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• Galaxy Nexus (Specificaly) camera startPreview failed

  - by Roman

  I'm having a strange issue on a galaxy nexus when trying to have a live camera view in my app. I get this error in the log cat: 06-29 16:31:26.681 I/CameraClient(133): Opening camera 0 06-29 16:31:26.681 I/CameraHAL(133): camera_device open 06-29 16:31:26.970 D/DOMX (133): ERROR: failed check:(eError == OMX_ErrorNone) || (eError == OMX_ErrorNoMore) - returning error: 0x80001005 - Error returned from OMX API in ducati 06-29 16:31:26.970 E/CameraHAL(133): Error while configuring rotation 0x80001005 06-29 16:31:27.088 I/am_on_resume_called(21274): [0,digifynotes.Activity_Camera] 06-29 16:31:27.111 V/PhoneStatusBar(693): setLightsOn(true) 06-29 16:31:27.205 E/CameraHAL(133): OMX component is not in loaded state 06-29 16:31:27.205 E/CameraHAL(133): setNSF() failed -22 06-29 16:31:27.205 E/CameraHAL(133): Error: CAMERA_QUERY_RESOLUTION_PREVIEW -22 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): UNHANDLED EXCEPTION: Java.Lang.Exception: Exception of type 'Java.Lang.Exception' was thrown. 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at Android.Runtime.JNIEnv.CallVoidMethod (intptr,intptr) <0x00068> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at Android.Hardware.Camera.StartPreview () <0x0007f> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at DigifyNotes.CameraPreviewView.SurfaceChanged (Android.Views.ISurfaceHolder,Android.Graphics.Format,int,int) <0x000d7> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at Android.Views.ISurfaceHolderCallbackInvoker.n_SurfaceChanged_Landroid_view_SurfaceHolder_III (intptr,intptr,intptr,int,int,int) <0x0008b> 06-29 16:31:27.252 I/MonoDroid(21274): at (wrapper dynamic-method) object.4c65d912-497c-4a67-9046-4b33a55403df (intptr,intptr,intptr,int,int,int) <0x0006b> That very same source code works flawlessly on a Samsung Galaxy Ace 2X (4.0.4) and an LG G2X (2.3.7). I will later test on a galaxy s4 if my friend lends it to me. Galaxy Nexus runs Android 4.2.2 I believe. Any one have any ideas? EDIT: Here are my camera classes: [Please note I am using mono] [The formatting is more readable if you view it as raw] Camera Activity: http://pastebin.com/YPcGXJRB Camera Preview View: http://pastebin.com/zNf8AWDf

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• Multiuser login into winforms application

  - by schoetbi

  Hi there, i have a winforms app in C# that needs access control for certain forms. That means, the application is running under the same (default) user at system startup, but certain forms need to be secured, so that only certain windows users could have access to the additional functions after identifying themself with username and password. For that step windows authentication should be used. Now the tricky part. Although the application was started under a "normal" user I would like the superusers to "login" into the special form without restarting the entiere application. My question now is. Is this possible (i.e. create one thread with the credentials of an administrator). Or do I need to setup another appdomain for that? Please give me a hint wather the user of a running application could be changed somehow. Thank you. EDIT I replaced administrators by "certain users" since the privileged user could be just another ordinary user that is granted access to the special functionality by the configuration of the installation.

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• pass objective c object and primitive type into a void *

  - by user674669

  I want to pass 2 variables: UIImage * img int i into another method that only takes a (void *) I tried making a C struct containing both img and i struct MyStruct { UIImage *img; int i; } but xcode gives me an error saying "ARC forbids Objective-C objects in structs or unions" The next thing I tried is to write an objective-c class MyStruct2 containing img and i, alloc-initing an instance of it and typecasting it as (__bridge void*) before passing it to the method. Seems little involved for my use case. Seems like there should be a better way. What's the simplest way to achieve this? Thank you. Edit based on comments: I have to use void * as it is required by the UIView API. I created a selector as mentioned by UIVIew API + (void)setAnimationDidStopSelector:(SEL)selector Please see documentation for setAnimationDidStopSelector at http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/uikit/reference/UIView_Class/UIView/UIView.html . It says ... The selector should be of the form: - (void)animationDidStop:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context I want to pass both img and i into the (void *)context argument.

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• In Netbeans, how do I avoid wsimport rebuilding web service clients every build?

  - by gustafc

  I'm on a project where we use NetBeans (6.8). We use several different web services, which we have added as web service references, and Netbeans auto-generates the Ant wsimport scripts for us. Very handy, with one drawback: The web service clients are recompiled every time ant is invoked. This slows down the build process considerably and has caused the number of sword-related injuries, maimings and deaths to skyrocket. Normally, I'd fix this by changing the wsimport element from <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"/> to <wsimport sourcedestdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" destdir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" wsdl="${wsdl-PonyService}" catalog="catalog.xml" verbose="true"> <produces dir="${build.generated.dir}/jax-wsCache/PonyService" /> </wsimport> But I can't, 'cause this part of the Ant script is auto-generated. If I right-click the PonyService web service reference and select Edit Web Service Attributes ⇒ wsimport options, I can add attributes to the wsimport element, but not child elements. So: How do I add the produces child element to wsimport other than hacking the auto-generated Ant script? Or more generally: How do I make the NetBeans-generated wsimport not recompile the web service clients every time I build?

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• Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

  - by Goosey

  I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

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• MVC UI with Mock Controllers?

  - by Jaimal Chohan

  I'm working with Aspnet MVC 2 (R2) and at the same time playing about with the whole alt.net stack. One of this things I would like to be able todo is basically write my Views, and be able to interact with them without having to write the controller logic. E.g. I have a view that displays a list of orders and I can click on an order which redirects to another view where I can edit it, but I don't want to get into the nitty gritty of writing the code to actually get a list of orders, or update an existing ordes. I want to do so I can write UI tests in WaitN/AOT/Selenium without having to worry about whats happening underneath, and also It would help drive my controller logic on a need basis as opposed to guess work based of of the supplied screenshots How do you guys accomplish this atm? Can you provide links ot useful blog posts/tools/framework/articles with information on how to accomplish this p.s. I primarly use Rhino Mocks & NUnit but can happliy change to other tools if they support the above better.

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• unable to place breakpoints in eclipse

  - by anjanb

  I am using eclipse europa (3.5) on windows vista home premium 64-bit using JDK 1.6.0_18 (32 BIT). Normally, I am able to put breakpoints just fine; However, for a particular class which is NOT part of the project (this class is inside a .JAR file (.JAR file is part of the project) ), although I have attached a source directory to this .JAR file, I am unable to place a breakpoint in this class. If I double-click on the breakpoint pane(left border), I notice that a class breakpoint is placed. I was wondering if there was NO debug info; However, found that this particular class was compiled using ant/javac task using debug="true" and debuglevel="lines,vars,source". I even ran jad on this class to confirm that it indeed contained the debug info. So, why is eclipse preventing me from placing a breakpoint ? EDIT : Just so everyone understands the context, this is a webapp running under tomcat 6.0. I am remote debugging the application from eclipse after having started tomcat outside. The application is working just fine. I am trying to understand the behavior of the above class which I'm unable to do since eclipse is not letting me set a BP. P.S : I saw a few threads here talking about BPs not being hit but in my case, I am unable to place the BP! P.P.S : I tried JDK 1.6.0_16 before trying out 1.6.0_18. Thanks for any pointers.

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• Data Binding to an object in C#

  - by Allen

  Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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• C# : changing listbox row color?

  - by Meko

  HI. I am trying to changing backround colorof some rows on listbox.I have 2 list that one has all names and it shown on listbox.And second list has some same value with first list.I want to show that when clicking button it will search in listbox and in second list then will change color where found value. I may search in list box like for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < students.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(students[j].ToString())) { } } But I don't know which method to change appearances of row.Any help? *EDIT: * HI I made my code like private void ListBox1_DrawItem(object sender, DrawItemEventArgs e) { e.DrawBackground(); Graphics g = e.Graphics; Brush myBrush = Brushes.Black; Brush myBrush2 = Brushes.Red; g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.Silver), e.Bounds); e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[e.Index].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < existingStudents.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(existingStudents[j])) { e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[i].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush2, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); } } e.DrawFocusRectangle(); } Now it draws my list on listbox.But when I click button first it shows only student that in list with red color but when I click on listbox it again draws all elements.I want that it will show all element ,when I click button it will show all elements and founded element in list with red color.Whre is my mistake?

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• #Error showing up in multiple LEFT JOIN statement Access query when value should be NULL

  - by lar

  I'm trying to return an ID's last 4 years of data, if existing. The table (call it A_TABLE) looks like this: ID, Year, Val The idea behind the query is this: for each ID/Year in the table, LEFT JOIN with Year-1, Year-2, and Year-3 (to get 4 years of data) and then return Val for each year. Here's the SQL: SELECT a.ID, a.year AS [Year], a.Val AS VAL, a1.year AS [Year-1], a1.Val AS [VAL-1], a2.year AS [Year-2], a2.Val AS [VAL-2], a3.year AS [Year-3], a3.Val AS [VAL-3] FROM ( ([A_TABLE] AS a LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a1 ON (a.ID = a1.ID) AND (a.year = a1.year+1)) LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a2 ON (a.ID = a2.ID) AND (a.year = a2.year+2)) LEFT JOIN [A_TABLE] AS a3 ON (a.ID = a3.ID) AND (a.year = a3.year+3) The problem is that, for past years where there is no data (eg, Year-1), I see "#Error" in the appropriate VAL column (eg, [VAL-1]). The weird thing is, I see the expected "null" in the Year column (eg, [YEAR-1]). Some sample data: ID YEAR VAL Dave 2004 1 Dave 2006 2 Dave 2007 3 Dave 2008 5 Dave 2009 0 outputs like this: ID YEAR VAL YEAR-1 VAL-1 YEAR-2 VAL-2 YEAR-3 VAL-3 Dave 2004 1 #Error #Error #Error Dave 2006 2 #Error 2004 1 #Error Dave 2007 3 2006 2 #Error 2004 1 Dave 2008 5 2007 3 2006 2 #Error Dave 2009 0 2008 5 2007 3 2006 2 Does that make sense? Why am I getting the appropriate NULL val for the non-existent YEARs, but an #Error for the non-existent VALs? (This is Access 2000. Conditional statements like "IIf(a1.val is null, -999, a1.val)" do not seem to do anything.) EDIT: It turns out that the errors are somehow caused by the fact that A_TABLE is actually a query. When I put all the data into an actual table and run the same query, everything shows up as it should. Thanks for the help, everyone.

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• Multiple dynamic timers

  - by Rickard

  I am working on a project where I need to let the user create one (or more) timers to fire off an event. The user is supposed to define variables such as if the timer should be active and how often the timer will fire along with some other variables of what will happen when the timer is fiering. All these variables are stored in a dictionary (Disctionary) where the object holds all the variables the user has set and the string is the name that the user has chosen for this timer. I then want my program to loop through this dictionary and search for all objects which has the variable t_Active set to true (this I have already achieved). What I need help with figuring out is the follwoing: When it detects the variable, and if it's set to true, I need the program to see if there is already a timer created for this. If it isn't, it should create one and set the relevant parameters for the timer. The two variables t_num and t_period should decide the interval of the timer. t_num is an int and t_period is a string which will be set to either minutes, hours or days. Combining t_num with 60000 (minutes), 3600000 (hours) or 86400000 should give the corrct interval. But how would I go on about programatically create a timer for each user-defined active object? And how do I get the program to detect wether or not a timer has already been created? I have been searching both here and on google, but so far I haven't come across something that makes sense to me. I am still learning C#, so what make sense to you guys may not neccessarilly make sense to me yet. :) I hope I have explaned what I need good enough, please do ask me to clarify if you don't get me. Edit: Maybe I should also mention that the mentioned dictionary will also be saved to an XML file to that the user can pick up all the settings they made at any time.

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• Drupal db_query_range sql query

  - by hfidgen

  Hiya, I'm trying to get this working and the query executes but nothing comes back.. I've tried everything I can think of, can you spot what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance! $nido = $node->nid; $result = db_query_range(' SELECT i.nid, i.iid, a.fid, p.filename, p.filepath FROM {drup_image_attach} i LEFT JOIN {drup_image} a ON i.iid = a.nid LEFT JOIN {drup_files} p ON a.fid = p.fid WHERE i.nid = %d AND p.filename = "recipe_thumb"', $nido, 0, 10); echo "Filepath = " . $result ->filepath. "<br>"; echo "Filepath = " . $result ->filename . "<br>"; echo "IID = " . $result ->iid. "<br>"; echo "NID = " . $result ->nid . "<br>"; } EDIT - sorted out a couple of bits, but the output is still empty!

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• EF4 and multiple abstract levels

  - by Cedric

  I need to use inheritance with EF4 and the TPH model created from DB. I created a new projet to test simples classes. There is my class model: There is my table in SQL SERVER 2008 : VEHICLE ID : int PK Owner : varchar(50) Consumption : float FirstCirculationDate : date Type : varchar(50) Discriminator : varchar(10) I added a condition in my EDMX on the Discriminator field to differentiate the Scooter, Car, Motorbike and Bike entities. MotorizedVehicle and Vehicle are Abstract. But when I compile, this error appears : Error 3032: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 78, 85:EntityTypes EF4InheritanceModel.Scooter, EF4InheritanceModel.Motorbike, EF4InheritanceModel.Car, EF4InheritanceModel.Bike are being mapped to the same rows in table Vehicle. Mapping conditions can be used to distinguish the rows that these types are mapped to. Edit : To Ladislav : I try it and error change to become it for all of my entities : Error 3034: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 72, 86:An entity is mapped to different rows within the same table. Ensure these two mapping fragments do not map two groups of entities with overlapping keys to two distinct groups of rows. To Henk (with Ladislay suggestion) : There are all of mappings details : What's wrong ? Thanks

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• Which languages support *recursive* function literals / anonymous functions?

  - by Hugh Allen

  It seems quite a few mainstream languages support function literals these days. They are also called anonymous functions, but I don't care if they have a name. The important thing is that a function literal is an expression which yields a function which hasn't already been defined elsewhere, so for example in C, &printf doesn't count. EDIT to add: if you have a genuine function literal expression <exp>, you should be able to pass it to a function f(<exp>) or immediately apply it to an argument, ie. <exp>(5). I'm curious which languages let you write function literals which are recursive. Wikipedia's "anonymous recursion" article doesn't give any programming examples. Let's use the recursive factorial function as the example. Here are the ones I know: JavaScript / ECMAScript can do it with callee: function(n){if (n<2) {return 1;} else {return n * arguments.callee(n-1);}} it's easy in languages with letrec, eg Haskell (which calls it let): let fac x = if x<2 then 1 else fac (x-1) * x in fac and there are equivalents in Lisp and Scheme. Note that the binding of fac is local to the expression, so the whole expression is in fact an anonymous function. Are there any others?

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• Programmatically modifying a file on Windows Server 2008 (Web Ed.)

  - by Tom

  I have written a .NET 2008 application, incorporating Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel, that modifies an existing Excel 2007 spreadsheet. It works perfectly on my WinXP development computer. When I upload the app to a Microsoft Web Server 2008, it opens the file and reads from the file, but when the app tries to save the file, it throws this exception: "System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x800A03EC): 'july2009.xlsx' is read-only. To save a copy, click OK, then give the workbook a new name in the Save As dialog box." The file is NOT read-only, nor is it opened by any other user or app. The app and the Excel file both reside on the D: (data-only) drive. My first instinct was to look at file permissions. When nothing else worked, I literally created a temporary Group, added EVERY user and security entity to it and granted the group full control of the entire D: drive. No luck. Then I tried manually elevating the permission by running my app as administrator. No luck. Finally, I copied the file to my XP development computer and ran the app there. Of course it worked perfectly. Can anyone please tell me how to give my program permission to edit a file on Server 2008? Thanks!

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• Python Socket Getting Connection Reset

  - by Ian

  I created a threaded socket listener that stores newly accepted connections in a queue. The socket threads then read from the queue and respond. For some reason, when doing benchmarking with 'ab' (apache benchmark) using a concurrency of 2 or more, I always get a connection reset before it's able to complete the benchmark (this is taking place locally, so there's no external connection issue). class server: _ip = '' _port = 8888 def __init__(self, ip=None, port=None): if ip is not None: self._ip = ip if port is not None: self._port = port self.server_listener(self._ip, self._port) def now(self): return time.ctime(time.time()) def http_responder(self, conn, addr): httpobj = http_builder() httpobj.header('HTTP/1.1 200 OK') httpobj.header('Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8') httpobj.header('Connection: close') httpobj.body("Everything looks good") data = httpobj.generate() sent = conn.sendall(data) def http_thread(self, id): self.log("THREAD %d: Starting Up..." % id) while True: conn, addr = self.q.get() ip, port = addr self.log("THREAD %d: responding to request: %s:%s - %s" % (id, ip, port, self.now())) self.http_responder(conn, addr) self.q.task_done() conn.close() def server_listener(self, host, port): self.q = Queue.Queue(0) sock = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) sock.bind( (host, port) ) sock.listen(5) for i in xrange(4): #thread count thread.start_new(self.http_thread, (i+1, )) while True: self.q.put(sock.accept()) sock.close() server('', 9999) When running the benchmark, I get totally random numbers of good requests before it errors out, usually between 4 and 500. Edit: Took me a while to figure it out, but the problem was in sock.listen(5). Because I was using apache benchmark with a higher concurrency (5 and up) it was causing the backlog of connections to pile up, at which point the connections started getting dropped by the socket.

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• Issue using GAE appcfg.py

  - by JustSmith

  I get nothing out of appcfg.py besides the default output. I'm trying to upload some data to my development project with no luck at at all. From the instructions on the Google App Engine page the steps are as follows: Edit app.yaml update with appcfg.py make upload script upload with appcfg.py After step one I try to run the update and it never shows any success. The following commands product the same output: appcfg.py appcfg.py update appDir appcfg.py update appDir/ appcfg.py update /appDir If i try to follow the instructions from the appcfg.py output and type help upload and get: "help <action>" I get a response from the system, This command is not supported by the help utility. Try "update /?". cause I'm calling the system help command. If I use the command appcfg.py help upload I get the same result as just typing appcfg.py Can someone show me examples of the syntax to update the dev site, upload data to it and get appcfg.py to actually give help on its commands? Also I'm just assuming that the upload script and the .csv file that are being uploaded are in they myApp directory. Appreciate any help,

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• How can I put double quotes inside a string within an ajax JSON response from php?

  - by karlthorwald

  I receive a JSON response in an Ajax request from the server. This way it works: { "a" = "1", "b" = "hello 'kitty'" } But I did not succeed in putting double quotes around kitty. When I convert " to \x22 in the Ajax response, it is still interpreted as " by JavaScript and I cannot parse the JSON. Should I also escape the \ and unescape later (which would be possible)? How to do this? Edit: I am not sure if i expressed it well: I want this string inside of "b" after the parse: hello "kitty" If necessary I could also add an additional step after the parse to convert "b", but I guess it is not necessary, there is a more elegant way so this happens automatically? Edit2: The ajax page is generated by php. I tried several things now to create the value of b, all result in JSON parse error on the page: $b = 'hello "kitty"'; // no 1: //$b = str_replace('"',"\x22",$b); // or no 2: // $b = addslashes($b); // or no 3: //$b = str_replace('"','\"',$b); // or no 4: $b = str_replace('"','\\"',$b); echo '"b" : "' . $b . '"';

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• When *not* to use prepared statements?

  - by Ben Blank

  I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

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• When virtual inheritance IS a good design?

  - by 7vies

  EDIT3: Please be sure to clearly understand what I am asking before answering (there are EDIT2 and lots of comments around). There are (or were) many answers which clearly show misunderstanding of the question (I know that's also my fault, sorry for that) Hi, I've looked over the questions on virtual inheritance (class B: public virtual A {...}) in C++, but did not find an answer to my question. I know that there are some issues with virtual inheritance, but what I'd like to know is in which cases virtual inheritance would be considered a good design. I saw people mentioning interfaces like IUnknown or ISerializable, and also that iostream design is based on virtual inheritance. Would those be good examples of a good use of virtual inheritance, is that just because there is no better alternative, or because virtual inheritance is the proper design in this case? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify, I'm asking about real-life examples, please don't give abstract ones. I know what virtual inheritance is and which inheritance pattern requires it, what I want to know is when it is the good way to do things and not just a consequence of complex inheritance. EDIT2: In other words, I want to know when the diamond hierarchy (which is the reason for virtual inheritance) is a good design

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• are there code signing certificates cheaper than US $99 per year? [closed]

  - by gerryLowry

  ksoftware discounts Commodo code signing certificates to US $99 per year. in the past, I've seen Commodo code signing certificates for US $80. I'm excluding CAcert which AFAIK are FREE but are not covered by browsers like IE AFAIK. QUESTION: What is the best price per year for a code signing certificate? Thank you ~~ gerry (lowry) Edit: **THIS SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN CLOSED** from the FAQ: http://stackoverflow.com/faq ---------------------------- What kind of questions can I ask here? Programming questions, of course! As long as your question is: * detailed and specific <====== YES! * written clearly and simply <====== YES! * of interest to other programmers <====== YES! I've been programming for over 40 years. http://gerrylowryprogrammer.com/ I've taught computer programming at the community college level. I'm a Star level contributer to forums.asp.net. http://forums.asp.net/members/gerrylowry.aspx imo, I've a very good idea what is of interest to other programmers. MORE INFORMATION Ensuring the integrity of code and executables that one distributes is just as much about programming as is knowing how to flip bits in assembler, use delegates in c#, and use the BDD context/specification still of "test first testing".

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• Why is my Python OpenGL render2DTexture function so slow?

  - by Barakat

  SOLVED: The problem was actually using time.time() every CPU cycle to see whether the next frame should be drawn or not. The time it takes to execute time.time() was having an impact on the FPS. I made this function for drawing 2D textures as images in a 2D view in my OpenGL application. After doing some testing I found that it takes up 1-2 fps per texture. I know I am probably doing something wrong in this code. Any ideas? I am limiting the FPS to 60. Edit: When I disable the texture rendering it adds about 15% fps back. When I disabled text rendering it adds about 15% fps back. When i disable both barely any fps is consumed anymore. IE: 20 out of 60 fps with both on. 30 out of 60 when one is disabled. 58 out of 60 when both are disabled. When rendering the text on a button ( the control I'm using to test this ), it only "prepares" the text when the button label is set. Updated code, still running at the same speed but still works the same: def render2DTexture( self, texture, rect, texrect ): glEnable( GL_TEXTURE_2D ) glBindTexture( GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture ) glBegin( GL_QUADS ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.left, texrect.bottom ) glVertex2i( rect.left, self.windowSize[1] - rect.top ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.right, texrect.bottom ) glVertex2i( rect.left + rect.right, self.windowSize[1] - rect.top ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.right, texrect.top ) glVertex2i( rect.left + rect.right, self.windowSize[1] - ( rect.top + rect.bottom ) ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.left, texrect.top ) glVertex2i( rect.left, self.windowSize[1] - ( rect.top + rect.bottom ) ) glEnd() glDisable( GL_TEXTURE_2D ) def prepareText( self, text, fontFace, color ): self.loadFont( fontFace ) bmp = self.fonts[ fontFace ].render( text, 1, color ) return ( pygame.image.tostring( bmp, 'RGBA', 1 ), bmp.get_width(), bmp.get_height() ) def renderText( self, pText, position ): glRasterPos2i( position[0], self.windowSize[1] - ( position[1] + pText[2] ) ) glDrawPixels( pText[1], pText[2], GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, pText[0] )

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• how can I convert String to SecretKey

  - by Alaa

  I want to convert String to secretKey public void generateCode(String keyStr){ KeyGenerator kgen = KeyGenerator.getInstance("AES"); kgen.init(128); // 192 and 256 bits may not be available // Generate the secret key specs. secretKey skey=keyStr; //How can I make the casting here //SecretKey skey = kgen.generateKey(); byte[] raw = skey.getEncoded(); } I try to use BASE64Decoder instead of secretKey, but I face a porblem which is I cannot specify key length. EDIT: I want to call this function from another place static public String encrypt(String message , String key , int keyLength) throws Exception { // Get the KeyGenerator KeyGenerator kgen = KeyGenerator.getInstance("AES"); kgen.init(keyLength); // 192 and 256 bits may not be available // Generate the secret key specs. //decode the BASE64 coded message SecretKey skey = key; //here is the error raw = skey.getEncoded(); SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec(raw, "AES"); // Instantiate the cipher Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); System.out.println("msg is" + message + "\n raw is" + raw); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal(message.getBytes()); String cryptedValue = new String(encrypted); System.out.println("encrypted string: " + cryptedValue); return cryptedValue; } Any one can help, i'll be very thankful.

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• Why does output of fltk-config truncate arguments to gcc?

  - by James Morris

  I'm trying to build an application I've downloaded which uses the SCONS "make replacement" and the Fast Light Tool Kit Gui. The SConstruct code to detect the presence of fltk is: guienv = Environment(CPPFLAGS = '') guiconf = Configure(guienv) if not guiconf.CheckLibWithHeader('lo', 'lo/lo.h','c'): print 'Did not find liblo for OSC, exiting!' Exit(1) if not guiconf.CheckLibWithHeader('fltk', 'FL/Fl.H','c++'): print 'Did not find FLTK for the gui, exiting!' Exit(1) Unfortunately, on my (Gentoo Linux) system, and many others (Linux distributions) this can be quite troublesome if the package manager allows the simultaneous install of FLTK-1 and FLTK-2. I have attempted to modify the SConstruct file to use fltk-config --cflags and fltk-config --ldflags (or fltk-config --libs might be better than ldflags) by adding them like so: guienv.Append(CPPPATH = os.popen('fltk-config --cflags').read()) guienv.Append(LIBPATH = os.popen('fltk-config --ldflags').read()) But this causes the test for liblo to fail! Looking in config.log shows how it failed: scons: Configure: Checking for C library lo... gcc -o .sconf_temp/conftest_4.o -c "-I/usr/include/fltk-1.1 -D_LARGEFILE_SOURCE -D_LARGEFILE64_SOURCE -D_THREAD_SAFE -D_REENTRANT" gcc: no input files scons: Configure: no How should this really be done? And to complete my answer, how do I remove the quotes from the result of os.popen( 'command').read()? EDIT The real question here is why does appending the output of fltk-config cause gcc to not receive the filename argument it is supposed to compile?

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• How to determine the data type of a CvMat

  - by Chris

  When using the CvMat type, the type of data is crucial to keeping your program running. For example, depending on whether your data is type float or unsigned char, you would choose one of these two commands: cvmGet(mat, row, col); cvGetReal2D(mat, row, col); Is there a universal approach to this? If the wrong data type matrix is passed to these calls, they crash at runtime. This is becoming an issue, since a function I have defined is getting passed several different types of matrices. How do you determine the data type of a matrix so you can always access its data? I tried using the "type()" function as such. CvMat* tmp_ptr = cvCreateMat(t_height,t_width,CV_8U); std::cout << "type = " << tmp_ptr->type() << std::endl; This does not compile, saying "term does not evaluate to a function taking 0 arguments". If I remove the brackets after the word type, I get a type of 1111638032 EDIT minimal application that reproduces this... int main( int argc, char** argv ) { CvMat *tmp2 = cvCreateMat(10,10, CV_32FC1); std::cout << "tmp2 type = " << tmp2->type << " and CV_32FC1 = " << CV_32FC1 << " and " << (tmp2->type == CV_32FC1) << std::endl; } Output: tmp2 type = 1111638021 and CV_32FC1 = 5 and 0

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