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• How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

  - by Alex Reisner

  I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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• Optimizing landing pages

  - by Oleg Shaldybin

  In my current project (Rails 2.3) we have a collection of 1.2 million keywords, and each of them is associated with a landing page, which is effectively a search results page for a given keywords. Each of those pages is pretty complicated, so it can take a long time to generate (up to 2 seconds with a moderate load, even longer during traffic spikes, with current hardware). The problem is that 99.9% of visits to those pages are new visits (via search engines), so it doesn't help a lot to cache it on the first visit: it will still be slow for that visit, and the next visit could be in several weeks. I'd really like to make those pages faster, but I don't have too many ideas on how to do it. A couple of things that come to mind: build a cache for all keywords beforehand (with a very long TTL, a month or so). However, building and maintaing this cache can be a real pain, and the search results on the page might be outdated, or even no longer accessible; given the volatile nature of this data, don't try to cache anything at all, and just try to scale out to keep up with traffic. I'd really appreciate any feedback on this problem.

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• Where do you use Java code? Trouble sending .jar files

  - by leigero

  Apologies for the generic nature of this question. I have been learning Java for a few months now, and I've created a few simple projects which have some functionality. I wanted to send the projects to a friend and I'm running into countless errors and struggles. Passing a .jar file is causing "Main class not found" errors when they try to open it. I tried using third party software to wrap the .jar files into an .exe file and the same errors still persist. Beyond that, I'm convinced that passing around .jar files wrapped into .exe files via third party software is NOT how Java was intended to be used. I've read two books on Java and they all talk about structuring the language, but I'm confused about WHERE I'm supposed to be using this code because it has become painfully obvious that it is NOT intended to be passed around in file format. Is this a server programming language? Used on the back end of websites mainly? I'm not sure where one would be using the code written in Java.

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• Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

  - by Kevin Buchan

  Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

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• What are the benefits of a classical structure over a prototyple one?

  - by Rixius

  I have only recently started programming significantly, and being completely self-taught, I unfortunately don't have the benefits of a detailed Computer science course. I've been reading a lot about JavaScript lately, and I'm trying to find the benefit in classes over the prototype nature of JavaScript. The question seems to be drawn down the middle of which one is better, and I want to see the classical side of it. When I look at the prototype example: var inst_a = { "X": 123, "Y": 321, add: function () { return this.X+this.Y; } }; document.write(inst_a.add()); And then the classical version function A(x,y){ this.X = x; this.Y = y; this.add = function(){ return this.X+this.Y; }; }; var inst_a = new A(123,321); document.write(inst_a.add()); I begun thinking about this because I'm looking at the new ecmascript revision 5 and a lot of people seem up in arms that they didn't add a Class system.

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• JVM terminated. Exit code = -1

  - by Lex

  Hello, I've been using Eclipse for some time already, and I didn't have any problems with it. However, when I tried to generate some javadoc, I found that I didn't have the SDK installed. I installed jdk 6u23, and from then on, Eclipse hasn't been working. At first it told me it couldn't find a JRE/SDK. After copying and placing the JRE in the Eclipse folder, the error changed to this: http://i258.photobucket.com/albums/hh261/magical_7/Eclipse.png I've searched around for some solutions, and found a few of varying nature. However, none of them seemed to work. I've tried emptying my eclipse.ini file without success. Altering some values in eclipse.ini didn't work either. Installing Java SDK 1.5 didn't work. Does anyone have other possible solutions? Update: I tried reinstalling Eclipse, but it didn't fix the problem. I did notice that it's a 32bit version, while I'm running a 64bit system. However, if this were to be the problem, I find it strange that it hasn't been an issue earlier.

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• C Map String to Function

  - by Scriptonaut

  So, I'm making a Unix minishell, and have come to a roadblock. I need to be able to execute built-in functions, so I made a function: int exec_if_built_in(char **args) It takes an array of strings(the first being the command, and the rest being arguments). For non built-in commands I simply use something like execvp, however I need to find a way to map the first string to a function. I was thinking of making two arrays, one of strings, and another with their corresponding function pointers. However, since many of these functions will be different(return and accept different things), this approach won't work. I also thought of making an array of structs with a name property and a function pointer property, however once again due to the varied nature of the functions I'll be using, this won't work. So, what's the best way to execute a function based on the input of a string? How do I map a string to a certain function? I'm not very familiar with function pointers so I may be missing something. Thank you guys for the help :)

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• Conceptual data modeling: Is RDF the right tool? Other solutions?

  - by paprika

  I'm planning a system that combines various data sources and lets users do simple queries on these. A part of the system needs to act as an abstraction layer that knows all connected data sources: the user shouldn't [need to] know about the underlying data "providers". A data provider could be anything: a relational DBMS, a bug tracking system, ..., a weather station. They are hooked up to the query system through a common API that defines how to "offer" data. The type of queries a certain data provider understands is given by its "offer" (e.g. I know these entities, I can give you aggregates of type X for relationship Y, ...). My concern right now is the unification of the data: the various data providers need to agree on a common vocabulary (e.g. the name of the entity "customer" could vary across different systems). Thus, defining a high level representation of the entities and their relationships is required. So far I have the following requirements: I need to be able to define objects and their properties/attributes. Further, arbitrary relations between these objects need to be represented: a verb that defines the nature of the relation (e.g. "knows"), the multiplicity (e.g. 1:n) and the direction/navigability of the relation. It occurs to me that RDF is a viable option, but is it "the right tool" for this job? What other solutions/frameworks do exist for semantic data modeling that have a machine readable representation and why are they better suited for this task? I'm grateful for every opinion and pointer to helpful resources.

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• explain notifier.c from the Linux kernel

  - by apollon

  I'm seeking to fully understand the following code snippet from kernel/notifier.c. I have read and built simple link lists and think I get the construct from K&R's C programming. The second line below which begins with the 'int' appears to be two items together which is unclear. The first is the (*notifier_call) which I believe has independent but related significance with the second containing a 'notifier block' term. Can you explain how it works in detail? I understand that there is a function pointer and multiple subscribers possible. But I lack the way to tie these facts together, and could use a primer or key so I exactly understand how the code works. The third line looks to contain the linking structure, or recursive nature. Forgive my terms, and correct them as fit as I am a new student of computer science terminology. struct notifier_block { int (*notifier_call)(struct notifier_block *, unsigned long, void *); struct notifier_block *next; int priority; };

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• counter_cache not updating on the model after save

  - by sehnsucht

  I am using a counter_cache to let MySQL do some of the bookkeeping for me: class Container has_many :items end class Item belongs_to :container, :counter_cache => true end Now, if I do this: container = Container.find(57) item = Item.new item.container = container item.save in the SQL log there will be an INSERT followed by something like: UPDATE `containers` SET `items_count` = COALESCE(`items_count`, 0) + 1 WHERE `containers`.`id` = 57 which is what I expected it to do. However, the container[:items_count] will be stale! ...unless I container.reload to pick up the updated value. Which in my mind sort of defeats part of the purpose of using the :counter_cache in favor of a custom built one, especially since I may not actually want a reload before I try to access the items_count attribute. (My models are pretty code-heavy because of the nature of the domain logic, so I sometimes have to save and create multiple things in one controller call.) I understand I can tinker with callbacks myself but this seems to me a fairly basic expectation of the simple feature. Again, if I have to write additional code to make it fully work, it might as well be easier to implement a custom counter. What am I doing/assuming wrong?

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• PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout While Attempting to PXE Boot from Windows Deployment Services

  - by bschafer

  I'm running Windows Deployment Services on Windows Server 2008 R2 on top of an ESX 4.0 box. This is the only function of this VM instance, although it had previously functioned as an AD Domain Controller. My DHCP server is running on our primary Domain Controller, which is also Server 2008 R2, but running on metal. Everything was working perfectly until we recently had our backup generator fail during a power outage, causing all of our servers and networking equipment to lose power for a period of time. When we brought all of our equipment back up, everything was working as expected except for WDS. Our network is split up into several different vlans. Now, depending on which vlan the client computer is on, it's behaving differently when attempting to PXE boot into WDS. Our servers are located on the 10.55.x.x vlan, which, due to the nature of it, has no DHCP server active in it. The first computer we plugged in happened to be in the 10.99.x.x vlan, which is supposed to be reserved for network management devices (i.e. switches), but we've been using it occasionally otherwise. That computer gave us PXE-E11 ARP Timeout errors. When we moved to a different computer on the 10.19.x.x vlan (for general purpose use), it finally gets an IP from DHCP, but it presents us with a very stumping PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout error. Before the power outage, it didn't matter which vlan a device was on; it would PXE boot and image just fine. I've made no changes to anything server-side. Everything is configured exactly the same way it was on my WDS and DHCP servers as before the power outage. I've tried several different computers, including different models. All of this, combined with the quirky behavior depending on the vlan, makes me think something went wrong in one or more of our switches, probably because of the power outage. Unfortunately, I'm no network guy, and I know very little about how to configure our switches properly. Is this an issue with switches, etc? If so, how can I fix it? Is there some magical option I'm not aware of? Does anybody out there have any hunches? I've pretty much exhausted my ideas. Our main switch is an HP Procurve 5406. We also have 3x HP Procurve 4208 switches. The ESX Server is an HP ProLiant DL380 G6. The WDS VM is currently using the VMXNET3 network adaptor, but we've also tried the E1000 adaptor.

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• KeePass justification

  - by Jeff Walker

  I work at a place that tries to take security seriously, but sadly, they often fail. Currently, one of the major ways they fail is password management. I personally have about 20 accounts (my personal user id on lots of machines). For shared "system" accounts, there are about 45 per environment; development, test, and production. I have access to 2 of those, so my personal total is somewhere around 115 accounts. Passwords have to be at least 15 characters with some extensive but standard complexity constraints, and have to be changed every 60 days or so (system accounts every year). They also should not be the same for different accounts, but that isn't enforced. Think DoD-type standards. There is no way to remember and keep up with this. It just isn't humanly possible, as far as I'm concerned. This might be a good justification of a centralized account management system, a la LDAP or ActiveDirectory, but that is a totally different battle. Currently the solution is an Excel spreadsheet. They use Excel to put a password on it, and then most people make a copy and remove the password. This makes my stomach turn. I use KeePass for this problem and it manages all of my account very well. I like the features like auto-typing, grouping, plugins, password generation, etc. It uses AES-256 encryption via the .Net framework, and while not FIPS compliant, it has a very good reputation. The only problem is that they are also very careful about using randomly downloaded software. So we have to justify every piece of software on our workstations. I have been told that they really don't want me to use this, be cause of the "sensitive nature" of storing passwords. sigh My justification has to be "VERY VERY strong". I have been tasked with writing a justification for KeePass, but as I am lazy, I would like any input that I can get from the community. What do you recommend? Is there something out there that is better or more respected than KeePass? Is there any security experts saying interesting things on this topic? Anything will help at this point. Thanks.

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• IE and Google Chrome timeout on an IIS6 hosted SSL page that Firefox handles well.

  - by Thomas

  Ok, here's the scenario: Up until a few weeks ago, none of us noticed anything wrong with the corporate website. People were using it without complaint. Then, a client complained that a specific page on the site was timing out for him, and only when he committed a POST action on a form filled with data. I checked it out, and it timed out for me, too. But, it only timed out in Google Chrome and IE, not in Firefox. Additionally, the same page, on the same server, but served from a different domain name (one not under the protection of SSL, either) does not time out under any browser. To clarify: https://www.mysite.com/changes.php times out on POST, but the same with http works fine. That distinction (SSL vs. Non-SSL) seems to be important, as nothing else has changed. Our certificate is valid, and Firefox detects no errors thrown by the page. I've looked at the Request and Response headers from the page, and they all follow the correct formats. Then, after wandering through the site, I noticed a few other things. Both IE and Chrome will frequently time out on any page that is PHP-based. They never time out on static images or html files. I've looked at the site from a variety of different servers, my home and work workstations, and my netbook. Because of that, I've discounted a viral infection, as I highly doubt a virus is going to hit every one of the machines to which I have access in exactly the same manner. My setup is: Server: Win2k3, II6, PHP 5.2.9-1. Clients: IE7, IE8, Chrome (regular and dev channel): Frequent timeouts on PHP pages. Firefox 2, Firefox 3: No timeouts. Firebug shows no errors or even lengthy periods serving the pages. I've spent 2 days searching for any tech knowledge that I can find, and my search parameters are all too general. Everyone has problems loading SSL pages in IE and Chrome for a wide variety of reasons. The infrequent nature of the timeouts and the fact that there are no errors being reported anywhere is starting to drive me insane. Does anyone have any insight on a problem like this?

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• Why does Ubuntu 9.10 hang during boot at "Booting processor 1 APIC 0x1 ip 0x6000"?

  - by BraeburnDev

  I recently installed a new copy of Ubuntu 9.10 (Kernel 2.6.31-14) on to my Hp Pavilion dv6t, so I can setup a Linux development environment. The install went flawlessly and I proceeded with Ubuntu's udate manager's long list of updates (292 in all). I also setup a swap file and activated a Nvidia 185 driver for the Nvidia 260m GPU on the machine. After all this was done I restarted the computer and booted into Ubuntu this time with a newer 2.6.31-19 Kernel which was installed from the update manager. During booth the computer hung at this point: Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013136] Performance Counters: Nehalem/Corei7 events, Intel PMU driver. Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013141] ... version: 3 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013142] ... bit width: 48 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013144] ... generic counters: 4 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013146] ... value mask: 0000ffffffffffff Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013147] ... max period: 000000007fffffff Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013149] ... fixed-purpose counters: 3 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.013151] ... counter mask: 000000070000000f Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.015539] ACPI: Core revision 20090521 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.052264] Setting APIC routing to flat Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.052639] ..TIMER: vector=0x30 apic1=0 pin1=2 apic2=-1 pin2=-1 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.152580] CPU0: Intel(R) Core(TM) i7 CPU Q 720 @ 1.60GHz stepping 05 Feb 24 14:23:12 braeburn-laptop kernel: [ 0.270845] Booting processor 1 APIC 0x1 ip 0x6000 I can post a full kern.log of this boot process if requested. Hopefully this is enough information to go on. I should add that I'm still new to configuring and running a Linux OS although I know enough basic command line usage to do software development. This is my attempt to become more familiar with Linux and manage my own system. I'd like to get some insight on the nature of this system hang, what the problem is and how to resolve it. At this point I can scrap the install if I broke something, but my intuition says this is an issue with the kernel recognizing the correct hardware configuration for my system, or perhaps this is an issue with the APIC drivers managing Nehalem's new power management capabilities? Thanks for looking at this issue and providing feed back.

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• Core i7 c1e and speedstepping - BSOD on shutdown

  - by DeaconDesperado

  I'm having an interesting problem with my recent Core i7 Digital Audio workstation build that I am curious to see if others have encountered. First, here are the specs on the machine. ASUS P6TD Deluxe Intel X58 Socket LGA1366 MB Intel Core i7-950 3.06Ghz 8M LGA1366 CPU CORSAIR DOMINATOR 6GB (3 x 2GB) 240-Pin DDR3 SDRAM DDR3 1600 Western Digital Caviar Black WD5001AALS 500GB Plus a couple ASUS optical drives and a 750W Corsair PSU. Running Windows 7 x64. All this is connected to the nefarious Digi 002 firewire audio interface for use with Pro Tools. I following mostly the specs posted by many other I7 users in the digidesign community who pooled their collective knowledge in this thread. Now after completing my build, I fell victim to the "UD5 squeal" described at that forum thread. So taking the advice posted, I disabled c1e advanced halt state and Intel speed stepping (I would likely have done this anyway to maintain a stable clock, power consumption isn't really a relevant concern on this machine.) I enabled XMP to set the ram timings properly as well. What I am experiencing is a BSOD upon shutdown, but only immediately after windows fully exits and ends all processes. The error is a MACHINE_CHECK_EXCEPTION 0x000000. The funny thing is that it is extremely intermitent and only occurs if the shutdown immediately followed a period of relative idleness. It does not a generate a minidump, I suspect because windows monitoring has terminated by the time this error occurs. No damage is evident and one can simply turn off manually and the system will act as though a proper shutdown had occurred. If anything it is a annoyance, I just want to be certain it is not affecting my long term stability. I have read that the i7 950 does not like DRAM voltages past 1.65, but that they are acceptable if they are within .5 of the BLCK setting. I have tried disabling XMP and setting all timings to auto and the problem still manifests in an identical way. It is suspect that the cpu idleness preceding shutdown is the determining factor, as both c1e and speedstepping are both settings intended to modify handling of this state. Any suggestions or prior experiences would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: The behavior very closely resembles what's described in this thread: http://www.tomshardware.com/forum/12003-63-shut-problem-windows The benign nature of it of is identical. I can't seem to download the hotfix cited there however.

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• IE and Google Chrome timeout on an IIS6 hosted SSL page that Firefox handles well

  - by Thomas

  Ok, here's the scenario: Up until a few weeks ago, none of us noticed anything wrong with the corporate website. People were using it without complaint. Then, a client complained that a specific page on the site was timing out for him, and only when he committed a POST action on a form filled with data. I checked it out, and it timed out for me, too. But, it only timed out in Google Chrome and IE, not in Firefox. Additionally, the same page, on the same server, but served from a different domain name (one not under the protection of SSL, either) does not time out under any browser. To clarify: https://www.mysite.com/changes.php times out on POST, but the same with http works fine. That distinction (SSL vs. Non-SSL) seems to be important, as nothing else has changed. Our certificate is valid, and Firefox detects no errors thrown by the page. I've looked at the Request and Response headers from the page, and they all follow the correct formats. Then, after wandering through the site, I noticed a few other things. Both IE and Chrome will frequently time out on any page that is PHP-based. They never time out on static images or html files. I've looked at the site from a variety of different servers, my home and work workstations, and my netbook. Because of that, I've discounted a viral infection, as I highly doubt a virus is going to hit every one of the machines to which I have access in exactly the same manner. My setup is: Server: Win2k3, II6, PHP 5.2.9-1. Clients: IE7, IE8, Chrome (regular and dev channel): Frequent timeouts on PHP pages. Firefox 2, Firefox 3: No timeouts. Firebug shows no errors or even lengthy periods serving the pages. I've spent 2 days searching for any tech knowledge that I can find, and my search parameters are all too general. Everyone has problems loading SSL pages in IE and Chrome for a wide variety of reasons. The infrequent nature of the timeouts and the fact that there are no errors being reported anywhere is starting to drive me insane. Does anyone have any insight on a problem like this?

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• udp expected behaviour not responding to test result

  - by ernst

  I have a local network topology that is structured as follows: three hosts and a switch in the middle. I am using a switch that supports 10,100,1000 Mbit/s full/half duplex connection. I have configured the hosts with a static ip 172.16.0.1-2-3/25. This is the output of ifconfig eth0 Link encap: Ethernet HWaddr ***** inet addr:172.16.0.3 Bcast:172.16.0.127 Mask:255.255.255.128 UP BROADCAST MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:0 (0.0 B) TX bytes:0 (0.0 B) Interrupt:16 The output on H1 and H2 is perfectly matchable They are mutually reachable since i have tested the network with ping. I have forced the ethernet interface to work at 10M with ethtool -s eth0 speed 10 duplex full autoneg on this is the output of ethtool eth0 supported ports: [ TP ] Supported link modes: 10baseT/Half 10baseT/Full 100baseT/Half 100baseT/Full 1000baseT/Half 1000baseT/Full S upported pause frame use: No Supports auto-negotiation: Yes Advertised link modes: 10baseT/Full Advertised pause frame use: Symmetric A dvertised auto-negotiation: Yes Speed: 10Mb/s Duplex: Full Port: Twisted Pair PHYAD: 1 Transceiver: internal Auto-negotiation: on MDI-X: Unknown Supports Wake-on: g Wake-on: d Current message level: 0x000000ff (255) drv probe link timer ifdown ifup rx_err tx_err Link detected: yes – I am doing an experimental test using nttcp to calculate the GOODPUT in the case that H1 and H2 at the same time send data to H3. Since the three links have the same forced capability and the amount of arrving data speed is 10 from H1+10 from H2--20M to H3 it would be expected a bottleneck effect and, due to the non reliable nature of udp, a packet loss. But this doesn't appen since the output of nttcp application shows the same number of byte sended and received. this is the output of nttcp on h3 nttcp -T -r -u 172.16.0.2 & nttcp -T -r -u 172.16.0.1 [1] 4071 Bytes Real s CPU s Real-MBit/s CPU-MBit/s Calls Real-C/s CPU-C/s l 8388608 13.74 0.05 4.8848 1398.0140 2049 149.14 42684.8 Bytes Real s CPU s Real-MBit/s CPU-MBit/s Calls Real-C/s CPU-C/s l 8388608 14.02 0.05 4.7872 1398.0140 2049 146.17 42684.8 1 8388608 13.56 0.06 4.9500 1118.4065 2051 151.28 34181.1 1 8388608 13.89 0.06 4.8310 1198.3084 2051 147.65 36623.0 – How is this possible? Am i missing something? Any help will be gratefully apprecciated, Best regards

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• A dusty server room

  - by pauska

  Here's the story.. The owners of the building we lease office space from decided to do a renovation of the exterior. This involved in some pretty heavy work at the level where our server room is, including exchanging windows wich are fit inside a concrete wall. My red alert went off when I heard that they were going to do the same thing with our server room (yes, our server room has a window. We're a small shop with 3 racks. The window is secured with steel bars.) I explicity told the contractor that they need to put up a temporarily wall between our racks and the original wall - and to make sure that the temporary wall is 100 % air and water-tight. They promised to do so. The temporary wall has a small door in it, so that workers can go in/out through the day (through our server room, wich was the only option....). On several occasions I could find the small door half-way shut while working evenings/nights. I locked the door, and thought that they would hopefully get the point soon and keep the door shut. I even gave a electrician a mouthful when I saw that he didn't close the door properly. By this point - I bet that most of you get a picture of what happened. Yes, they probably left the door open while drilling in the concrete. I present you our 4 weeks old EMC VNX: I'll even put in a little bonus, here is the APC UPS one rack further away from the temporary wall. See the nice little landing strip from my finger? What should I do? The only thing that comes to mind is to either call all our suppliers (EMC, HP, Dell, Cisco) and get them to send technicians to check out all the gear in the server room, or get some kind of certified 3rd-party consulant to check all of it. Would you run production systems on this gear? How long? Edit: I should also note that our aircondition isn't exactly enterprise-grade, given the nature of our small room. It's just a single inverter, wich have failed one time before I started working here (failed inverters usually leads to water dripping out).

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• Virtualbox - routing subnet to bridge adapters

  - by user42384

  Hello, I have set up a Debian Lenny box with 3 vbox Lenny machines running eth0 of the host in bridged mode (on virtualbox 3.1.6). When testing in my local LAN, this all worked perfectly well and traffic flowed to and from the IPs of the virtual machines as it should. However, now that it's in its co-lo home, the networking setup is a bit different, and I'm unable to get traffic to flow to the vboxes properly. Specifically, the host has its own Primary IP, and I have a separate subnet of 8 (6 usable) IPs routed to the box for use by the vboxes. So, eth0 on host is: Machine IP: 2x.x.x.137 Gateway IP: 2x.x.x.138 Subnet Msk: 255.255.255.252 Subnet for vboxes is Subnet: 2x.x.x.240/29 Netmask: 255.255.255.248 vbox1 is configured to 2x.x.x.241 on eth0 as follows: auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 2x.x.x.241 netmask 255.255.255.248 Setting up a virtual interface (eth0:0) on the host with one of these subnet IPs allows me to ping to that address only from vbox1, and it allows me to ping vbox1 from the host. I can also ping that virtual interface perfectly well from outside, so the IPs are definitely landing at my machine. It seems I'm missing some sort of routing instruction either on the host or vbox1 to get traffic moving between the subnet and the default gateway, but I can't seem to figure out what it should be, or what glaringly obvious thing i'm missing. Most of my obvious attempts (the gw of eth0, the ip of eth0) were rejected by route command with SIOCADDRT: No such device (eg - i can't find it). I tried setting vbox1 to bridge on eth0:0, but this was not an acceptable device name and VBoxHeadless refused to start. The physical machine does have an unused physical NIC at eth1 that can be used if necessary for something or other. Host machine is running iptables configured by ferm, have experimented with it allowing forwarding for that subnet, but I wouldn't have thought this was necessary given the nature of the virtualbox devices (nor did it actually work). Clearing out all of these rules for a blank iptables set does not resolve the issue. (you can see ferm generated iptables at http://codedumper.com/ojaze) Thanks for any help you can give... Patrick

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• Should I choose KVM/XEN over OpenVZ or use them together?

  - by Krystian

  I've got a dual xeon e5504 server, with [for now] only 8GB of ram. Storage is'n impressive either: 3x 146GB sas in raid5 + 500GB sata drives. Currently it works as a development server, but it's over speced for our needs and since our development methods changed through last 2 years we decided it will work as a production system for some of our applications + we would like to have a separate system for testing/research. Our apps are mainly web apps deployed on tomcats [plural as some of the apps require older versions] and connected to Postgres. I would like to have a production system, where only httpd+tomcat+db are setup and nothing else runs there. Sterile system. Apart from that, I would like a test system, where I can play with different JVM settings, deploy my test apps, play with tomcat/httpd settings and restart them without interfering with the production system. Apart from that, I would like to be able to play with different linux flavors, with newer kernels to test how they work etc. I know, this is not possible with OpenVZ and I would have to choose KVM for that. I am thinking about merging the two, and setting up a KVM to be able to work with different systems [linux only to be frank] + use openVZ to setup separate machines for my development needs. I would simply go with that, but reading here and there about the performance impact full virtualization has over containers and looking at the specs of my server makes me think twice about it. I don't want to loose too much performance, especially because of the nature of my apps [few JVMs running at the same time]. It will be my first time with virtualization, apart from using desktop virtualbox/vmserver. Although I am a fast learner I don't want to mess with the main system so much that it will break the production apps or make them crawl. Although they are more or less internal apps and they don't produce much load, they need to be stable. I've read, that KVM host is a normal linux installation and it allows to run normal processes on it. If that is so, does it allow to run openVZ as well? I mean... can I have KVM and OpenVZ running on the same system/kernel? Or do I have to setup another system to run OpenVZ containers? How much performance impact can this have for me? Will my hardware suffice? oh and one more thing... unfortunately I'm quite limited with the funds... I'm looking for a free solution only :/

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• Fluid CSS: floating column with max-width and overflow

  - by Ates Goral

  I'm using a fluid layout in the new theme that I'm working on for my blog. I often blog about code and include <pre> blocks within the posts. The float: left column for the content area has a max-width so that the column stops at a certain maximum width and can also be shrunk: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | +----------+ +------+ max shrunk What I want is for the <pre> elements to be wider than the text column so that I can fit 80-character-wrapped code without horizontal scroll bars. But I want the <pre> elements to overflow from the content area, without affecting its fluidity: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | | | | | +----------+--+ +------+------+ | code | | code | +----------+--+ +------+------+ | | | | +----------+ +------+ max shrunk But, max-width stops being fluid once I insert the overhanging <pre> in there: the width of the column remains at the specified max-width even when I shrink the browser beyond that width. I've reproduced the issue with this bare-minimum scenario: <div style="float: left; max-width: 460px; border: 1px solid red"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit</p> <pre style="max-width: 700px; border: 1px solid blue"> function foo() { // Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit } </pre> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit</p> </div> I noticed that doing either of the following brings back the fluidity: Remove the <pre> (doh...) Remove the float: left The workaround I'm currently using is to insert the <pre> elements into "breaks" in the post column, so that the widths of the post segments and the <pre> segments are managed mutually exclusively: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | +----------+ +------+ +-------------+ +-------------+ | code | | code | +-------------+ +-------------+ +----------+ +------+ +----------+ +------+ max shrunk But this forces me to insert additional closing and opening <div> elements into the post markup which I'd rather keep semantically pristine. Admittedly, I don't have a full grasp of how the box model works with floats with overflowing content, so I don't understand why the combination of float: left on the container and the <pre> inside it cripple the max-width of the container. I'm observing the same problem on Firefox/Chrome/Safari/Opera. IE6 (the crazy one) seems happy all the time. This also doesn't seem dependent on quirks/standards mode. Update I've done further testing to observe that max-width seems to get ignored when the element has a float: left. I glanced at the W3C box model chapter but couldn't immediately see an explicit mention of this behaviour. Any pointers?

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• Dojo extending dojo.dnd.Source, move not happening. Ideas?

  - by Soulhuntre

  Hey all, Ok... I have a simple dojo page with the bare essentials. Three UL's with some LI's in them. The idea si to allow drag-n-drop among them but if any UL goes empty due to the last item being dragged out, I will put up a message to the user to gie them some instructions. In order to do that, I wanted to extend the dojo.dnd.Source dijit and add some intelligence. It seemed easy enough. To keep things simple (I am loading Dojo from a CDN) I am simply declating my extension as opposed to doing full on module load. The declaration function is here... function declare_mockupSmartDndUl(){ dojo.require("dojo.dnd.Source"); dojo.provide("mockup.SmartDndUl"); dojo.declare("mockup.SmartDndUl", dojo.dnd.Source, { markupFactory: function(params, node){ //params._skipStartup = true; return new mockup.SmartDndUl(node, params); }, onDndDrop: function(source, nodes, copy){ console.debug('onDndDrop!'); if(this == source){ // reordering items console.debug('moving items from us'); // DO SOMETHING HERE }else{ // moving items to us console.debug('moving items to us'); // DO SOMETHING HERE } console.debug('this = ' + this ); console.debug('source = ' + source ); console.debug('nodes = ' + nodes); console.debug('copy = ' + copy); return dojo.dnd.Source.prototype.onDndDrop.call(this, source, nodes, copy); } }); } I have a init function to use this to decorate the lists... dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ declare_mockupSmartDndUl(); if(dojo.byId('list1')){ //new mockup.SmartDndUl(dojo.byId('list1')); new dojo.dnd.Source(dojo.byId('list1')); } if(dojo.byId('list2')){ new mockup.SmartDndUl(dojo.byId('list2')); //new dojo.dnd.Source(dojo.byId('list2')); } if(dojo.byId('list3')){ new mockup.SmartDndUl(dojo.byId('list3')); //new dojo.dnd.Source(dojo.byId('list3')); } }); It is fine as far as it goes, you will notice I left "list1" as a standard dojo dnd source for testing. The problem is this - list1 will happily accept items from lists 2 & 3 who will move or copy as apprriate. However lists 2 & 3 refuce to accept items from list1. It is as if the DND operation is being cancelled, but the debugger does show the dojo.dnd.Source.prototype.onDndDrop.call happening, and the paramaters do look ok to me. Now, the documentation here is really weak, so the example I took some of this from may be way out of date (I am using 1.4). Can anyone fill me in on what might be the issue with my extension dijit? Thanks!

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• Populate Multiple PDFs

  - by gmcalab

  I am using itextsharp to populate my PDFs. I have no issues with this. Basically what I am doing is getting the PDF and populating the fields in memory then passing back the MemoryStream to be displayed on a webpage. All this is working with a single document PDF. What I am trying to figure out now, is merging multiple PDFs into one MemoryStream. The part I cant figure out is, the documents I am populating are identical. So for example, I have a List<Person> that contains 5 persons. I want to fill out a PDF for each person and merge them all into one, in memory. Bare in mind I am going to fill out the same type of document for each person. The problem I am getting is that when I try to add a second copy of the same PDF to be filled out for the second iteration, it just overwrites the first populated PDF, since it's the same document, therefore not adding a second copy for the second Person at all. So basically if I had the 5 people, I would end up with a single page with the data of the 5th person, instead of a PDF with 5 like pages that contain the data of each person respectively. Here's some code... MemoryStream ms = ms = new MemoryStream(); PdfReader docReader = null; PdfStamper Stamper = null; List<Person> persons = new List<Person>() { new Person("Larry", "David"), new Person("Dustin", "Byfuglien"), new Person("Patrick", "Kane"), new Person("Johnathan", "Toews"), new Person("Marian", "Hossa") }; try { // Iterate thru all persons and populate a PDF for each foreach(var person in persons){ PdfCopyFields Copier = new PdfCopyFields(ms); Copier.AddDocument(GetReader("Person.pdf")); Copier.Close(); docReader = new PdfReader(ms.ToArray()); Stamper = new PdfStamper(docReader, ms); AcroFields Fields = Stamper.AcroFields; Fields.SetField("FirstName", person.FirstName); } }catch(Exception e){ // handle error }finally{ if (Stamper != null) { Stamper.Close(); } if (docReader != null) { docReader.Close(); } }

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• Git for Websites / post-receive / Separation of Test and Production Sites

  - by Walt W

  Hi all, I'm using Git to manage my website's source code and deployment, and currently have the test and live sites running on the same box. Following this resource http://toroid.org/ams/git-website-howto originally, I came up with the following post-receive hook script to differentiate between pushes to my live site and pushes to my test site: while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH checkout -f master echo "Updated master" ;; refs/heads/testbranch ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH2 checkout -f testbranch echo "Updated testbranch" ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" However, I have doubts that this is actually safe :) I'm by no means a Git expert, but I am guessing that Git probably keeps track of the current checked-out branch head, and this approach probably has the potential to confuse it to no end. So a few questions: IS this safe? Would a better approach be to have my base repository be the test site repository (with corresponding working directory), and then have that repository push changes to a new live site repository, which has a corresponding working directory to the live site base? This would also allow me to move the production to a different server and keep the deployment chain intact. Is there something I'm missing? Is there a different, clean way to differentiate between test and production deployments when using Git for managing websites? As an additional note in light of Vi's answer, is there a good way to do this that would handle deletions without mucking with the file system much? Thank you, -Walt PS - The script I came up with for the multiple repos (and am using unless I hear better) is as follows: sitename=`basename \`pwd\`` while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git checkout -q -f master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Test Site checked out properly" else echo "Failed to checkout test site!" fi ;; refs/heads/live-site ) git push -q ../Live/$sitename live-site:master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live Site received updates properly" else echo "Failed to push updates to Live Site" fi ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" And then the repo in ../Live/$sitename (these are "bare" repos with working trees added after init) has the basic post-receive: git checkout -f if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live site `basename \`pwd\`` checked out successfully" else echo "Live site failed to checkout" fi

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• Login Script for PostGreSQL and PHP not working =[

  - by MrEnder

  Ok I'm quite new at logins what not so bare with me here lol but I gota learn so don't discourage me. I tried this so far <?php $error = ""; $conn = pg_connect("host=localhost dbname=brittains_db user=brittains password=XXXX" ); $sql = "SELECT * FROM logins"; $result = pg_query($conn, $sql); if($_SERVER["REQUEST_METHOD"] == "GET") { $userName=""; $password=""; } else if($_SERVER["REQUEST_METHOD"] == "POST") { $userName=trim($_POST["userNameLogin"]); $password=trim($_POST["passwordLogin"]); if(pg_fetch_result($results, $userName, "userName")==true && pg_fetch_result($results, $password, "userName")==true) { setcookie("userIDforDV", $userName, time()+43200); } else { $error = "Your username and or password is incorrect"; } } $userName = $_COOKIE['userIDforDV']; if(isset($userName) && $userName!="") { echo "Welcome " . $userName; } echo $error; ?> <form> <table> <tr> <td class="signupTd"> User Name:&nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="text" name="userNameLogin" value="" size="20" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="signupTd"> Password:&nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="password" name="passwordLogin" value="" size="20" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="signupTd" colspan="2"> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> </form> that was the idea I came up with... but its prolly a really bad idea and it doesn't work... how might I go about this properly? I need really detailed descriptions please. Thanks a tun Shelby

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