Search Results

Search found 37607 results on 1505 pages for 'ms access 97'.

Page 581/1505 | < Previous Page | 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588  | Next Page >

  • How to get Word 2003 to make my print layout go from left to right?

    - by Shaul
    My copy of MS Word 2003 was installed on my computer with the locale set to Israel, so among other things my Normal.dot template was set up for right-to-left. I managed to fix most of the Hebrew support things so that I am working in English by default now. The only thing I haven't found a cure for is how to make the "print layout" view also go from left to right; as things are, the page flow always appears from right to left, even in English documents - IOW, page 1 appears on the right of page 2, as shown below. I can't see any obvious option to change this. How do I do it?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC with a rich client framework

    - by ziggy
    I have several applications that are structured as follows DataComponent WebComponent ThickClientComponent WebServices The DataComponent has all the functionality required to access the application's data so it contains the DAOs and the JPA entities. The other three modules are: WebComponent - A spring MVC application that uses the DataComponent for data acccess ThickClientComponent- A Swing application that uses the DataComponent for data access WebServices - A SOAP based services that also uses the DataComponent. All three projets have the DataComponent as a dependeny in their Maven POM file. I would like to use a rich client framework like RichFaces, icefaces or primefaces as i need to be able to use the rich components are available in rich client frameworks (i.e. trees, panel, drag and drop etc). I have looked around and i cant seem to find an example where a Spring MVC application uses a rich client platform. Is it possible? Are the rich client platforms a framework meaning that i have to use either Spring MVC or the rich client platform but not both? The DataComponent module is spring based.

    Read the article

  • Simplest solution to replace a tiny file inside an MSI?

    - by sascha
    Many of our customers have access to InstallShield, WISE or AdminStudio. These aren't a problem. I'm hoping there is some way I can provide our smaller customers without access to commercial repackaging tools a freely available set of tools and steps to do the file replacement themselves. Only need to replace a single configuration file inside a compressed MSI, the target user can be assumed to already have Orca installed, know how to use this to customize the Property table (to embed license details for GPO deployment) and have generated an MST file. Disclaimer: this is very similar to another question but both questions and answers in that thread are not clear.

    Read the article

  • Assigning to struct in different class

    - by 4thSpace
    I have a struct in ClassA and want to assign it to the same struct in ClassB (the two structs are the same with different names). ClassA and ClassB are view controllers. Basically, I need to pass this struct to another class. However, structs don't seem to be exposed as members, which means I can't access them. Here is ClassA's struct declared in its header file: typedef struct { NSString *startDate; NSString *endDate; NSString *classId; } selectedItemsClassAStruct; selectedItemsClassAStruct selectedItemsClassA; and the same for ClassB (just with ClassA text replaced) It doesn't appear in code hints for ClassB. I see this error if I try to access it: request for member 'selectedItemsClassBStruct' in something not a structure or union How should it be done?

    Read the article

  • Manipulating pixels using only toDataURL

    - by Chris
    The problem I have is this: I need to be able to dynamically tint an image using Javascript, but I cannot access pixel data via the canvas. I can, however, store the dataURL (or any other text-based data format) and include that with the code, manipulate that data, and then create an image object using that dataURL. My question is, how can I access the RGBA value of each pixel, given only the dataURL. I assume I need to decode the base64 url, but into what format in order to manipulate on the pixel level? And then would be it be as trivial as re-encoding it as base64, slapping it in a url, and the passing to an image? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Accessing protected REST endpoint with JQuery

    - by Andy
    I have a site where members login to their account (FormsAuth). I would like to set up a RESTful service that I can access using jQuery. I would like to protect these services using the same FormsAuth. How would a third-party site be able to access these services? They would need to pass in the Principal/Identity to the service, right? I've only seen examples of Basic Authentication (which Twitter uses and jQuery supports). I'm very new to WCT/REST, so not sure how this should be done.

    Read the article

  • How to call Ajax to run a PHP file while maintaining PHP & Javascript variables.

    - by Umar
    Hi Stackoverflowers. I'm using the Facebook php-sdk to get the users name and friends, right now the loading friends part takes about +3 seconds so I wanted to do it via Ajax, e.g. so the document can load and jQuery then calls an external PHP script which loads the friends (their names and their profile pictures). So to do this I did: $(document).ready(function() { var loadUrl = "http://localhost/fb/getFriends.php" ; $("#friends") .html("Hold on, your friends are loading!") .load(loadUrl); }); But I get a PHP error: Fatal error: Call to a member function api() on a non-object If I do this in the same PHP file (so I don't use Ajax at all to call it) it works fine. Now I think I understand the reason this is happening, but I don't know how to fix it. In my main index.php file I have a bunch of init and session code e.g. FB.init({ appId : '<?php echo $facebook->getAppId(); ?>', session : <?php echo json_encode($session); ?>, // don't refetch the session when PHP already has it status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); So I'm just wondering what is the best way to treat my new separate PHP file getFriends.php in a way where it has access to all PHP/JavaScript session data/variables? If you haven't used the Facebook php-sdk I'll quickly explain what I mean: Lets say I have index.php and getUsername.php, from index.php I want to retrieve the getUsername.php file via Ajax using .load. Now the problem is getUsername.php needs to access PHP session data/Javascript Init functions which were created in index.php, so I'm thinking of ways to solve this (I'm new to PHP so sorry if this sounds silly) but I'm thinking maybe I could do a POST in jQuery Ajax and post the session data? Or maybe I could create a PHP class, so something like: class getUsername extends index{} /*Yes I'm a newbie*/ If you have a look at the php-sdk example.php link posted at the top maybe you'd better understand what variables exactly need to be accessed from a new file. Also on a different note, I'm using PHP to work out page rendering times and it seems that fetching the users name alone : // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } Can take a good 4 seconds, is this normal? Once I get the users details is it good to cache it or something? -Speed isn't as important right now, for now I'm just trying to figure out this Ajax-separating php files thing. Woah this is a long post. Thanks very much for your time.

    Read the article

  • Amazon S3 security credentials per bucket

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I was wondering if it was possible to generate security credentials per individual Amazon S3 bucket. I am working with a developer and would like to grant him access only to the bucket we are working with. It's not a trust issue, it's more a concern that he'll delete the wrong bucket or its contents. For example: If we were working on an application that used a bucket called test-application I could generate the credentials for just that one bucket. These credentials would not allow access to other buckets in my account. Is this possible? Thanks, Tony

    Read the article

  • Parsing JSON file with Python -> google map api

    - by Hannes
    Hi all, I am trying to get started with JSON in Python, but it seems that I misunderstand something in the JSON concept. I followed the google api example, which works fine. But when I change the code to a lower level in the JSON response (as shown below, where I try to get access to the location), I get the following error message for code below: Traceback (most recent call last): File "geoCode.py", line 11, in test = json.dumps([s['location'] for s in jsonResponse['results']], indent=3) KeyError: 'location' How can I get access to lower information level in the JSON file in python? Do I have to go to a higher level and search the result string? That seems very weird to me? Here is the code I have tried to run: import urllib, json URL2 = "http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/geocode/json?address=1600+Amphitheatre+Parkway,+Mountain+View,+CA&sensor=false" googleResponse = urllib.urlopen(URL2); jsonResponse = json.loads(googleResponse.read()) test = json.dumps([s['location'] for s in jsonResponse['results']], indent=3) print test Thank you for your responses.

    Read the article

  • Do jQuery and JavaScript have different namespaces?

    - by Brett
    I have this code in jQuery.. $(document).ready(function(){ var fieldCounter = 0; ... I have a jQuery function that increments this value. This works, but I can't access this value on the page from a non-jQuery function? The reverse is also true, if I scope it in JavaScript e.g. <script type="text/javascript"> var fieldCounter = 0; I can access it from javascript but jQuery can't view it? I'm probably doing something really dumb?

    Read the article

  • Hardware Pen device for presentation

    - by sankar
    Hi I have a scenario. Hope you could suggest the software and hardware required? I teach maths. I write math equations as i do in a paper/ohp and this should get displayed on the screen. I find hardware 'pen' - writing and pointing device. Tablet pen- I accept my limited knowledge on that. Here is how I conceive it could be done? I need you to correct my understanding and shed light anyother better method? tablet pen - plate (on which i write) - ms-powerpoint pen option - empty slide Is it possible to save the such content for reproduction. regds, sankar

    Read the article

  • xslt test if a variable value is contained in a node set

    - by Aamir
    I have the following two files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <!-- D E F A U L T H O S P I T A L P O L I C Y --> <xas DefaultPolicy="open" DefaultSubjectsFile="subjects.xss"> <rule id="R1" access="deny" object="record" subject="roles/*[name()!='Staff']"/> <rule id="R2" access="deny" object="diagnosis" subject="roles//Nurse"/> <rule id="R3" access="grant" object="record[@id=$user]" subject="roles/member[@id=$user]"/> </xas> and the other xml file called subjects.xss is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <subjects> <users> <member id="dupont" password="4A-4E-E9-17-5D-CE-2C-DD-43-43-1D-F1-3F-5D-94-71"> <name>Pierre Dupont</name> </member> <member id="durand" password="3A-B6-1B-E8-C0-1F-CD-34-DF-C4-5E-BA-02-3C-04-61"> <name>Jacqueline Durand</name> </member> </users> <roles> <Staff> <Doctor> <member idref="dupont"/> </Doctor> <Nurse> <member idref="durand"/> </Nurse> </Staff> </roles> </subjects> I am writing an xsl sheet which will read the subject value for each rule in policy.xas and if the currently logged in user (accessible as variable "user" in the stylesheet) is contained in that subject value (say roles//Nurse), then do something. I am not being able to test whether the currently logged in user ($user which is equal to say "durand") is contained in roles//Nurse in the subjects file (which is a different xml file). Hope that clarifies my question. Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Needs some help with an apache mod-rewrite issue

    - by mike
    I've modified my .htaccess file to have the following statement RewriteCond $1 !^index.php$ RewriteRule ^/?([^/]+)$ index.php?c=home&m=details&seo=$1 [L,NS] This allows me to use product URL's like this: http://domain.com/product_name However, when trying to access a file at the same level as index.php, it always calls the RewriteRule above and errors out. I need to be able to access files like below, but each URL currently attempts to load index.php. http://domain.com/about.htm http://domain.com/terms.htm http://domain.com/robots.txt etc Any suggestions on how I can modify my htaccess file to get this to work correctly?

    Read the article

  • Constructor Injection and when to use a Service Locator

    - by Simon
    I'm struggling to understand parts of StructureMap's usage. In particular, in the documentation a statement is made regarding a common anti-pattern, the use of StructureMap as a Service Locator only instead of constructor injection (code samples straight from Structuremap documentation): public ShippingScreenPresenter() { _service = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IShippingService>(); _repository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRepository>(); } instead of: public ShippingScreenPresenter(IShippingService service, IRepository repository) { _service = service; _repository = repository; } This is fine for a very short object graph, but when dealing with objects many levels deep, does this imply that you should pass down all the dependencies required by the deeper objects right from the top? Surely this breaks encapsulation and exposes too much information about the implementation of deeper objects. Let's say I'm using the Active Record pattern, so my record needs access to a data repository to be able to save and load itself. If this record is loaded inside an object, does that object call ObjectFactory.CreateInstance() and pass it into the active record's constructor? What if that object is inside another object. Does it take the IRepository in as its own parameter from further up? That would expose to the parent object the fact that we're access the data repository at this point, something the outer object probably shouldn't know. public class OuterClass { public OuterClass(IRepository repository) { // Why should I know that ThingThatNeedsRecord needs a repository? // that smells like exposed implementation to me, especially since // ThingThatNeedsRecord doesn't use the repo itself, but passes it // to the record. // Also where do I create repository? Have to instantiate it somewhere // up the chain of objects ThingThatNeedsRecord thing = new ThingThatNeedsRecord(repository); thing.GetAnswer("question"); } } public class ThingThatNeedsRecord { public ThingThatNeedsRecord(IRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public string GetAnswer(string someParam) { // create activeRecord(s) and process, returning some result // part of which contains: ActiveRecord record = new ActiveRecord(repository, key); } private IRepository repository; } public class ActiveRecord { public ActiveRecord(IRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActiveRecord(IRepository repository, int primaryKey); { this.repositry = repository; Load(primaryKey); } public void Save(); private void Load(int primaryKey) { this.primaryKey = primaryKey; // access the database via the repository and set someData } private IRepository repository; private int primaryKey; private string someData; } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Simon

    Read the article

  • How can I load static configuration information

    - by Goro
    In my code, I use JavaScript for UI and PHP for back end. I also use PHP to store application settings and sometimes my UI code needs to access this information. My configuration file looks something like this (config.php): $resolution_x = 1920; $resolution_y = 1080; etc... When I need to access any of these settings form JavaScript, i simply use <?php echo ... ?> to substitute the value directly, but it just doesn't strike me as very robust. Are they any dangers of doing this that I am not aware of? Is there a better way of doing this? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • How do I compile Android Browser (or other android-supplied applications)

    - by afriza
    I want to add support for Arabic (or other languages which are currently unsupported) to the applications supplied by android platform (e.g. Browser) without having root-access. To add Arabic support (at least displaying only) in a normal application (using developer SDK), I will need to: Add fonts Modify (reshape) the characters to be rendered For illustration, if I have string a aaa, I will need to change a aaa into a bcd because letter a at the beginning, middle, and end of a word need to be changed to b,c and d respectively) But now I want to compile android's Browser (and other apps). I am planning to get the source codes for these applications and their dependencies and bundle them as stand-alone applications which do not require root-access, and thus do not void the warranty. Other solutions which void the warranty can be obtained here. My Questions: Is the application's (e.g. Browser's) source code + 'developer SDK' enough to accomplish this? Do I need to get the source code + the development environment for the android platform? Any tips?

    Read the article

  • Problem with OWA search. Mailstore catalogues

    - by Anthony
    Dear All, I have trawled for the last few days but have not been able to come up with a solution; any help would be much appreciated. Exchange 2007 STD on Windows 2003 64Bit and users report search not working in OWA. So I first check indexing is enabled on the mail stores Get-MailboxDatabase |ft Name,IndexEnabled which all report true, So I try a test Test-ExchangeSearch [email protected] Which is a false -1 Ok, So I run the reset - resetsearchindex.ps1 this works and the event log reports the stores being crawled and finished. BUT- My complete catalogue data is 300kb - LOL! I wish! Obviously all tests fail so I do it manually; Stop indexing service, Delete catalogues. Restart Still no dice, This is where I’m up to, I have tried many different variations of the above and being through oodles of MS documentation Has anyone got any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Response.Redirect() will not redirect on Internet Explorer

    - by Amit
    Hi, I am using Response.Redirect("someurl",true); in the page_preInit event to redirect all the requests that come to a page. It works fine on Firexox, but if i access the page from internet explorer 7/8, it says page can not be found and will not redirect to new URL. Any idea why this happens?? Update: I tried giving a radom URL in the redirect such as google.com and it works fine. Actually the URL I am trying to redirect is not accessible on my machine, it is on another VPN. I guess IE will not change the URL on the addressbar if it can not access the URL. Firefox on the other hand changes the address on the address bar.

    Read the article

  • How Do I Change the Windows7 LAN Proxy Config from the Command Line

    - by david.barkhuizen
    In Windows7, Is it possible to define/change the proxy config from the command line ? So, using the gui, I would go: Start Control Panel Network and Internet Internet Options Connections LAN Settings and then - enable/disable the proxy - define IP:port of proxy server But I would like to rather do this from the command line (so that I can run the command from a batch-file with a shortcut key - enabling me to switch proxy configs using a short-cut, rather than having to wade through the MS wizard). I've looked at using netsh.exe to change the settings for WinHTTP, but this seems to be thr wrong thing to do, as the WinHTTP setting do not appear to be related to the LAN settings. Much appreciated folks.

    Read the article

  • issue using Postfix as authen SMTP client relay to Exchange 2010

    - by Gk
    Hi, I'm using postfix to relay mail to Exchange 2010. Here is my config: relayhost = [smtp.exchange.2010] smtp_sasl_auth_enable = yes smtp_sasl_password_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/relay_passwd smtp_sasl_security_options = #smtp_sasl_mechanism_filter = ntlm (/etc/postfix/relay_passwd contains login information of some accounts on Exchange) With this configuration I can relay email to Exchange. The problem is: the message send from Postfix has header: X-MS-Exchange-Organization-AuthAs: Anonymous and the message is treated like unAuthenicated message on Exchange system (i.e when sending to distribution group require senders are authenicated, I received error: #550 5.7.1 RESOLVER.RST.AuthRequired; authentication required ##rfc822;[email protected]). I using Outlook with the same account as in Postfix and it can send without problem. The different I realized between two case is: Outlook send with NTLM auth mech, Postfix using LOGIN mech. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • Why is this static routing not working ?

    - by geeko
    Greeting gurus, I'm trying to develop a DHCP enforcement extension like Microsoft NAP. My trick to block dynamic-IP requesting machines (that don't meet certain policy) is to strip the default gateway (no default gateway) stated in the IP lease and set the lease subnet mask to 255.255.255.255. Now I need the blocked machines to be able to reach some specific locations (IPs) on the network. To allow for this, I'm including some static routes in the lease. For example, I'm including 10.10.10.11 via router 10.10.10.254 (the one to which the blocked machine that needs to access 10.10.10.11 is connected). Unfortunately, as soon as I set the default gateway to nothing, blocked machines cannot reach any of the added static routes. I also tried classless static routes. Any ideas ? any one knows how MS NAP actually do it ? Geeko

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP result set - ultimate confusion!

    - by Paul
    Consider a simple result set from a mysql query. rs("description") and rs("description").Value should be considered as the same thing. However, depending on how you access them, you get different results (!!) Access rs("description") directly and you are returned a "Field" object. Or, more importantly, use it directly in a call, and you are returned a "Field" object. mydescription = rs("description") + " is the description" Assign it to another variable, and the Value of that object is assigned... mydescription = rs("description") the contents of "mydescription" is a string. Why this difference? At one point in the life of ASP they must have both worked exactly the same, so why have they changed, and how can I change it back?

    Read the article

  • What's the (hidden) cost of lazy val? (Scala)

    - by Jesper
    One handy feature of Scala is lazy val, where the evaluation of a val is delayed until it's necessary (at first access). Ofcourse a lazy val must have some overhead - somewhere Scala must keep track of whether the value has already been evaluated and the evaluation must be synchronized, because multiple threads might try to access the value for the first time at the same time. What exactly is the cost of a lazy val - is there a hidden boolean flag associated with a lazy val to keep track if it has been evaluated or not, what exactly is synchronized and are there any more costs? And a follow-up question: Suppose I do this: class Something { lazy val (x, y) = { ... } } Is this the same as having two separate lazy vals x and y or do I get the overhead only once, for the pair (x, y)?

    Read the article

  • Tomcat blankpage for default error page

    - by praspa
    First off, I'm using Tomcat 5.5 and my .jsp's live in /webapps/foo/bar/*.jsp. I followed the directions here to set up a default 404 error page. In my TOMCAT_HOME/conf/web.xml I entered: <error-page> <error-code>404</error-code> <location>/error.html</location> </error-page> I dropped copies of a test error.html file into each of the dirs (I wasn't sure where /error.html was referring to): /webapps/ /webapps/foo/ /webapps/foo/bar/ Whenever I attempt to access a non-existent page in a browser at url's /foo/missingpage.html or /foo/bar/missingpage.html I'm redirected to my error page that exists in /foo/error.html. However, attempting to access a non-existent page in a browser at url /missingpage.html yields a blankpage. Or any permutation of /missingDir/missingfile.html will also yield a blank page. Any suggestions? Am I missing some extra configuration? Thanks PR

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588  | Next Page >