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  • Client no longer getting data from Web Service after introducing targetNamespace in XSD

    - by Laurence
    Sorry if there is way too much info in this post – there’s a load of story before I get to the actual problem. I thought I‘d include everything that might be relevant as I don’t have much clue what is wrong. I had a working web service and client (both written with VS 2008 in C#) for passing product data to an e-commerce site. The XSD started like this: <xs:schema id="Ecommerce" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/Ecommerce.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:element name="eur"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element ref="sec" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"/> </xs:sequence> etc Here’s a sample document sent from client to service: <eur xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T17:16:34.523" version="1.1"> <sec guid="BFBACB3C-4C17-4786-ACCF-96BFDBF32DA5" company_name="Company" version="1.1"> <data /> </sec> </eur> Then, I had to give the service a targetNamespace. Actually I don’t know if I “had” to set it, but I added (to the same VS project) some code to act as a client to a completely unrelated service (which also had no namespace), and the project would not build until I gave my service a namespace. Now the XSD starts like this: <xs:schema id="Ecommerce" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:mstns="http://tempuri.org/Ecommerce.xsd" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" xmlns:ecom="http://www. company.com/ecommerce"> <xs:element name="eur"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element ref="ecom:sec" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" /> </xs:sequence> etc As you can see above I also updated all the xs:element ref attributes to give them the “ecom” prefix. Now the project builds again. I found the client needed some modification after this. The client uses a SQL stored procedure to generate the XML. This is then de-serialised into an object of the correct type for the service’s “get_data” method. The object’s type used to be “eur” but after updating the web reference to the service, it became “get_dataEur”. And sure enough the parent element in the XML had to be changed to “get_dataEur” to be accepted. Then bizarrely I also had to put the xmlns attribute containing my namespace on the “sec” element (the immediate child of the parent element) rather than the parent element. Here’s a sample document now sent from client to service: <get_dataEur xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:23:20.653" version="1.1"> <sec xmlns="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" guid="BFBACB3C-4C17-4786-ACCF-96BFDBF32DA5" company_name="Company" version="1.1"> <data /> </sec> </get_dataEur> If in the service’s get_data method I then serialize the incoming object I see this (the parent element is “eur” and the xmlns attribute is on the parent element): <eur xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:23:20.653" version="1.1"> <sec guid="BFBACB3C-4C17-4786-ACCF-96BFDBF32DA5" company_name="Company" version="1.1"> <data /> </sec> </eur> The service then prepares a reply to go back to the client. The XML looks like this (the important data being sent back is the date_stamp attribute in the last_sent element): <eur xmlns="http://www.company.com/ecommerce" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:22:57.530" version="1.1"> <sec version="1.1" xmlns=""> <data> <last_sent date_stamp="2010-02-25T15:15:10.193" /> </data> </sec> </eur> Now finally, here’s the problem!!! The client does not see any data – all it sees is the parent element with nothing inside it. If I serialize the reply object in the client code it looks like this: <get_dataResponseEur xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" class="ECommerce_WebService" type="product" method="GetLastDateSent" chunk_no="1" total_chunks="1" date_stamp="2010-03-10T18:22:57.53" version="1.1" /> So, my questions are: why isn’t my client seeing the contents of the reply document? how do I fix it? why do I have to put the xmlns attribute on a child element rather than the parent element in the outgoing document? Here’s a bit more possibly relevant info: The client code (pre-namespace) called the service method like this: XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(eur)); XmlReader reader = xml.CreateReader(); eur eur = (eur)serializer.Deserialize(reader); service.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(login, pwd); service.Url = url; rc = service.get_data(ref eur); After the namespace was added I had to change it to this: XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(get_dataEur)); XmlReader reader = xml.CreateReader(); get_dataEur eur = (get_dataEur)serializer.Deserialize(reader); get_dataResponseEur eur1 = new get_dataResponseEur(); service.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(login, pwd); service.Url = url; rc = service.get_data(eur, out eur1);

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  • Determine modifier key state without an InputEvent object in Java

    - by heycam
    I need to determine the current state of the Shift key, but at the time I need the state I don't have an InputEvent object around. I need something like java.awt.Toolkit.getLockingKeyState(int) that works for Shift, not just the locking keys like VK_CAPS_LOCK. Is there a way I can do this without listening to input events and storing the for later when I need to check the state? Thanks!

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  • converting bash script to .bat

    - by Robokop
    #!/bin/bash function usage(){ cat <<EOF USAGE: $0 [strategylist] valid strategies are: ALLD ALLC TitForTat JOSS WeightedRandom Tester EOF exit 1 } [ -z $1 ] && usage javac robsAgents/*.java robsAgents/behaviours/*.java agentlist='leader:robsAgents.TournamentLeader' agentlist=$agentlist";$1:robsAgents.Contestant" while shift; do agentlist=$agentlist";$1:robsAgents.Contestant" done java jade.Boot -gui -host 127.0.0.1 "$agentlist" i have above bash script and have no access to a windows computer and i need to convert it to a .bat file, but don't even know how to do the shift and argument parsing

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  • python imaging library draw text new line how to?

    - by joven
    i have a word that will be putted on a image but the problem is that the word continues even though the word exceeds the width of the image is there anyway that the word shift's down if the word exceeds the width of the image or on a certain point the word shift's down if it exceeds the given point

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  • How to optimize perl code for directory exists or not ?

    - by SCNCN2010
    sub DirectoryExists { my $param = shift; # Remove first element of the array shift @{$param}; # Loop through each directory to see if it exists foreach my $directory (@{$param}) { unless (-e $directory && -d $directory) { return 0; } } # True return 1; } is there any way to optimize this code ? is there any good way to optimize this code

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  • Is there a [Go to file...] in Xcode?

    - by Mike
    In every modern day IDE and text editor, there is an action to open a file without putting your hand on the mouse. For example: Eclipse: Cmd|Ctrl+Shift+R - Open Resource IntellIJ: Cmd|Ctrl+Shift+N - Open File TextMate: Cmd+T - Go to File In Xcode, I have found no such options. Please, please tell me I just overlooked it in my growing frustration. Is there a "Go to file" or "Open File" shortcut in Xcode?

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  • Job conditions conflicting with personal principles on software-development - how much is too much?

    - by Baelnorn
    Sorry for the incoming wall'o'text (and for my probably bad English) but I just need to get this off somehow. I also accept that this question will be probably closed as subjective and argumentative, but I need to know one thing: "how much BS are programmers supposed to put up with before breaking?" My background I'm 27 years old and have a B.Sc. in Computer engineering with a graduation grade of 1.8 from a university of applied science. I went looking for a job right after graduation. I got three offers right away, with two offers paying vastly more than the last one, but that last one seemed more interesting so I went for that. My situation I've been working for the company now for 17 months now, but it feels like a drag more and more each day. Primarily because the company (which has only 5 other developers but me, and of these I work with 4) turned out to be pretty much the anti-thesis of what I expected (and was taught in university) from a modern software company. I agreed to accept less than half of the usual payment appropriate for my qualification for the first year because I was promised a trainee program. However, the trainee program turned out to be "here you got a computer, there's some links on the stuff we use, and now do what you colleagues tell you". Further, during my whole time there (trainee or not) I haven't been given the grace of even a single code-review - apparently nobody's interested in my work as long as it "just works". I was told in the job interview that "Microsoft technology played a central role in the company" yet I've been slowly eroding my congnitive functions with Flex/Actionscript/Cairngorm ever since I started (despite having applied as a C#/.NET developer). Actually, the company's primary projects are based on Java/XSLT and Flex/Actionscript (with some SAP/ABAP stuff here and there but I'm not involved in that) and they've been working on these before I even applied. Having had no experience either with that particular technology nor the framework nor the field (RIA) nor in developing business scale applications I obviously made several mistakes. However, my boss told me that he let me make those mistakes (which ate at least 2 months of development time on their own) on purpose to provide some "learning experience". Even when I was still a trainee I was already tasked with working on a business-critical application. On my own. Without supervision. Without code-reviews. My boss thinks agile methods are a waste of time/money and deems putting more than one developer on any project not efficient. Documentation is not necessary and each developer should only document what he himself needs for his work. Recently he wanted us to do bug tracking with Excel and Email instead of using an already existing Bugzilla, overriding an unanimous decision made by all developers and testers involved in the process - only after another senior developer had another hour-long private discussion with him he agreed to let us use the bugtracker. Project management is basically not present, there are only a few Excel sheets floating around where the senior developer lists some things (not all, mind you) with a time estimate ranging from days to months, trying to at least somehow organize the whole mess. A development process is also basically not present, each developer just works on his own however he wants. There are not even coding conventions in the company. Testing is done manually with a single tester (sometimes two testers) per project because automated testing wasn't given the least thought when the whole project was started. I guess it's not a big surprise when I say that each developer also has his own share of hundreds of overhours (which are, of course, unpaid). Each developer is tasked with working on his own project(s) which in turn leads to a very extensive knowledge monopolization - if one developer was to have an accident or become ill there would be absolutely no one who could even hope to do his work. Considering that each developer has his own business-critical application to work on, I guess that's a pretty bad situation. I've been trying to change things for the better. I tried to introduce a development process, but my first attempt was pretty much shot down by my boss with "I don't want to discuss agile methods". After that I put together a process that at least resembled how most of the developers were already working and then include stuff like automated (or at least organized) testing, coding conventions, etc. However, this was also shot down because it wasn't "simple" enought to be shown on a business slide (actually, I wasn't even given the 15 minutes I'd have needed to present the process in the meeting). My problem I can't stand working there any longer. Seriously, I consider to resign on monday, which still leaves me with 3 months to work there due to the cancelation period. My primary goal since I started studying computer science was being a good computer scientist, working with modern technologies and adhering to modern and proven principles and methods. However, the company I'm working for seems to make that impossible. Some days I feel as if was living in a perverted real-life version of the Dilbert comics. My question Am I overreacting? Is this the reality each graduate from university has to face? Should I betray my sound principles and just accept these working conditions? Or should I gtfo of there? What's the opinion of other developers on this matter. Would you put up with all that stuff?

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  • Directory name for non-generic Proprietary stuff

    - by George Bailey
    Is there a common or standard directory name for the company-specific stuff that exists in a server? This would include any crons, scripts, webserver docroots, programs, non-database storage areas, service codebases, etc. We could of course put crons in /etc/cron.d, put docroots in /home/webservd, scripts in one of the bin directories, but that would be messy. If XYZ Technology Corp wanted to have all the non-generic stuff in one place, would they make a directory /xyz or /home/xyz or is there an alternative directory name that is not company-specific, but intended for company-specific stuff? What is most common?

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  • How to handle external and internal DNS on windows 2012

    - by ThePopcorn
    I'm trying to setup an Active Directory network on Server 2012 R2, and want AD's DNS to only be used internally (Ex: domain-controller.company.com) as well as some records that need both internal and external accessibility (Ex: mail.company.com) that use internal IP's on the internal network and finally some records that only need external access. The only solutions i have been able to think of, or look up are to either use a sub domain that handles all internal records, and use the plain company.com domain for all external records. These both seem to mean i have to manage two DNS servers separately. Is either of these the best ways or am i messing up somewhere?

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  • Rsyslog mail module not working

    - by Henry-Nicolas Tourneur
    Hi *, I would like to email snort alerts from my Debian Lenny fw. Syslog is sending log messages from the firewalls to a central rsyslog. On my central rsyslog, I got something like : $ModLoad ommail $ActionMailSMTPServer server.company.local $ActionMailFrom [email protected] $ActionMailTo [email protected] $ActionExecOnlyOnceEveryInterval 1 $template mailSubject,"[SNORT] Alert from %hostname%" $template mailBody,"Snort message\r\nmsg='%msg%'" $ActionMailSubject mailSubject if $msg regexp 'snort[[0-9]]: [[0-9]:[0-9]:[0-9]].*' then ommail:;mailBody But I doesn't get any mails, I even can trigger snort with something like ping -s 1400, it logs things like following but still no mail ! 2010-01-08T09:25:58+00:00 Hostname snort[4429]: [1:499:4] ICMP Large ICMP Packet [Classification: Potentially Bad Traffic] [Priority: 2]: {ICMP} ip_dest - ip_src Any idea ?

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  • Can I setup a link SQL server connection between servers on different networks?

    - by Glenn Slaven
    We have a production SQL server hosted offsite at a hosting company, and we have a staging environment within our own network. We want to be able to setup a SQL job that copies content from a table on the staging server to prod on a regular basis, and I think we need to setup a linked server connection to do this. What do I need to get the hosting company to do to allow us to set this up? We have RDP access to the production servers, I just need to know what network and security configurations need to happen from the hosting company's perspective so I can ask them to do it.

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  • Citrix Secure Gateway not redirecting to login URL

    - by Dave
    We have an older setup for XenApp - users log in through Citrix Secure Gateway running on a windows box. (We hope to start using a NetScaler soon.) Earlier today, connections to https://citrix.company.com/ starting throwing up a 503 error page, instead of redirecting to https://citrix.company.com/Citrix/XenApp/ If you go directly to the /Citrix/Xenapp/ URL, the user is properly directed to the login page, and can launch apps. We've restarted the service, and rebooted the server. We haven't yet tried uninstalling and reinstalling the software. Before we do this, I'm looking for ideas as to how we can get the redirect working again without a fairly major outage window. To make things more interesting, many of our users have Citrix Receiver installed, also pointed at https://citrix.company.com/. Receiver makes itself the default launcher for ICA files, and gives a connection error when it tries to load apps - probably because of the same non-functional rediect?

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  • Change the order of DNS lookup when connected in the VPN

    - by qwerty2010
    Using Windows 7 Pro here. I have my LAN network adapter with DNS server 8.8.8.8 (Google's DNS). I also have OpenVPN client to connect to my company's network. If I type "nslookup" while disconnected from the VPN, I get 8.8.8.8 (from my LAN network adapter). If I type "nslookup" while connected in the VPN, I get the DNS IP from my company's network. That makes me think that when connected to the VPN all DNS's resolution are routed first to my company's DNS. How can I change this order, and make the DNS resolution be routed to 8.8.8.8 first, when I'm connected to the VPN? Thank you

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  • Cannot activate windows 7

    - by Charlie
    I can't activate Windows 7, I get an error saying DNS name does not exist. Is something configured incorrectly somewhere? PS: I need the answer within 13 days ;) UPDATE: I had upgraded from my company's Windows Vista build, and when I connect to the company VPN and activate I get a different error: The Software Licensing Service reported that the computer could not be activated. No Key Management Service (KMS) could be contacted. Please see the Application Event Log for additional information. The Application Event Log contains this (I took out the server name, it's one of the company servers): The client has sent an activation request to the key management service machine. Info: 0xC004F042, 0x00000000, xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx.com:1688, 7fbdc9b7-d654-49ed-80a7-81a34408f8dc, 2009/09/01 10:59, 0, 2, 17880, ae2ee509-1b34-41c0-acb7-6d4650168915, 25

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  • Rsyslog mail module not working

    - by Henry-Nicolas Tourneur
    I would like to email snort alerts from my Debian Lenny fw. Syslog is sending log messages from the firewalls to a central rsyslog. On my central rsyslog, I got something like : $ModLoad ommail $ActionMailSMTPServer server.company.local $ActionMailFrom [email protected] $ActionMailTo [email protected] $ActionExecOnlyOnceEveryInterval 1 $template mailSubject,"[SNORT] Alert from %hostname%" $template mailBody,"Snort message\r\nmsg='%msg%'" $ActionMailSubject mailSubject if $msg regexp 'snort[[0-9]]: [[0-9]:[0-9]:[0-9]].*' then ommail:;mailBody But I doesn't get any mails, I even can trigger snort with something like ping -s 1400, it logs things like following but still no mail ! 2010-01-08T09:25:58+00:00 Hostname snort[4429]: [1:499:4] ICMP Large ICMP Packet [Classification: Potentially Bad Traffic] [Priority: 2]: {ICMP} ip_dest - ip_src Any idea ?

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  • FoxPro 2.6 DOS on Windows 7 64-bit

    - by Rolando
    I support a company that has a very old, mission critical, FoxPro for DOS 2.6 (FPD) application. For variuos reasons the company didn't adapt/migrate their app, which, ironically, has been running even better under Windows XP (and 32-bit Win7) because the OS allowed new features like more reliable networking, distributed printing, email integration. Unfortunately for this company, most new machines now come with a 64-bit version of Windows 7, which is incompatible with their FPD app. I know this time the writing is on the wall: the only long-term solution is to migrate their app. But I wonder if anyone can suggest a temporary alternative path, which doesn't involve either: a) downgrade 64-bit Windows to 32-bit, or b) run the app on a virtualized 32-bit XP Thanks! PS: Happy New Year!!!

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  • FoxPro 2.6 DOS on Windows 7 64-bit

    - by Rolando
    I support a company that has a very old, mission critical, FoxPro for DOS 2.6 (FPD) application. For variuos reasons the company didn't adapt/migrate their app, which, ironically, has been running even better under Windows XP (and 32-bit Win7) because the OS allowed new features like more reliable networking, distributed printing, email integration. Unfortunately for this company, most new machines now come with a 64-bit version of Windows 7, which is incompatible with their FPD app. I know this time the writing is on the wall: the only long-term solution is to migrate their app. But I wonder if anyone can suggest a temporary alternative path, which doesn't involve either: a) downgrade 64-bit Windows to 32-bit, or b) run the app on a virtualized 32-bit XP Thanks! PS: Happy New Year!!!

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  • How to selectively route network traffic through VPN on Mac OSX Leopard?

    - by newtonapple
    I don't want to send all my network traffic down to VPN when I'm connected to my company's network (via VPN) from home. For example, when I'm working from home, I would like to be able to backup my all files to the Time Capsule at home and still be able to access the company's internal network. I'm using Leopard's built-in VPN client. I've tried unchecking "Send all traffic over VPN connection." If I do that I will lose access to my company's internal websites be it via curl or the web browser (though internal IPs are still reachable). It'd be ideal if I can selectively choose a set of IPs or domains to be routed through VPN and keep the rest on my own network. Is this achievable with Leopard's built-in VPN client? If you have any software recommendations, I'd like to hear them as well.

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  • apache 2.4 php-fpm proxypassmatch for pretty urls

    - by tubaguy50035
    I have a URL like http://newsymfony.dev/app_dev.php/_profiler/5080653d965eb. I would like to send this script to PHP-FPM. I currently have this as my vhost: VirtualHost *:80> ServerName newsymfony.dev DocumentRoot /home/COMPANY/nwalke/www/newsymfony.dev/web/ ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error_log LogLevel info CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access_log combined <Directory /home/COMPANY/nwalke/www/newsymfony.dev/web/> AllowOverride All Require all granted DirectoryIndex app.php </Directory> ProxyPassMatch ^/(.*\.php)$ fcgi://127.0.0.1:9003/home/COMPANY/nwalke/www/newsymfony.dev/web/$1 </VirtualHost> If I browse to app_dev.php it works just fine. But if I do app_dev.php/_profiler/5080653d965eb I get a 404 and the request never gets sent to FPM. How can I alter my ProxyPassMatch to pass anything with .php in the URL? I'm trying to do this with Symfony, but I'm pretty sure it applies to everything.

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  • How should I isolate computers with different roles on a network

    - by fishhead
    I work in an industrial plant and we have one network(physical wire) that us used for both office usage and for process systems. The office computers are only used for typical office needs but occasionally do connect to the process computers to obtain information from a sql server or for some other purpose. A new initiative is in the works and is rolling down hill from corporate and that is to standardize how the the computers are used at work and they would be severely locked down and only a standard set of applications will be allowed to execute. one of the requirements is to also have non office computers isolated from the company domain. our non-office computers are a mix of Man-Machine interfaces and sql-servers all running software that non standard. My question is, how can we divorce the control systems computers from the company domain but still have access to the servers from the company domain. thanks

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  • How should I isolate computers with different roles on a network

    - by fishhead
    I work in an industrial plant and we have one network(physical wire) that us used for both office usage and for process systems. The office computers are only used for typical office needs but occasionally do connect to the process computers to obtain information from a sql server or for some other purpose. A new initiative is in the works and is rolling down hill from corporate and that is to standardize how the the computers are used at work and they would be severely locked down and only a standard set of applications will be allowed to execute. one of the requirements is to also have non office computers isolated from the company domain. our non-office computers are a mix of Man-Machine interfaces and sql-servers all running software that non standard. My question is, how can we divorce the control systems computers from the company domain but still have access to the servers from the company domain. thanks

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  • How to use private DNS to map private IP with "non registred" domain name

    - by PapelPincel
    I would like to use a private DNS (Route53 in our case) in order to map hosts to EC2 instance private IP addresse. The hosted zone we are using for testing is not declared in any registrar (company-test.com.). There are different servers (Nagios, Puppet, ActiveMQ ...) all hosted in ec2, that means their IP can change over time (restart, new instance launch...). That would be great if I can use DNS instead of clients' /etc/hosts for mapping private IP/internal domain name... The ActiveMQ server url is activemq.company-test.com and it maps to (A record) private IP address of the AMQ server. This url is only reachable by other ec2 owned by the same aws account. My question is how to configure ec2 instances so they could reach the ActiveMQ server WITHOUT having to buy a new domain company-test.com ?

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  • Change the order of DNS lookup when connected in the VPN

    - by qwerty2010
    Hi, Using Windows 7 Pro here. I have my LAN network adapter with DNS server 8.8.8.8 (Google's DNS). I also have OpenVPN client to connect to my company's network. If I type "nslookup" while disconnected from the VPN, I get 8.8.8.8 (from my LAN network adapter). If I type "nslookup" while connected in the VPN, I get the DNS IP from my company's network. That makes me think that when connected to the VPN all DNS's resolution are routed first to my company's DNS. How can I change this order, and make the DNS resolution be routed to 8.8.8.8 first, when I'm connected to the VPN? Thank you

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  • How can I mitigate DNS Server outages?

    - by Eric Belair
    Let's say I have a root domain of "mysite.com". That domain and its sub-domains have DNS served by an external service - let's call them Setwork Nolutions. If this external company is hit with a DDoS attack, my interally-hosted websites under this domain are no longer accessible at "mysite.com" or "*.mysite.com", even though the website(s) is/are fully up and operational. How can I mitigate such a problem so as to keep end users happy? The only solution others at my company have come up with is to create a second domain - i.e. "mysite2.com", and host its DNS at another company, and then communicate to all end users that this is the website they should use. I think this is ridiculous, and just leads to a bunch of other problems. I'd like to find a solution where we can point to the same website with the same URL without the original DNS host being operational. Any thoughts?

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