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• (Cpp) Linker, Libraries & Directories Information

  - by m00st

  I've finished both my C++ 1/2 classes and we did not cover anything on Linking to libraries or adding additional libraries to C++ code. I've been having a hay-day trying to figure this out; I've been unable to find basic information linking to objects. Initially I thought the problem was the IDE (Netbeans; and Code::Blocks). However I've been unable to get wxWidgets and GTKMM setup. Can someone point me in the right direction on the terminology and basic information about #including files and linking files in a Cpp application? Basically I want/need to know everything in regards to this process. The difference between .dll, .lib, .o, .lib.a, .dll.a. The difference between a .h and a "library" (.dll, .lib correct?) I understand I need to read the compiler documentation I am using; however all compilers (that I know of) use linker and headers; I need to learn this information. Please point me in the right direction! :] Thanks

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• Created function not found

  - by skerit

  I'm trying to create a simple function, but at runtime firebug says the function does not exist. Here's the function code: <script type="text/javascript"> function load_qtip(apply_qtip_to) { $(apply_qtip_to).each(function(){ $(this).qtip( { content: { // Set the text to an image HTML string with the correct src URL to the loading image you want to use text: '<img class="throbber" src="/projects/qtip/images/throbber.gif" alt="Loading..." />', url: $(this).attr('rel'), // Use the rel attribute of each element for the url to load title: { text: 'Nieuwsbladshop.be - ' + $(this).attr('tooltip'), // Give the tooltip a title using each elements text //button: 'Sluiten' // Show a close link in the title } }, position: { corner: { target: 'bottomMiddle', // Position the tooltip above the link tooltip: 'topMiddle' }, adjust: { screen: true // Keep the tooltip on-screen at all times } }, show: { when: 'mouseover', solo: true // Only show one tooltip at a time }, hide: 'mouseout', style: { tip: true, // Apply a speech bubble tip to the tooltip at the designated tooltip corner border: { width: 0, radius: 4 }, name: 'light', // Use the default light style width: 250 // Set the tooltip width } }) } } </script> And I'm trying to call it here: <script type="text/javascript"> // Create the tooltips only on document load $(document).ready(function() { load_qtip('#shopcarousel a[rel]'); // Use the each() method to gain access to each elements attributes }); </script> What am I doing wrong?

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• HTC Incredible displaying blank ImageView

  - by Todd

  HI, I have an app that displays an an image in an ImageView using the setImageDrawable(Drawable) method. However, with the release of the Droid Incredible the images are coming up as a blank screen. I am using Drawable.createFromPath(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory() + "\imagefile") to access the image from the SD card. I don't get any sort of error, just a black screen. I will get a null pointer exception if after trying to load the image I try to access a property of the Drawable. This makes me believe that the Drawable wasn't loaded, but I don't know why or how to make it work. This code as been working on all other Android devices, so I'm not sure what is different with the Incredible. Unfortunately I don't have access to an Incredible to test on, so I've got to rely on others to test and send me the log files. Any help you can offer would be greatly appreciated. If anyone knows how to replicate this issue on the emulator, that would be helpful too. I've configured an emulator with firmware 7 and the correct screen resolution, but I was unable to replicate the issue. Thanks.

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• No Debug information of an iPhone app

  - by Markus Pilman

  Hi all, I wrote an iPhone app which uses a third party library. I crosscompiled this library successfully and everything works smoothly. But when I want to debug the application, it would make sense to also be able to debug the library. So I compiled also the external library with debuging information (usign the gcc option -ggdb). But when I want to debug it, I get the correct symbol names, but the positions are always wrong/extremly wierd (locale_facets.tcc:2505 or iostream:76). For example a stack trace could look like this: #0 0x000045e8 in zorba::serialization::SerializeBaseClass::SerializeBaseClass () at iostream:76 #1 0x0001d990 in zorba::RCObject::RCObject () at iostream:76 #2 0x00025187 in zorba::xqpStringStore::xqpStringStore () at iostream:76 #3 0x000719e4 in zorba::String::String () at locale_facets.tcc:2505 #4 0x00030513 in iphone::iLabelModule::getURI (this=0x533f710) at /Users/sausalito/eth/izorba/sandbox/ilabel.cpp:19 #5 0x00356766 in zorba::static_context::bind_external_module () at locale_facets.tcc:2505 #6 0x0006139d in zorba::StaticContextImpl::registerModule () at locale_facets.tcc:2505 #7 0x000333e5 in -[ZorbaCaller init] (self=0x53405c0, _cmd=0x95583398) at /Users/sausalito/eth/izorba/sandbox/ZorbaCaller.mm:61 #8 0x00033180 in +[ZorbaCaller instance] (self=0x11dc2bc, _cmd=0x93679591) at /Users/sausalito/eth/izorba/sandbox/ZorbaCaller.mm:37 #9 0x0003d998 in -[testOne execute:] (self=0x530d560, _cmd=0x9366b126, sender=0x5121da0) at /Users/sausalito/eth/izorba/sandbox/generator/testOne.mm:13 #10 0x01a21405 in -[UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] () #11 0x01a84b4e in -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] () #12 0x01a86d6f in -[UIControl(Internal) _sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] () #13 0x01a85abb in -[UIControl touchesEnded:withEvent:] () #14 0x01a3addf in -[UIWindow _sendTouchesForEvent:] () #15 0x01a247c8 in -[UIApplication sendEvent:] () #16 0x01a2b061 in _UIApplicationHandleEvent () #17 0x03b6fd59 in PurpleEventCallback () #18 0x034a8b80 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific () #19 0x034a7c48 in CFRunLoopRunInMode () #20 0x03b6e615 in GSEventRunModal () #21 0x03b6e6da in GSEventRun () #22 0x01a2bfaf in UIApplicationMain () #23 0x0002dd7e in main (argc=1, argv=0xbffff044) at /Users/sausalito/eth/izorba/sandbox/main.m:16 Does anybody have an idea, where these wrong locations come from?

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• Undefined Web.config error in VS 2008

  - by user1066050

  I'm working on a web app using VS 2008, .Net 3.5 and C#. Most of the projects in the solution are either classic asp.net pages with some MVC 1 in the mix, the rest is shared libraries. The solution is one that is some 5 years old and has gone through a variety of developers working on it and clearly has some performance and architectural issues. Previously, I've been working on the project using VS 2008 on a Win XP machine, but have just transitioned over to a new box using Win 7 Ultimate. To do so, I've installed VS 2008, asp.net 3.5. To support future work on the solution I've also installed VS 2010 and asp.net 4.0. Opening the solution on the new box with VS 2008 works fine, and it builds without error. However, when I attempt to run it with the debugger, I get the following message: "There is an error in web.config. Please correct before proceeding. (You might rename the current web.config and add a new one.)" I think it's clear that there is some sort of environmental issue regarding web.config on the new machine, but the error message is not "helpful". Adding a new web.config is not an option as the existing one is quite long and involved (too much to post here). I'm hoping someone has a suggestion or two about where I might look for missing elements or changed configurations that might produce such an error message. Lacking that, I'll revisit this post and provide the web.config in the hope that will elicit further help. Thanks to all in advance for taking a look at this. The StackOverflow community has helped me many times in the past with pertinent answers although this is my first posting. Jeff

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• Wrong date with ruby Date.today and DateTime.now

  - by Rob

  I've installed ruby-1.8.6-p383 with RVM. System ruby is 1.9.1_p378-1 I'm getting the wrong date from Date.today and DateTime.now when using ruby 1.8.. Whereas Time.now is correct: irb(main):002:0> DateTime.now.to_s => "2126--1-10618T11:23:43+00:00" irb(main):004:0> Date.today.to_s => "2126--1-10618" irb(main):005:0> Time.now => Thu Jan 28 11:55:27 +0000 2010 All is well if I switch to ruby 1.9: irb(main):003:0> DateTime.now.to_s => "2010-01-28T11:58:51+00:00" irb(main):004:0> Date.today.to_s => "2010-01-28" irb(main):005:0> Time.now => 2010-01-28 11:59:05 +0000 Any advice on how to get DateTime to work properly in ruby 1.8 would be most appreciated!

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• c# error for index was outside the bounds of array

  - by iliailiaey

  i have written below code but i have the error:Index was outside the bounds of the array.i cant understand its reason.how can i correct the code for preventing the error?(in the code,i want to make an array byte of size 57600 from an array byte of size 38400) int q = 0; int nbytes = 57600; byte[] gh = new byte[38400]; byte[] byte8 = new byte[nbytes]; byte[] aa = { 0xf8, 0x07, 0XE0, 0X1F }; for (int y = 0; y < nbytes-3; y += 3) { if (q < 38400-3) { byte8[y] = (byte)(gh[q] & aa[1]); byte8[y + 1] = (byte)(((gh[q] & aa[1]) << 5) | ((gh[q + 1] & aa[2]) >> 3)); byte8[y + 2] = (byte)((gh[q + 1] & aa[3]) << 3); q += 2; } }

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• Calculate the year for ending month/day?

  - by Dave Jarvis

  Given: Start Year Start Month & Start Day End Month & End Day What SQL statement results in TRUE if a date lands between the Start and End days? 1st example: Start Date = 11-22 End Date = 01-17 Start Year = 2009 Specific Date = 2010-01-14 TRUE 2nd example: Start Date = 11-22 End Date = 11-16 Start Year = 2009 Specific Date = 2010-11-20 FALSE 3rd example: Start Date = 02-25 End Date = 03-19 Start Year = 2004 Specific Date = 2004-02-29 TRUE I was thinking of using the MySQL functions datediff and sign plus a CASE condition to determine whether the year wraps, but it seems rather expensive. Am looking for a simple, efficient calculation. Update 1 The problem is the end date cannot simply use the year. The year must be increased if the end month/day combination happens before the start date. The start date is easy: Start Date = date( concat_ws( '-', year, Start Month, Start Day ) ) The end date is not so simple. Update 2 Here is what I was thinking about for obtaining the end year: end_year = case sign( diff( date( concat_ws( year, start_month, start_day ) ), date( concat_ws( year, end_month, end_day ) ) ) ) when -1 then Start_Year + 1 else Start_Year end case Then wrap that expression (once syntactically correct) inside of another date, followed by BETWEEN statement. Update 3 To clear up some confusion: there is no end year. The end year must be calculated. Thank you!

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• Java object graph -> xml when direction of object association needs to be reversed.

  - by Sigmoidal

  An application I have been working on has objects with a relationship similar to below. In the real application both objects are JPA entities. class Underlying{} class Thing { private Underlying underlying; public Underlying getUnderlying() { return underlying; } public void setUnderlying(final Underlying underlying) { this.underlying = underlying; } } There is a requirement in the application to create xml of the form: <template> <underlying> <thing/> <thing/> <thing/> </underlying> </template> So we have a situation where the object graph expresses the relationship between Thing and Underlying in the opposite direction to how it's expressed in the xml. I expect to use JAXB to create the xml but ideally I don't want to have to create a new object hierarchy to reflect the associations in the xml. Is there any way to create xml of the form required from the entities in their current form (through the use of xml annotations or something)? I don't have any experience using JAXB but from the limited research I've done it doesn't seem like it's possible to reverse the direction of association in any straightforward way. Any help/advice would be greatly appreciated. One other option that has been suggested is to use XLST to transform the xml into the correct format. I have done no research on this topic as yet but I'll add to the question when I have some more info. Thanks, Matt.

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• Are all of the default scripts loaded by Magento really needed?

  - by pxl

  Here's a listing of all the scripts loaded by Magento by default: ../js/prototype/prototype.js //prototype library ../js/prototype/validation.js //don't know what this does ../js/scriptaculous/builder.js //don't know what this does ../js/scriptaculous/effects.js //base scriptaculous effects library? ../js/scriptaculous/dragdrop.js //component of scriptaculous effects ../js/scriptaculous/controls.js //not sure? ../js/scriptaculous/slider.js //more scriptaculous effects ../js/varien/js.js //don't know what this is ../js/varien/form.js //form validation scripts? ../js/varien/menu.js //menu/drop down menu scripts ../js/mage/translate.js //don't know what this does ../js/mage/cookies.js //don't know what this does these scripts total 316.8K of javascript... all in various states of being minified (for example, prototype.js isn't minified). So my first question: 1) Aside from prototype.js, are all of the others really that needed? and 2) What is the "correct" way to remove these scripts? Layout updates? Or hardcoded in templates? I want to make the loading of my magento site as light weight as possible. thanks!

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• MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

  - by cbp

  Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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• NSTableView with columns bound to different NSArrayControllers

  - by Vyacheslav Karpukhin

  i have NSTableView and two columns in it: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; as you can see, columns bound to different NSArrayControllers. first column shows correct values, but second just shows "(" symbol. but if i swap columns like this: NSTableColumn *column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"totalGrams"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:valuationArrC withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.totalGrams_double" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; column = [[[NSTableColumn alloc] initWithIdentifier:@"custId"] autorelease]; [column bind:@"value" toObject:arrC2 withKeyPath:@"arrangedObjects.custId" options:nil]; [table addTableColumn:column]; then i see values of first column (which was second in the first example) and again "(" in the second column. i don't understand that behaviour. how can i bound two array controllers to one table?

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• Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

  - by Jack

  Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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• Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

  - by Mo J. Mughrabi

  I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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• xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

  - by Kaiserludi

  Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

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• Asp.Net Basic Program

  - by Abid Ali

  I want to Visible the combo Box named Cities when i click the Country Pakistan.. but the combo box visibility remains Hidden.. how do i do so ? I think my Code is correct but it is not working :s .. Help Required.. <select id="Items" name = "Countries"> <option id="Pakistan" onclick="VisibileTrue()">Pakistan</option> <option id = "Taiwan">Taiwan</option> </select> <select id="Items2" name="Cities" style="display:none" > <option>Karachi</option> <option>Sindh</option> </select> </div> </form> function VisibileTrue() { var element = document.getElementById(Pakistan); if(element == Pakistan) { var element2 = document.getElementsByTagName("Items2"); element2.style.display = "inline"; } }

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• Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

  - by Kannabiran

  I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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• Cannot call DLL import entry in C# from C++ project. EntryPointNotFoundException

  - by kriau

  I'm trying to call from C# a function in a custom DLL written in C++. However I'm getting the warning during code analysis and the error at runtime: Warning: CA1400 : Microsoft.Interoperability : Correct the declaration of 'SafeNativeMethods.SetHook()' so that it correctly points to an existing entry point in 'wi.dll'. The unmanaged entry point name currently linked to is SetHook. Error: System.EntryPointNotFoundException was unhandled. Unable to find an entry point named 'SetHook' in DLL 'wi.dll'. Both projects wi.dll and C# exe has been compiled in to the same DEBUG folder, both files reside here. There is only one file with the name wi.dll in the whole file system. C++ function definition looks like: #define WI_API __declspec(dllexport) bool WI_API SetHook(); I can see exported function using Dependency Walker: as decorated: bool SetHook(void) as undecorated: ?SetHook@@YA_NXZ C# DLL import looks like (I've defined these lines using CLRInsideOut from MSDN magazine): [DllImport("wi.dll", EntryPoint = "SetHook", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] [return: MarshalAsAttribute(UnmanagedType.I1)] internal static extern bool SetHook(); I've tried without EntryPoint and CallingConvention definitions as well. Both projects are 32-bits, I'm using W7 64 bits, VS 2010 RC. I believe that I simply have overlooked something.... Thanks in advance.

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• Thread management advice - Is TPL a good idea?

  - by Ian

  I'm hoping to get some advice on the use of thread managment and hopefully the task parallel library, because I'm not sure I've been going down the correct route. Probably best is that I give an outline of what I'm trying to do. Given a Problem I need to generate a Solution using a heuristic based algorithm. I start of by calculating a base solution, this operation I don't think can be parallelised so we don't need to worry about. Once the inital solution has been generated, I want to trigger n threads, which attempt to find a better solution. These threads need to do a couple of things: They need to be initalized with a different 'optimization metric'. In other words they are attempting to optimize different things, with a precedence level set within code. This means they all run slightly different calculation engines. I'm not sure if I can do this with the TPL.. If one of the threads finds a better solution that the currently best known solution (which needs to be shared across all threads) then it needs to update the best solution, and force a number of other threads to restart (again this depends on precedence levels of the optimization metrics). I may also wish to combine certain calculations across threads (e.g. keep a union of probabilities for a certain approach to the problem). This is probably more optional though. The whole system needs to be thread safe obviously and I want it to be running as fast as possible. I tried quite an implementation that involved managing my own threads and shutting them down etc, but it started getting quite complicated, and I'm now wondering if the TPL might be better. I'm wondering if anyone can offer any general guidance? Thanks...

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• How do I get my Flash CS4 buttons to direct the user to another URL?

  - by goldenfeelings

  My apologies if this has been fully addressed before, but I've read through several other threads and still can't seem to get my file to work. My actionscript code is at the bottom of this message. I created it using instructions from the Adobe website: http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ActionScript/3.0_ProgrammingAS3/WS5b3ccc516d4fbf351e63e3d118a9b90204-7fd7.html I believe I have all of my objects set to the correct type of symbol (button) and all of my instances are named appropriately (see screenshot here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg) Action Script here. Let me know if you have suggestions! (Note: I am very new to Flash): stop (); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families);

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• LINQ thinks I need an extra INNER JOIN, but why?

  - by Saurabh Kumar

  I have a LINQ query, which for some reason is generating an extra/duplicatre INNER JOIN. This is causing the query to not return the expected output. If I manually comment that extra JOIN from the generated SQL, then I get seemingly correct output. Can you detect what I might have done i nthis LINQ to have cuased this extra JOIN? Thanks. Here is my approx LINQ var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; and here is the generated SQL (the duplicate join is [t7]) Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Office' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 int=2 SELECT [t9].[PersonID] AS [pid] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneValue] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t6] ON [t6].[Code] = [t5].[PhoneType] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID]) AND ([t6].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PersonID] = [t0].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t2] ON [t2].[Code] = [t1].[PhoneType] WHERE ([t2].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t0].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5

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• C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

  - by Hassan Syed

  The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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• How to make HTML layout whitespace-agnostic?

  - by ssg

  If you have consecutive inline-blocks white-space becomes significant. It adds some level of space between elements. What's the "correct" way of avoiding whitespace effect to HTML layout if you want those blocks to look stuck to each other? Example: <span>a</span> <span>b</span> This renders differently than: <span>a</span><span>b</span> because of the space inbetween. I want whitespace-effect to go away without compromising HTML source code layout. I want my HTML templates to stay clean and well-indented. I think these options are ugly: 1) Tweaking text-indent, margin, padding etc. (Because it would be dependent on font-size, default white-space width etc) 2) Putting everything on a single line, next to each other. 3) Zero font-size. That would require overriding font-size in blocks, which would otherwise be inherited. 4) Possible document-wide solutions. I want the solution to stay local for a certain block of HTML. Any ideas, any obvious points which I'm missing?

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• SQL Server 2005 - Enabling both Named Pipes & TCP/IP protocols?

  - by Clinemi

  We have a SQL Server 2005 database, and currently all our users are connecting to the database via the TCP/IP protocol. The SQL Server Configuration Manager allows you to "enable" both Named Pipes, and TCP/IP connections at the same time. Is this a good idea? My question is not whether we should use named pipes instead of TCP/IP, but are there problems associated with enabling both? One of our client's IT guys, says that enabling database communication with both protocols will limit the bandwidth that either protocol can use - to like 50% of the total. I would think that the bandwidth that TCP/IP could use would be directly tied (inversely) to the amount of traffic that Named Pipes (or any of the other types of traffic) were occupying on the network at that moment. However, this IT person is indicating that the fact that we have enabled two protocols on the server, artificially limits the bandwidth that TCP/IP can use. Is this correct? I did Google searches but could not come up with an answer to this question. Any help would be appreciated.

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