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  • Passing an array of structs in C

    - by lelouch
    I'm having trouble passing an array of structs to a function in C. I've created the struct like this in main: int main() { struct Items { char code[10]; char description[30]; int stock; }; struct Items MyItems[10]; } I then access it like: MyItems[0].stock = 10; etc. I want to pass it to a function like so: ReadFile(MyItems); The function should read the array, and be able to edit it. Then I should be able to access the same array from other functions. I've tried heaps of declarations but none of them work. e.g. void ReadFile(struct Items[10]) I've had a look around for other questions, but the thing is they're all done different, with typedefs and asterisks. My teacher hasn't taught us pointers yet, so I'd like to do it with what I know. Any ideas? :S EDIT: Salvatore's answer is working after I fixed my prototype to: void ReadFile(struct Items[9]);

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  • Linking Apache to Tomcat with multiple domains.

    - by Royce Thigpen
    Okay, so I've been working for a while on this, and have been searching, but so far I have not found any answers that actually answer what I want to know. I'm a little bit at the end of my rope with this one, but I'm hoping I can figure this out sometime soon. So I have Apache 2 installed and serving up standard webpages, but I also have that linked to a Tomcat instance for one of my domains currently supported. However, I want to add another domain to the server via Apache that points to a separate code base from the one I already have. I have been coming at this from several different angles, and I have determined that I just don't know enough about setting up these servers to really do what I want to do. Little information on my server: Currently running a single Tomcat5.5 instance with Apache 2, using mod_jk to connect them together. I have a worker in workers.properties that points it's "host" field to "localhost" with the correct port my Tomcat instance, so that all works. In my Tomcat server.xml file, I have a host defined as "localhost" that points at my webapp that I am currently serving up, with that host set as the defaultHost as well. One thought I had was that I could add a new worker with a different host than "localhost" (i.e. host2) and then define a new host in my server.xml file called "host2" to match it, but after reading around some on the internet, It seems the "host" of the worker must point to a server, and not a hostname in the Tomcat instance, is this correct? Again, a simple rundown of what I want: Setup in apache/tomcat combo such that www.domain1.com points at "webapp1" and www.domain2.com points at "webapp2".

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  • Converting Single dimensional vector or array to two dimension in Matlab

    - by pac
    Well I do not know if I used the exact term. I tried to find an answer on the net. Here is what i need: I have a vector a = 1 4 7 2 5 8 3 6 9 If I do a(4) the value is 4. So it is reading first column top to buttom then continuing to next .... I don't know why. However, What I need is to call it using two indices. As row and column: a(3,2)= 4 or even better if i can call it in the following way: a{3}(2)=4 What is this process really called (want to learn) and how to perform in matlab. I thought of a loop. Is there a built in function Thanks a lot Check this: a = 18 18 16 18 18 18 16 0 0 0 16 16 18 0 18 16 0 18 18 16 18 0 18 18 0 16 0 0 0 18 18 0 18 18 16 0 16 0 18 18 >> a(4) ans = 18 >> a(5) ans = 18 >> a(10) ans = 18 I tried reshape. it is reshaping not converting into 2 indeces

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  • Fastest way to perform subset test operation on a large collection of sets with same domain

    - by niktech
    Assume we have trillions of sets stored somewhere. The domain for each of these sets is the same. It is also finite and discrete. So each set may be stored as a bit field (eg: 0000100111...) of a relatively short length (eg: 1024). That is, bit X in the bitfield indicates whether item X (of 1024 possible items) is included in the given set or not. Now, I want to devise a storage structure and an algorithm to efficiently answer the query: what sets in the data store have set Y as a subset. Set Y itself is not present in the data store and is specified at run time. Now the simplest way to solve this would be to AND the bitfield for set Y with bit fields of every set in the data store one by one, picking the ones whose AND result matches Y's bitfield. How can I speed this up? Is there a tree structure (index) or some smart algorithm that would allow me to perform this query without having to AND every stored set's bitfield? Are there databases that already support such operations on large collections of sets?

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  • How to make Firefox extension auto install in nav bar?

    - by S M
    I'm working on a Firefox extension. I'd like to make it auto-install in the far right position on the nav bar when a user installs it. As it stands, a user has to go to View Toolbars Customize... and drag the extension to the nav bar once it's installed. I'd like to eliminate this step. The extension is here: http://madan.org/tickertool The XUL for my extension looks basically like this and it overlays browser.xul: <overlay id="my-ext-overlay" ... > <toolbarpalette id="BrowserToolbarPalette"> <toolbaritem id="my-ext-container" ... > <toolbarbutton id="my-ext-customize-image" ... /> <textbox id="my-ext-textbox" ... /> <hbox id="my-ext-buttons"> <image id="my-ext-button1" ... /> <image id="my-ext-button2" ... /> <image id="my-ext-button3" ... /> </hbox> </toolbaritem> </toolbarpalette> </overlay> I've seen code here ( https://developer.mozilla.org/en/Code_snippets/Toolbar ) that supposedly does what I'm looking for, but this code is if your extension is just a single button and I can't get it to work for me. The answer to my question is likely some modification of this code, but I haven't figured it out.

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  • Database contents setting themselves to 0

    - by Luis Armando
    I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

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  • Stop Visual Studio from appending numbers to the end of new controls

    - by techturtle
    I am wondering if there is any way to stop Visual Studio 2010 from appending a number to the end of the ID on new controls I create. For example, when I add a new TextBox, I would prefer that it do this: <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox" runat="server"> Instead of this: <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox3" runat="server"> It would make it easier to rename them appropriately, so I don't have to arrow/mouse over and delete the number each time. As I was writing this, the "Questions that may already have your answer" suggested this: How do I prevent Visual Studio from renaming my controls? which admittedly was the biggest part of my annoyance, but that appears to turn off putting in an ID="" field altogether, not just for pasted controls. It would still be helpful to turn off the numbering for new, non-pasted controls and have it not rename pasted ones as well. At the moment I'm working with ASP.NET, but it would be nice if it there was a way to do it for WinForms as well. Before anyone suggests it, I do know that allowing it to append the numbers prevents name conflicts should I not rename them appropriately. However, I would much rather have it fail to compile so I know to fix the issue now (if I forget to name something properly) rather than find random "TextBox1" items lying around in the code later on.

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  • How do I access the names of VB6 modules from code?

    - by Mark Bertenshaw
    Hi All - It is unlikely that there is an answer for this one, but I'm asking anyway. I am currently maintaining some code, which is likely to be refactored soon. Before that happens, I want to make the standard error handling code, which is injected by an Add-In, more efficient and take up less space. One thing that annoys me is that every module has a constant called m_ksModuleName that is used to construct a big string, which is then rethrown from the error handler so we can trace the error stack. This is all template code, i.e. repetivitve, but I could easily strip it down to a procedure call. Now, I have fixed the code so that you can pass the Me reference to the procedure - but you can't do that for the BAS modules. Nor can you access the project name (the part which would be passed as part of a ProgramID, for instance) - although you get given it when you raise an error yourself. All these strings are contained in the EXE, DLL or OCX - believe me, I've used a debugger to find them. But how can I access these in code? -- Mark Bertenshaw

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  • Does new JUnit 4.8 @Category render test suites almost obsolete?

    - by grigory
    Given question 'How to run all tests belonging to a certain Category?' and the answer would the following approach be better for test organization? define master test suite that contains all tests (e.g. using ClasspathSuite) design sufficient set of JUnit categories (sufficient means that every desirable collection of sets is identifiable using one or more categories) define targeted test suites based on master test suite and set of categories For example: identify categories for speed (slow, fast), dependencies (mock, database, integration), function (), domain ( demand that each test is properly qualified (tagged) with relevant set of categories. create master test suite using ClasspathSuite (all tests found in classpath) create targeted suites by qualifying master test suite with categories, e.g. mock test suite, fast database test suite, slow integration for domain X test suite, etc. My question is more like soliciting approval rate for such approach vs. classic test suite approach. One unbeatable benefit is that every new test is immediately contained by relevant suites with no suite maintenance. One concern is proper categorization of each test.

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  • Resource placement (optimal strategy)

    - by blackened
    I know that this is not exactly the right place to ask this question, but maybe a wise guy comes across and has the solution. I'm trying to write a computer game and I need an algorithm to solve this question: The game is played between 2 players. Each side has 1.000 dollars. There are three "boxes" and each player writes down the amount of money he is going to place into those boxes. Then these amounts are compared. Whoever placed more money in a box scores 1 point (if draw half point each). Whoever scores more points wins his opponents 1.000 dollars. Example game: Player A: [500, 500, 0] Player B: [333, 333, 334] Player A wins because he won Box A and Box B (but lost Box C). Question: What is the optimal strategy to place the money? I have more questions to ask (algorithm related, not math related) but I need to know the answer to this one first. Update (1): After some more research I've learned that these type of problems/games are called Colonel Blotto Games. I did my best and found few (highly technical) documents on the subject. Cutting it short, the problem I have (as described above) is called simple Blotto Game (only three battlefields with symmetric resources). The difficult ones are the ones with, say, 10+ battle fields with non-symmetric resources. All the documents I've read say that the simple Blotto game is easy to solve. The thing is, none of them actually say what that "easy" solution is.

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  • format an xml string in Ruby

    - by user1476512
    given an xml string like this : <some><nested><xml>value</xml></nested></some> what's the best option(using ruby) to format it readable like : <some> <nested> <xml>value</xml> </nested> </some> I've found an answer here: what's the best way to format an xml string in ruby?, which is really helpful. But it formats xml like: <some> <nested> <xml> value </xml> </nested> </some> As my xml string is a little big in length. So it is not readable in this format. Thanks in advance!

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  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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  • "Finding" an object instance of a known class?

    - by Sean C
    My first post here (anywhere for that matter!), re. Cocoa/Obj-C (I'm NOT up to speed on either, please be patient!). I hope I haven't missed the answer already, I did try to find it. I'm an old-school procedural dog (haven't done any programming since the mid 80's, so I probably just can't even learn new tricks), but OOP has my head spinning! My question is: is there any means at all to "discover/find/identify" an instance of an object of a known class, given that some OTHER unknown process instantiated it? eg. somthing that would accomplish this scenario: (id) anObj = [someTarget getMostRecentInstanceOf:[aKnownClass class]]; for that matter, "getAnyInstance" or "getAllInstances" might do the trick too. Background: I'm trying to write a plugin for a commercial application, so much of the heavy lifting is being done by the app, behind the scenes. I have the SDK & header files, I know what class the object is, and what method I need to call (it has only instance methods), I just can't identify the object for targetting. I've spent untold hours and days going over Apples documentation, tutorials and lots of example/sample code on the web (including here at Stack Overflow), and come up empty. Seems that everything requires a known target object to work, and I just don't have one. Since I may not be expressing my problem as clearly as needed, I've put up a web page, with diagram & working sample pages to illustrate: http://www.nulltime.com/svtest/index.html Any help or guidance will be appreciated! Thanks.

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  • How do I grep for entire, possibly wrapped, lines of code?

    - by NXT
    When searching code for strings, I constantly run into the problem that I get meaningless, context-less results. For example, if a function call is split across 3 lines, and I search for the name of a parameter, I get the parameter on a line by itself and not the name of the function. For example, in a file containing ... someFunctionCall ("test", MY_CONSTANT, (some *really) - long / expression); grepping for MY_CONSTANT would return a line that looked like this: MY_CONSTANT, Likewise, in a comment block: ///////////////////////////////////////// // FIXMESOON, do..while is the wrong choice here, because // it makes the wrong thing happen ///////////////////////////////////////// Grepping for FIXMESOON gives the very frustrating answer: // FIXMESOON, do..while is the wrong choice here, because When there are thousands of hits, single line results are a little meaningless. What I would like to do is have grep be aware of the start and stop points of source code lines, something as simple as having it consider ";" as the line separator would be a good start. Bonus points if you can make it return the entire comment block if the hit is inside a comment. I know you can't do this with grep alone. I also am aware of the option to have grep return a certain number of lines of content. Any suggestions on how to accomplish under Linux? FYI my preferred languages are C and Perl. I'm sure I could write something, but I know that somebody must have already done this. Thanks!

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  • implementing a Intelligent File Transfer Software in java over TCP/IP

    - by whyjava
    Hello I am working on a proposal where we have to implement a software which can move files between one source to destination.The overall goal of this project is to create intelligent file transfer.This software will have three components :- 1) Broker : Broker is the module that communicates with other brokers, monitors files, moves files, retrieves configurations from the Configuration Manager, supplies process information for the monitor, archives files, writes all process data to log files and escalates issues if necessary 2) Configuration Manager :Configuration Manager is a web-based application used to configure and deploy the configuration to all brokers. 3) Monitor : Monitor is a web-based application used to monitor each Broker in the environment. This project has to be built up in java and protocol for file transfer in tcp/ip. Client does not want to use FTP. File Transfer seems very easy, until there are several processes who are waiting to pick the file up automatically. Several problems arise: How can we guarantee the file is received at the destination? If a file isn’t received the first time, we should try it again (even after a restart or power breakdown) ? How does the receiver knows the file that is received is complete? How can we transfer multiple files synchronously? How can we protect the bandwidth, so file transfer isn’t blocking other processes? How does one interoperate between multiple OS platforms? What about authentication? How can we monitor het workflow? Auditing / logging Archiving Can you please provide answer to some of these? Thanks

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  • Memory leaks after using typeinfo::name()

    - by icabod
    I have a program in which, partly for informational logging, I output the names of some classes as they are used (specifically I add an entry to a log saying along the lines of Messages::CSomeClass transmitted to 127.0.0.1). I do this with code similar to the following: std::string getMessageName(void) const { return std::string(typeid(*this).name()); } And yes, before anyone points it out, I realise that the output of typeinfo::name is implementation-specific. According to MSDN The type_info::name member function returns a const char* to a null-terminated string representing the human-readable name of the type. The memory pointed to is cached and should never be directly deallocated. However, when I exit my program in the debugger, any "new" use of typeinfo::name() shows up as a memory leak. If I output the information for 2 classes, I get 2 memory leaks, and so on. This hints that the cached data is never being freed. While this is not a major issue, it looks messy, and after a long debugging session it could easily hide genuine memory leaks. I have looked around and found some useful information (one SO answer gives some interesting information about how typeinfo may be implemented), but I'm wondering if this memory should normally be freed by the system, or if there is something i can do to "not notice" the leaks when debugging. I do have a back-up plan, which is to code the getMessageName method myself and not rely on typeinfo::name, but I'd like to know anyway if there's something I've missed.

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  • How to add an array value to the middle of an associative array?

    - by Citizen
    Lets say I have this array: $array = array('a'=>1,'z'=>2,'d'=>4); Later in the script, I want to add the value 'c'=>3 before 'z'. How can I do this? EDIT: Yes, the order is important. When I run a foreach() through the array, I do NOT want this newly added value added to the end of the array. I am getting this array from a mysql_fetch_assoc() EDIT 2: The keys I used above are placeholders. Using ksort() will not achieve what I want. EDIT 3: http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.array-splice.php#88896 accomplishes what I'm looking for but I'm looking for something simpler. EDIT 4: Thanks for the downvotes. I gave feedback to your answers and you couldn't help, so you downvoted and requested to close the question because you didn't know the answer. Thanks. EDIT 5: Take a sample db table with about 30 columns. I get this data using mysql_fetch_assoc(). In this new array, after column 'pizza' and 'drink', I want to add a new column 'full_dinner' that combines the values of 'pizza' and 'drink' so that when I run a foreach() on the said array, 'full_dinner' comes directly after 'drink'

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  • Setting up a web development/build environment

    - by Eric
    Hello all, My current project has a development web server and live web server. Developers make changes to files on the dev server and test them (by going to the dev address) and make changes as necessary. When the file or files are ready to go, they are copied to the live server. There is no version control. As you might expect, there are some problems with this model: It's hard to keep track of what other programmers have done. It's hard to keep track of what files should be copied to the live server. There is no version control. I'm in a position to make nearly any change I like, but I want it to be the right one! I have been turning this over in my head for quite a while, and I have a solution that might be okay. But I want SO's opinion. Certainly version control needs to be added. But how should it work with the existing codebase and where should the developers be testing? How can anyone know what needs to be moved to the live server? What other details need to be addressed? How would you attack this problem? Supplementary information: The website is vital, but not mission critical. A small amount of downtime is acceptable. There are very few developers. (Right now, only 4.) History: Before I started, the project used Visual Source Safe. This was a sufficiently bad experience that they quit using it and abandoned version control. The project is an ASP.NET (C#) website. This seems like a question that may have a complicated answer. Thanks for thinking about it!

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  • gwt seperate modules with no code sharing

    - by Code freak
    Hi, I have to make a web application using GWT. The project has a core module that'll expose a set of apis to be used by other apps; each of these app are unrelated. Each shall be loaded in a separate iframe. My idea was to compile core into core.js and each app shall have its own app1.js app2.js and so on... App1 script type="text/javascript" src="core.js" ></script> script type="text/javascript" src="app1.js" ></script> with this design, due to browser caching, each app laod only the app.js which should be smaller ~20kb in size. Making a core module is straightforward but the apps are problematic. The reason being after compilation, each app contains the entire GWT library - this substantially increases the download size of the complete webapp. Can anyone suggest a way to get aroung this problem ? I've checked similar questions on SO, but failed to find a simple working answer fr the problem. Thanks for any help.

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  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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  • Testing When Correctness is Poorly Defined?

    - by dsimcha
    I generally try to use unit tests for any code that has easily defined correct behavior given some reasonably small, well-defined set of inputs. This works quite well for catching bugs, and I do it all the time in my personal library of generic functions. However, a lot of the code I write is data mining code that basically looks for significant patterns in large datasets. Correct behavior in this case is often not well defined and depends on a lot of different inputs in ways that are not easy for a human to predict (i.e. the math can't reasonably be done by hand, which is why I'm using a computer to solve the problem in the first place). These inputs can be very complex, to the point where coming up with a reasonable test case is near impossible. Identifying the edge cases that are worth testing is extremely difficult. Sometimes the algorithm isn't even deterministic. Usually, I do the best I can by using asserts for sanity checks and creating a small toy test case with a known pattern and informally seeing if the answer at least "looks reasonable", without it necessarily being objectively correct. Is there any better way to test these kinds of cases?

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  • What's the use of writing tests matching configuration-like code line by line?

    - by Pascal Van Hecke
    Hi, I have been wondering about the usefulness of writing tests that match code one-by-one. Just an example: in Rails, you can define 7 restful routes in one line in routes.rb using: resources :products BDD/TDD proscribes you test first and then write code. In order to test the full effect of this line, devs come up with macros e.g. for shoulda: http://kconrails.com/2010/01/27/route-testing-with-shoulda-in-ruby-on-rails/ class RoutingTest < ActionController::TestCase # simple should_map_resources :products end I'm not trying to pick on the guy that wrote the macros, this is just an example of a pattern that I see all over Rails. I'm just wondering what the use of it is... in the end you're just duplicating code and the only thing you test is that Rails works. You could as well write a tool that transforms your test macros into actual code... When I ask around, people answer me that: "the tests should document your code, so yes it makes sense to write them, even if it's just one line corresponding to one line" What are your thoughts?

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  • TCP Socket.Connect is generating false positives

    - by Mark
    I'm experiencing really weird behavior with the Socket.Connect method in C#. I am attempting a TCP Socket.Connect to a valid IP but closed port and the method is continuing as if I have successfully connected. When I packet sniffed what was going on I saw that the app was receiving RST packets from the remote machine. Yet from the tracing that is in place it is clear that the connect method is not throwing an exception. Any ideas what might be causing this? The code that is running is basically this IPEndPoint iep = new IPEndPoint(System.Net.IPAddress.Parse(m_ipAddress), m_port); Socket tcpSocket = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); tcpSocket.Connect(iep); To add to the mystery... when running this code in a stand alone console application, the result is as expected – the connect method throws an exception. However, when running it in the Windows Service deployment we have the connect method does not throw an exception. Edit in response to Mystere Man's answer How would the exception be swallowed? I have a Trace.WriteLine right above the .Connect method and a Trace.WriteLine right under it (not shown in the code sample for readability). I know that both traces are running. I also have a try catch around the whole thing which also does a Trace.Writeline and I don't see that in the log files anywhere. I have also enabled the internal socket tracing as you suggested. I don't see any exceptions. I see what appears to be successful connections. I am trying to identify differences between the windows service app and the diagnostic console app I made. I am running out of ideas though End edit Thanks

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  • how to query an embedded entity by using a query builder

    - by user577719
    I've searched quite a time for an answer to this question. Following Codesmell: @Entity public class Person { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) protected Integer id; @Column(nullable = true, length = 50) @Size(max = 50) private String name; @Embedded @Valid protected Adress adress; public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public Integer getId() { return this.id; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public void getName() { return this.name; } public void setAdress(Adress adress) { this.adress = adress; } public void getAdress() { return this.adress; } } @Embeddable public class Adress { @Column(nullable = false, length = 50) @Size(max = 50) @NotNull private String place; public void setPlace(String place) { this.place = place; } public void getPlace() { return this.place; } } public class PersonDaoJpa { public List<Ort> findByPerson(final Person person) { CriteriaBuilder builder = this.entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Person> query = builder.createQuery(Person.class); Root<Person> rootPerson = query.from(Person.class); List<Predicate> wherePredicates = new ArrayList<Predicate>(); if (person.getName() != null) { wherePredicates.add( builder.like(builder.lower(rootPerson.<String>get("name")), ort.getName().toLowerCase()) ); } Adresse adresse = ort.getAdresse(); if (adresse != null) { if(adresse.getPlace() != null) { // this won't work wherePredicates.add( builder.like(builder.lower(rootPerson.<String>get("person.adress.place")), adresse.getPlace().toLowerCase()) ); } } Predicate whereClause = builder.and(wherePredicates.toArray(new Predicate[0])); query.where(whereClause); return this.entityManager.createQuery(query).getResultList(); } } How can I access the Adress.place through rootPerson? rootPerson.get("place"), or rootPerson.get("adress.place") won't work...

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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