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• Is it possible to run my Windows Form application in Windows CE platform?

  - by Fakhrul

  I am new in Windows CE development and never done it yet. Need some advise from the expert in here. In our current project, we are developing a client-server application. The client side is using a windows form application that are base on Windows XP OS while the server is a web base application. This question are related to the client application (Windows Form). This application are using Sql Server Express Edition for data storage. The data is stored in XML object format. It also can transfer a data from client to server via web service. It also interact with hardware such as Magnetic Stripe Reader, Contactless Smart Card Reader, and a thermal printer. Most of the communication between hardware device and systems are base on Serial Port. It is use standard app.config for the configuration and is a multi threaded application. There is a new requirement to use a Handheld device which is use a Windows CE platform. This handheld included the required equipment such as Contactless Smart Card Reader, Printer and Magnetic Stripe Reader. Instead of developing a new client application, is it possible to me to convert my current application that are base on Windows XP to Windows CE? If yes, how can I do that? If no, is it any other brilliant suggestion to do this? Thanks in advance. Software Engineer

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• When onblur occurs, how can I find out which element focus went *to*?

  - by Michiel Borkent

  Suppose I attach an onblur function to an html input box like this: <input id="myInput" onblur="function() { ... }"></input> Is there a way to get the ID of the element which caused the onblur event to fire (the element which was clicked) inside the function? How? For example, suppose I have a span like this: <span id="mySpan">Hello World</span> If I click the span right after the input element has focus, the input element will lose its focus. How does the function know that it was mySpan that was clicked? PS: If the onclick event of the span would occur before the onblur event of the input element my problem would be solved, because I could set some status value indicating a specific element had been clicked. PPS: The background of this problem is that I want to trigger an Ajax.AutoCompleter control externally (from a clickable element) to show its suggestions, without the suggestions disappearing immediately because of the onblur event on the input element. So I want to check in the OnBlur function if one specific element has been clicked, and if so, ignore the blur event.

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• rs232 communication, general timing question

  - by Sunny Dee

  Hi, I have a piece of hardware which sends out a byte of data representing a voltage signal at a frequency of 100Hz over the serial port. I want to write a program that will read in the data so I can plot it. I know I need to open the serial port and open an inputstream. But this next part is confusing me and I'm having trouble understanding the process conceptually: I create a while loop that reads in the data from the inputstream 1 byte at a time. How do I get the while loop timing so that there is always a byte available to be read whenever it reaches the readbyte line? I'm guessing that I can't just put a sleep function inside the while loop to try and match it to the hardware sample rate. Is it just a matter of continuing reading the inputstream in the while loop, and if it's too fast then it won't do anything (since there's no new data), and if it's too slow then it will accumulate in the inputstream buffer? Like I said, i'm only trying to understand this conceptually so any guidance would be much appreciated! I'm guessing the idea is independent of which programming language I'm using, but if not, assume it is for use in Java. Thanks!

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• Problem with .Contains

  - by Rene

  Hello there, I have a little problem which i can't solve. I want to use an SQL-In-Statement in Linq. I've read in this Forum and in other Forums that I have to use the .Contains (with reverse-thinking-notation :-)). As input i have a List of Guids. I first copied them into an array and then did something like that : datatoget = (from p in objectContext.MyDataSet where ArrayToSearch.Contains(p.Subtable.Id.ToString()) select p).ToList(); datatoget is the result in which all records matching the Subtable.Id (which is a Guid) should be stored. Subtable is a Detail-Table from MyData, and the Id is a Guid-Type. I've tried several things (Convert Guid to String, and then using .Contains, etc), but I always get an Exception which says : 'Linq to Entities' doesn't recognize the Method 'Boolean Contains(System.Guid) and is not able to Translate this method into a memory expression. (Something like that, because I'm using the German Version of VS2008) I am using L2E with .NET 3.5 and am programming in C# with VS 2008. I've read several Examples, but it doesn't work. Is it perhaps because of using Guid's instead of strings ? I've also tried to write my own compare-function, but I don't know how to integrate it so that .NET calls my function for comparing.

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• Positioning one div to the right of another

  - by Jonno_FTW

  Hi I have the following html and css. But what I can't figure out is how to have the tabs div at the right of the main div. So that they stick out the right like bookmarks. .main { -moz-border-radius:10px; height: 75%; width: 60%; position: absolute; top: 15%; left: 20%; right: auto; } .tabs { width: 50px; height: 1.3em; position: absolute; float: right; } #tab { margin: 10px 10px 10px 0px;} And the html: <div class="main"> <div id="content"> Some main content </div> </div> <div class="tabs"> <div class="tabs" id="tab"> <a href="#" alt="Home"> Home </a> </div> <div class="tabs" id="tab"> <a href="#" alt="About"> About </a> </div>

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• Strange execution times in t-sql

  - by TonyP

  Hi All I have two stored procedures, the first one calls the second .. If I execute the second one alone it takes over 5 minutes to complete.. But when executed within the first one it takes little over 1 minute.. What is the reason ! Here is the first one ALTER procedure [dbo].[schRefreshPriceListItemGroups] as begin tran delete from PriceListItemGroups if @@error !=0 goto rolback Insert PriceListItemGroups(comno,t$cuno,t$cpls,t$cpgs,t$dsca,t$cpru) SELECT distinct c.comno,c.t$cuno, c.t$cpls,I.t$cpgs,g.t$dsca,g.t$cpru FROM TTCCOM010nnn C JOIN TTDSLS032nnn PL ON PL.comno = c.Comno and PL.t$cpls = c.t$cpls JOIN TTIITM001nnn I ON I.t$item = pl.t$item AND I.comno = pl.comNo JOIN TTCMCS024nnn G ON g.T$cprg = I.t$cpgs AND g.comno = I.Comno WHERE c.t$cpls !='' order by comno desc, t$cuno, t$cpgs if @@error !=0 goto rolback ----------------------------------------------------- Exec scrRefreshCustomersCatalogs ----------------------------------------------------- commit tran return rolback: Rollback tran And the second one Alter proc scrRefreshCustomersCatalogs as declare @baanIds table(id int identity(1,1),baanId varchar(12)) declare @baanId varchar(12),@i int, @n int Insert @baanIds(BaanId) select baanId from ftElBaanIds() SELECT @I=1,@n=max(id) from @baanIds select @i,@n Begin tran if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack WHILE @I <=@n Begin select @baanId=baanId from @baanIds where id=@i if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack Delete from customersCatalogs where comno+'-'+t$cuno=@baanId print Convert(varchar,@i)+' baanId='+@baanId Insert customersCatalogs exec customersCatalog @baanId if @@error !=0 goto xRollBack set @i=@i+1; end Commit Tran Update statistics customersCatalogs with fullscan Return xRollBack: Print '*****Rolling back*************' Rollback tran

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• Database Design Question regaurding duplicate information.

  - by galford13x

  I have a database that contains a history of product sales. For example the following table CREATE TABLE SalesHistoryTable ( OrderID, // Order Number Unique to all orders ProductID, // Product ID can be used as a Key to look up product info in another table Price, // Price of the product per unit at the time of the order Quantity, // quantity of the product for the order Total, // total cost of the order for the product. (Price * Quantity) Date, // Date of the order StoreID, // The store that created the Order PRIMARY KEY(OrderID)); The table will eventually have millions of transactions. From this, profiles can be created for products in different geographical regions (based on the StoreID). Creating these profiles can be very time consuming as a database query. For example. SELECT ProductID, StoreID, SUM(Total) AS Total, SUM(Quantity) QTY, SUM(Total)/SUM(Quantity) AS AvgPrice FROM SalesHistoryTable GROUP BY ProductID, StoreID; The above query could be used to get the Information based on products for any particular store. You could then determine which store has sold the most, has made the most money, and on average sells for the most/least. This would be very costly to use as a normal query run anytime. What are some design descisions in order to allow these types of queries to run faster assuming storage size isn’t an issue. For example, I could create another Table with duplicate information. Store ID (Key), Product ID, TotalCost, QTY, AvgPrice And provide a trigger so that when a new order is received, the entry for that store is updated in a new table. The cost for the update is almost nothing. What should be considered when given the above scenario?

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• how to atomically claim a row or resource using UPDATE in mysql

  - by Igor

  i have a table of resources (lets say cars) which i want to claim atomically. if there's a limit of one resource per one user, i can do the following trick: UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE user IS NULL LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM cars WHERE user IS bob that way, i claim the resource atomically and then i can see which row i just claimed. this doesn't work when 'bob' can claim multiple cars. i realize i can get a list of cars already claimed by bob, claim another one, and then SELECT again to see what's changed, but that feels hackish. What I'm wondering is, is there some way to see which rows i just updated with my last UPDATE? failing that, is there some other trick to atomically claiming a row? i really want to avoid using SERIALIZABLE isolation level. If I do something like this: 1 SELECT id FROM cars WHERE user IS NULL 2 <here, my PHP or whatever picks a car id> 3 UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE id = <the one i picked> would REPEATABLE READ be sufficient here? in other words, could i be guaranteed that some other transactions won't claim the row my software has picked during step 2?

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• Grouping Collection seperating numeric 5 from String "5"

  - by invertedSpear

  BackGround: I have an advanced data grid. The data provider for this ADG is an ArrayCollection. There is a grouping collection on an ID field of this AC. Example of a couple items within this AC the AC var name is "arcTemplates": (mx.collections::ArrayCollection)#0 filterFunction = (null) length = 69 list = (mx.collections::ArrayList)#1 length = 69 source = (Array)#2 [0] (Object)#3 abbreviation = "sore-throat" insertDate = "11/16/2009" name = "sore throat" templateID = 234 templateType = "New Problem" templateTypeID = 1 [32] (Object)#35 abbreviation = 123 insertDate = "03/08/2010" name = 123 templateID = 297 templateType = "New Problem" templateTypeID = 1 [55] (Object)#58 abbreviation = 1234 insertDate = "11/16/2009" name = 1234 templateID = 227 templateType = "Exam" templateTypeID = 5 [56] (Object)#59 abbreviation = "breast only" insertDate = "03/15/2005" name = "breast exam" templateID = 195 templateType = "Exam" templateTypeID = 5 Example of Flex code leading to the Grouping: <mx:AdvancedDataGrid displayItemsExpanded="true" id="gridTemplates"> <mx:dataProvider> <mx:GroupingCollection id="gc" source="{arcTemplates}"> <mx:Grouping > <mx:GroupingField name="templateTypeID" compareFunction="gcSort"> GC sort function: public function gcSort(a:Object, b:Object):int{ return ObjectUtil.stringCompare(String(a.templateTypeID + a.name).toLowerCase(), String(b.templateTypeID + b.name).toLowerCase()); } Problem: In my AC example there are a few items, items 0, 32 and 56 properly sort and group to their templateTypeID, but item 55 does something weird. It seems to sort/group on the numeric 5 instead of the string "5". Gets stranger. If I change the name property to contain text (so 1234x) it then correctly sorts/groups to the string "5" Question: What is going on here and how do I fix it?

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• does php mysql_fetch_array works with html input box?

  - by dexter

  this is my entire PHP code: <?php if(empty($_POST['selid'])) {echo "no value selected"; } else { $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if(mysql_select_db("cdcol", $con)) { $sql= "SELECT * FROM products where Id = '$_POST[selid]'"; if($result=mysql_query($sql)) { echo "<form name=\"updaterow\" method=\"post\" action=\"dbtest.php\">"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "Id :<input type=\"text\" name=\"ppId\" value=".$row['Id']." READONLY></input></br>"; echo "Name :<input type=\"text\" name=\"pName\" value=".$row['Name']."></input></br>"; echo "Description :<input type=\"text\" name=\"pDesc\" value=".$row['Description']."></input></br>"; echo "Unit Price :<input type=\"text\" name=\"pUP\" value=".$row['UnitPrice']."></input></br>"; echo "<input type=\"hidden\" name=\"mode\" value=\"Update\"/>"; } echo "<input type=\"submit\" value=\"Update\">"; echo "</form>"; } else {echo "Query ERROR";} } } ?> PROBLEM here is, ....if the value i am getting from database using mysql_fetch_array($result) is like:(say Description is:) "my product" then; in input box it shows only "my" the word(or digit) after "SPACE"(ie blank space) doesn't get displayed? can input box like above can display the data with two or more words(separated by blank spaces)?

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• why isn't my validator working?

  - by Lina

  hi, can anybody tell me why is the following code not working? <script type="text/javascript" src="../../Scripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // validate contact form on keyup and submit $("#myform").validate({ //set the rules for the fild names rules: { hour: { required: true, minlength: 2, range:[0,23] }, minute: { required: true, minlength: 2, range:[0,60] }, }, //set messages to appear inline messages: { hour: "Please enter a valid hour", minute: "Please enter a valid minute" } }); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> .error { color: red; font: 12pt verdana; padding-left: 10px } </style> <form id="myform" method="" action=""> <input id="hour" type="text" name="hour" style="width:30px; text-align:center;"></input> : <input id="minute" type="text" name="minute" style="width:30px; text-align:center;"></input> <br/> <input type="submit" value="Validate!" /> </form> thanks a million in advance, Lina

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• Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

  - by Aparna

  I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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• jQuery ajax success not work in codeigniter

  - by softboxkid

  I had a problem with ajax. The trick is, when user click on the top hyperlink, it will send the link id through onclick=getChildMenuLink(str). Then from getChildMenuLink(str) function, it will send the str to the controller (to set the session) thru ajax. here is the code. html code <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig" onclick="getChildMenuLink(1)">Administrator</a> <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/welcome" onclick="getChildMenuLink(22)">Home</a> jquery ajax function getChildMenuLink(str) { 'use strict'; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig/getLink/" + str, success: function () {} // End of success function of ajax form }); // End of ajax call //alert(document.URL); } codeigniter controller function getLink($id='') { $this->session->unset_userdata('parentLink'); $this->session->set_userdata('parentLink',$id); } if i uncomment the alert() function on that script, it work. the PHP session is properly set. please help me

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• Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

  - by Harel Moshe

  Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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• Initialize webservice WSDL at runtime using Flex and Mate framework

  - by GroovyB

  I am developing a Flex application on top of Mate framework. In this application, I am using a webservice to retrieve data. As this webservice as not a fix location URL (depending on where customers installed it), I define this URL in a config file. When the Flex application starts, it first reads this config file, then I would like to use the value I found to initialize the webservice. But currently, I have no idea how to this. Here is my EventMap.mxml <EventMap> <services:Services id="services" /> <EventHandlers type="{FlexEvent.PREINITIALIZE}"> <HTTPServiceInvoker instance="{services.configService}"> <resultHandlers> <MethodInvoker generator="{ConfigManager}" method="loadFromXml" arguments="{resultObject}" /> </resultHandlers> <faultHandlers> <InlineInvoker method="Alert.show" arguments="ERROR: Unable to load config.xml !" /> </faultHandlers> </HTTPServiceInvoker> In this part, the ConfigManager parse the config file and intitialize a bindable property called webServiceWsdl Here is my Services.mxml <mx:Object> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var webservice:String; ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="configService" url="config.xml" useProxy="false" /> <mx:WebService id="dataService" wsdl="{webservice}" useProxy="false"/> </mx:Object> How can I initialize this webservice property ?

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• [JS] getSelection on DIV contentEditable

  - by cactoos

  Hi all ! I am trying to achieve project and i must do a WYSIWYG editor in JavaScript. I can't use an existing editor because I need use my plugins (for example a colorPicker or imagePicker).. For this time I have this HTML : <div class="K_editor" id="idExample"> <div class="K_links"> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkBold">B</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkItalic">I</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkUnderline">U</div> </div> <iframe width="696" height="212" frameborder="0" src="js/myEditor_iFrame.php"> <html> <head/> <body> <div id="contentIframe" contenteditable="true"> This is a test code, with <strong>bold</strong> text and <em>italic</em> text. </div> </body> </html> </iframe> <input type="submit"/> </div> On event click on ".K_editor_link", a function is open with arguments : - tagStart (exemple '', or '') - tagEnd (exemple '', or '') - id (here 'idExample') I know get a Selection on Textarea but "setSelectionRange()", ".selectionStart" and ".selectionEnd" are only for textbox (XUL), input (XHTML) or textarea (XHTML). Why can I do for do that ?? I'm realy block.. Thank all ! CactO_o's

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• Does overloading Grails static 'mapping' property to bolt on database objects violate DRY?

  - by mikesalera

  Does Grails static 'mapping' property in Domain classes violate DRY? Let's take a look at the canonical domain class: class Book {      Long id      String title      String isbn      Date published      Author author      static mapping = {             id generator:'hilo', params:[table:'hi_value',column:'next_value',max_lo:100]      } } or: class Book { ...         static mapping = {             id( generator:'sequence', params:[sequence_name: "book_seq"] )     } } And let us say, continuing this thought, that I have my Grails application working with HSQLDB or MySQL, but the IT department says I must use a commercial software package (written by a large corp in Redwood Shores, Calif.). Does this change make my web application nobbled in development and test environments? MySQL supports autoincrement on a primary key column but does support sequence objects, for example. Is there a cleaner way to implement this sort of 'only when in production mode' without loading up the domain class?

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• jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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• Loop with a while

  - by ookla

  Very basic question.. but I'm missing the point.. I have this data on my table: ID SITEID SECTION 1 1 posts 2 2 posts 3 1 aboutme 4 1 contact 5 2 questions The output is an array. I can't change it. I want to make this output on php with a single for loop with that array: <h1> sections for site 1 </h1> posts aboutme contact <h1>sections for site 2 </h1> posts questions I'm trying to do something like this, where $sectionsArray is my output. And I want to check if siteid is the same, then make a loop.. for ($j=0;$j<sizeof($sectionsArray);$j++) { while (siteid==1){ echo "<h1>'.$sectionsArray['siteid'].'</h1>'; } echo "<A href='section.php?id='.$sectionsArray['id'].' '">'.$sectionsArray['section'].'</a>; } But I don't get the logic of "grouping" the results with a while.. INSIDE a loop. Any light will be welcome. Thanks

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• ASP.NET validators alignment issue

  - by Mahesh

  Hi, I am developing contactus webpage which have a input field called Email. It is validated against a required field validator and regular expression validator with appropriate messages. Required: Enter Email Regular Expression: Invalid Email I am setting these two as given below: <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmail" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <font color="#FF0000">*</font> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvemail" CssClass="error_text" ControlToValidate="txtEmail" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Enter email address."></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="revemail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtEmail" ErrorMessage="Invalid Email" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.]\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*"></asp:RegularExpressionValidator> My problem is both Enter Email and Invalid Email is occupying its own space. For Ex: If I leave email as empty space and press submit, Enter Email is displaying right next to it. If I enter invalid email(xxx), Enter Email is off but taking the space, Invalid Email message is displayed after these space taken by 'Enter Email' before. Is there any way to remove this space?? Mahesh

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• Does NHibernate LINQ support ToLower() in Where() clauses?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have an entity and its mapping: public class Test { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } public class TestMap : EntityMap<Test> { public TestMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Description); } } I'm trying to run a query on it (to grab it out of the database): var keyword = "test" // this is coming in from the user keyword = keyword.ToLower(); // convert it to all lower-case var results = session.Linq<Test> .Where(x => x.Name.ToLower().Contains(keyword)); results.Count(); // execute the query However, whenever I run this query, I get the following exception: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index Am I right when I say that, currently, Linq to NHibernate does not support ToLower()? And if so, is there an alternative that allows me to search for a string in the middle of another string that Linq to NHibernate is compatible with? For example, if the user searches for kap, I need it to match Kapiolani, Makapuu, and Lapkap.

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• filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

  - by Mike

  Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

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• target-action uicontrolevents

  - by Fabrizio Farinelli

  I must be missing something obvious here but ... UIControl has a method - (void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action forControlEvents: (UIControlEvents)controlEvents which lets you add an action to be called when any of the given controlEvents occur. ControlEvents are a bitmask of events which tell you if a touch went down, or up inside, or was dragged etc., there's about 16 of them, you or them together and get called when any of them occur. The selector can have one of the following signatures - (void)action - (void)action:(id)sender - (void)action:(id)sender forEvent:(UIEvent *) none of those tell you what the control event bitmask was. The UIEvent is something slightly different, it's related to the actual touch event and doesn't (I think) contain the UIControlEvent. The sender (UIControl) doesn't have a way to find the control events either. I'd like to have one method which deals with a number of control events as I have some common code regardless of which event or events happened but I still need to know what the UIControlEvents were for some specific processing. Am I missing a way to find out what UIControlEvents were used when the action was called or do I really have to separate my code into -(void)actionWithUIControlEventX; -(void)actionWithUIControlEventY;

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• Python Socket Getting Connection Reset

  - by Ian

  I created a threaded socket listener that stores newly accepted connections in a queue. The socket threads then read from the queue and respond. For some reason, when doing benchmarking with 'ab' (apache benchmark) using a concurrency of 2 or more, I always get a connection reset before it's able to complete the benchmark (this is taking place locally, so there's no external connection issue). class server: _ip = '' _port = 8888 def __init__(self, ip=None, port=None): if ip is not None: self._ip = ip if port is not None: self._port = port self.server_listener(self._ip, self._port) def now(self): return time.ctime(time.time()) def http_responder(self, conn, addr): httpobj = http_builder() httpobj.header('HTTP/1.1 200 OK') httpobj.header('Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8') httpobj.header('Connection: close') httpobj.body("Everything looks good") data = httpobj.generate() sent = conn.sendall(data) def http_thread(self, id): self.log("THREAD %d: Starting Up..." % id) while True: conn, addr = self.q.get() ip, port = addr self.log("THREAD %d: responding to request: %s:%s - %s" % (id, ip, port, self.now())) self.http_responder(conn, addr) self.q.task_done() conn.close() def server_listener(self, host, port): self.q = Queue.Queue(0) sock = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) sock.bind( (host, port) ) sock.listen(5) for i in xrange(4): #thread count thread.start_new(self.http_thread, (i+1, )) while True: self.q.put(sock.accept()) sock.close() server('', 9999) When running the benchmark, I get totally random numbers of good requests before it errors out, usually between 4 and 500. Edit: Took me a while to figure it out, but the problem was in sock.listen(5). Because I was using apache benchmark with a higher concurrency (5 and up) it was causing the backlog of connections to pile up, at which point the connections started getting dropped by the socket.

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• Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

  - by Martin Ongtangco

  hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

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