind of works but it is additional complexity that we would like to avoid if there is a better way.

    Read the article

  • Indy client receive string

    - by Eszee
    Im writing an Indy chat app, and am wondering if there is a way for the server component to tell the client that there is a string waiting, or even a way for the client to have an "OnExecute" like event. This is what i have now: server: procedure TServer.ServerExecute(AContext: TIdContext); var sResponse: string; I: Integer; list: Tlist; begin List := Server.Contexts.LockList; sResponse:= AContext.Connection.Socket.ReadLn; try for I := 0 to List.Count-1 do begin try TIdContext(List[I]).Connection.IOHandler.WriteLn(sResponse); except end; end; finally Server.Contexts.UnlockList; end; end; Client: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var sMsg : string; begin Client.Socket.WriteLn(edit1.Text); sMsg := Client.Socket.ReadLn; Memo1.Lines.Add(sMsg); end; The problem is when i have 2 or more clients running the messages keep stacking because the button only processes 1 message a time. I'd like a way for the client to wait for messages and when it is triggered it processes those messages, like it does now under the button procedure. I've tried to put the "readln" part under a timer, but that causes some major problems. Im Using Delphi 2010 and Indy 10

    Read the article

  • Showing multiple models in a single ListView

    - by Veer
    I've three models (Contacts, Notes, Reminders). I want to search all these and produce the filtered result in a single listview and depending upon the selection I've to display the corresponding view(UserControl) to its right. I want the right way of implementing the design or atleast alternatives to this method that I've tried. Now I've tried it using a IntegratedViewModel having all the properties from all the three models. public class IntegratedViewModel { ContactModel _contactModel; NoteModel _noteModel; public IntegratedViewModel(ContactModel contactModel) { _contactModel = contactModel; } // similarly for other models also public string DisplayTitle // For displaying in ListView { get; //same as set set { If(_contactModel != null) return _contactModel.Name; If(_noteModel != null) return _noteModel.Title; } } // All other properties from the three models includin the Name/Title properties for displaying them in the corresponding views(UserControl) } Now I set the itemsSource as the List<IntegratedViewModel>. I've to now bind the visibility of the views to some properties in the MainViewModel. I tried setting bool properties like IsContactViewSelected, IsNoteViewSelected using the setter of SelectedEntity property which is bound to the ListView's SelectedItem. public SelectedEntity { //get set { oldvalue = _selectedEntity; _selectedEntity = value; // now i find the Type of model selected using oldvalue.ModelType // where ModelType is a property in the IntegratedViewModel // according to the type, i set one of the above bool properties to false // and do the same for _selectedEntity but set the property to true // so that the view corresponding to the selectedEntityType is visible // and others are collapsed } } Here is the problem: For eg: let us say, I selected an item of type ContactModel, the old selection being NoteModel. I set the property IsNoteModelSelected to false according to the oldvalue, it sets the property and then Raises the propertychanged event and does not go and check the remaining if condition where i check for _selectedEntity which is used to set the IsContactModelSelected to true.

    Read the article

  • I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

    - by Moulde
    Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

    Read the article

  • c# How to find if two objects are equal

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >