Search Results

Search found 15302 results on 613 pages for 'window managers'.

Page 583/613 | < Previous Page | 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590  | Next Page >

• Updating Textures on Runtime in OpenSceneGraph

  - by Abhishek Bansal

  I am working on a project in which i am required to capture frames from external device video and render them on openSceneGraph Node. I am also using GLSL shaders. But i dont know how to update textures on runtime. For other uniforms we need to make callbacks but do we also need to make callbacks for samplers in glsl and openSceneGraph ? My code looks like this. All i am getting right now is a black window. osg::ref_ptr<osg::Geometry> pictureQuad = osg::createTexturedQuadGeometry(osg::Vec3(0.0f,0.0f,0.0f), osg::Vec3(_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->s(),0.0f,0.0f), osg::Vec3(0.0f,0.0f,_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->t()), 0.0f, 1.0f,_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->s(), _deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->t()); //creating texture and setting up parameters for video frame osg::ref_ptr<osg::TextureRectangle> myTex= new osg::TextureRectangle(_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame.get()); myTex->setFilter(osg::Texture::MIN_FILTER,osg::Texture::LINEAR); myTex->setFilter(osg::Texture::MAG_FILTER,osg::Texture::LINEAR); myTex->setWrap(osg::Texture::WRAP_S, osg::Texture::CLAMP_TO_EDGE); myTex->setWrap(osg::Texture::WRAP_T, osg::Texture::CLAMP_TO_EDGE); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode = new osg::Geode(); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->setDataVariance(osg::Object::DYNAMIC); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->addDrawable(pictureQuad.get()); //apply texture to node _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setTextureAttributeAndModes(0, myTex.get(), osg::StateAttribute::ON); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setMode(GL_DEPTH_TEST, osg::StateAttribute::OFF); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->setDataVariance(osg::Object::DYNAMIC); //Set uniform sampler osg::Uniform* srcFrame = new osg::Uniform( osg::Uniform::SAMPLER_2D, "srcFrame" ); srcFrame->set(0); //Set Uniform Alpha osg::Uniform* alpha = new osg::Uniform( osg::Uniform::FLOAT, "alpha" ); alpha->set(.5f); alpha->setUpdateCallback(new ExampleCallback()); //Enable blending _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setMode( GL_BLEND, osg::StateAttribute::ON); //Adding blend function to node osg::BlendFunc *bf = new osg::BlendFunc(); bf->setFunction(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setAttributeAndModes(bf); //apply shader to quad _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setAttributeAndModes(program, osg::StateAttribute::ON); //add Uniform to shader _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->addUniform( srcFrame ); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->addUniform( alpha );

  Read the article

• Controlling the USB from Windows

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

  Read the article

• Help with simple frame, and graphics in Java

  - by Crystal

  For hw, I'm trying to create a "CustomButton" that has a frame and in that frame, I draw two triangles, and a square over it. It's supposed to give the user the effect of a button press once it is depressed. So for starters, I am trying to set up the beginning graphics, drawing two triangles, and a square. The problem I have is although I set my frame to 200, 200, and the triangles I have drawn I think to the correct ends of my frame size, when I run the program, I have to extend my window to make the whole artwork, my "CustomButton," viewable. Is that normal? Thanks. Code: import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.*; public class CustomButton { public static void main(String[] args) { EventQueue.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { CustomButtonFrame frame = new CustomButtonFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setVisible(true); } }); } } class CustomButtonFrame extends JFrame { // constructor for CustomButtonFrame public CustomButtonFrame() { setTitle("Custom Button"); setSize(DEFAULT_WIDTH, DEFAULT_HEIGHT); CustomButtonSetup buttonSetup = new CustomButtonSetup(); this.add(buttonSetup); } private static final int DEFAULT_WIDTH = 200; private static final int DEFAULT_HEIGHT = 200; } class CustomButtonSetup extends JComponent { public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { Graphics2D g2 = (Graphics2D) g; // first triangle coords int x[] = new int[TRIANGLE_SIDES]; int y[] = new int[TRIANGLE_SIDES]; x[0] = 0; y[0] = 0; x[1] = 200; y[1] = 0; x[2] = 0; y[2] = 200; Polygon firstTriangle = new Polygon(x, y, TRIANGLE_SIDES); // second triangle coords x[0] = 0; y[0] = 200; x[1] = 200; y[1] = 200; x[2] = 200; y[2] = 0; Polygon secondTriangle = new Polygon(x, y, TRIANGLE_SIDES); g2.drawPolygon(firstTriangle); g2.setColor(Color.WHITE); g2.fillPolygon(firstTriangle); g2.drawPolygon(secondTriangle); g2.setColor(Color.GRAY); g2.fillPolygon(secondTriangle); // draw rectangle 10 pixels off border g2.drawRect(10, 10, 180, 180); } public static final int TRIANGLE_SIDES = 3; }

  Read the article

• Hoe to convert a JSON array of paths to images stored on a server into a javaScript array to display them? Using AJAX

  - by MichaelF

  I need for html file/ ajax code to take the JSON message and store the PATHS as a javaScript array. Then my buildImage function can display the first image in the array. I'm new to AJAX and believe my misunderstanding lies within the converting of the JSON to Javascript. I'm confused also about if my code creates a JSON array or object or either. I might need also to download a library to my app to understand JSON? Below is a PHP file loading the paths of the images. I believe json ecode is converting the PHP Array in a Json message. <?php include("mysqlconnect.php"); $select_query = "SELECT `ImagesPath` FROM `offerstbl` ORDER by `ImagesId` DESC"; $sql = mysql_query($select_query) or die(mysql_error()); $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql,MYSQL_BOTH)){ $data[] = $row['ImagesPath']; } echo $images = json_encode($data); ?> Below is the script in is going to be loaded on an Cordova app. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/styles.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/cascading.css"> <script> function importJson(str) { // console.log(typeof xmlhttp.responseText); if (str=="") { document.getElementById("content").innerHTML=""; return; } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4) { //var images = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); document.getElementById("content").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("GET","http://server/content.php"); xmlhttp.send(); } function buildImage(src) { var img = document.createElement('img') img.src = src alert("1"); document.getElementById('content').appendChild(img); } for (var i = 0; i < images.length; i++) { buildImage(images[i]); } </script> </head> <body onload= "importJson();"> <div class="contents" id="content" ></div> <img src="img/logo.png" height="10px" width="10px" onload= "buildImage();"> </body>

  Read the article

• IPhone iOs 5, need help getting my tab bar at the top to work

  - by Patrick

  I wanted to have the tab bar at the top. So i created a new project in XCode. Added a view and then inside that view i added (scrollbar, text and another view). See picture. What i wanted was to have my tab bar at the top. Then in the middle would be the contents from the tab bar and below it a small copyright text. See picture. No idea how to make this correctly. I have tried to create the UITabBarController on the fly and then assign it into the view at the top. (Top white space on the picture dedicated for the tab bar). Here is my code to init the MainWindow. MainWindow.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @class Intro; @interface MainWindow : UIViewController @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UIScrollView *mainContentFrame; @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UIView *mainTabBarView; @property (strong, nonatomic) UITabBarController *mainTabBar; @property (nonatomic, strong) Intro *intro; // Trying to get this tab to show in the tab bar @end MainWindow.m #import "MainWindow.h" #import "Intro.h" @interface MainWindow () @end @implementation MainWindow @synthesize mainContentFrame = _mainContentFrame; @synthesize mainTabBarView = _mainTabBarView; @synthesize mainTabBar = _mainTabBar; @synthesize intro = _intro; - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { _intro = [[Intro alloc] init]; NSArray *allViews = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:_intro, nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view. _mainTabBar = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [_mainTabBar setViewControllers:allViews]; [_mainTabBarView.window addSubview:_mainTabBar.tabBarController.view]; } - (void)viewDidUnload { [self setMainTabBar:nil]; [self setMainContentFrame:nil]; [self setMainContentFrame:nil]; [super viewDidUnload]; // Release any retained subviews of the main view. } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); } @end What am i missing to get this to work? Wanted the content to end up in the scrollview so that all tabs are scrollable.

  Read the article

• jQuery .load(), don't show new content until images loaded

  - by Jarred

  Hi. I have been working on a jQuery photo slideshow. It scales the images to the browser size, and slides them left and right. There is no pre-determined size or aspect ratio, the script does everything on the fly. It requires that all images be fully loaded, so it can custom resize each individual image based on it's own aspect ratio ( width():height(), etc ), calculate the width of containing div, and calculate the slide distance from one image to another. As a stand-alone, it works pretty well (despite my lack of skills)! I simply hide the slideshow containing div at (document).ready, allow the images to load, then run the slideshow prep scripts at (window).load. Once this is done, it only then makes the slideshow divs, images, etc appear, properly sized, positioned and ready to roll. The ultimate goal is to be able to load in any number of slideshows without refreshing the page. The point of this is to be able to play uninterrupted background music. I know music on websites is annoying, but the target market likes it, a lot! I am using (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); }); and it definitely works! The problem is that I cannot find a way to hold off on preparing and showing the new content until the images have finished loading. It is running the slideshow prep scripts (which are totally dependent on the images being fully loaded), before the images are loaded. This results in a completely jacked up show! What I want to do is this - (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Wait until images are loaded $('img').load( function() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); } }); But this doesn't seem to work, the new content is never shown. You can see a live version here. The initial gallery loads correctly, everything looks good. The only nav link that works is Galleries Engagement, which will load a new show (a containing div with multiple <img> tags). You will see that the images are not centered, the containing div and slide distances are much too small, as they were calculated using images that were not actually loaded. Is there any way I can delay handling and showing new content until it is fully loaded? Any suggestions would be most appreciated, thanks for your time! PS - It just occurred to me while typing this that a decent solution may be to insert "width=x" height="x" into the <img> tags, so the script can work from those values, even if the images have not loaded...hmm...

  Read the article

• Best way to ask confirmation from user before leaving the page

  - by JohnathanKong

  Hey Everyone, I am currently building a registration page where if the user leaves, I want to pop up a CSS box asking him if he is sure or not. I can accomplish this feat using confirm boxes, but the client says that they are too ugly. I've tried using unload and beforeunload, but both cannot stop the page from being redirected. Using those to events, I return false, so maybe there's a way to cancel other than returning false? Another solution that I've had was redirecting them to another page that has my popup, but the problem with that is that if they do want to leave the page, and it wasn't a mistake, they lose the page they were originally trying to go to. If I was a user, that would irritate me. The last solution was real popup window. The only thing I don't like about that is that the main winow will have their destination page while the pop will have my page. In my opinion it looks disjoint. On top of that, I'd be worried about popup blockers. Just to add to everyones comments. I understand that it is irritating to prevent users from exiting the page, and in my opinion it should not be done. Right now I am using a confirm box at this point. What happens is that it's not actually "preventing" the user from leaving, what the client actually wants to do is make a suggestion if the user is having doubts about registering. If the user is halfway through the registraiton process and leaves for some reason, the client wants to offer the user a free coupon to a seminar (this client is selling seminars) to hopefully persuade the user to register. The client is under the impression that since the user is already on the form, he is thinking of registering, and therefore maybe a seminar of what he is registering for would be the final push to get the user to register. Ideally I don't have to prevent the user from leaving, what would be just as good, and in my opinion better is if I can pause the unload process. Maybe a sleep command? I don't really have to keep the user on the page because either way they will be leaving to go to a different page. Also, as people have stated, this is a terriable title, so if someone knows a better one, I'd really appreciate it if they could change the title to something no so spammer inviting.

  Read the article

• How do you return a string from a function correctly in Dynamic C?

  - by aquanar

  I have a program I am trying to debug, but Dynamic C apparently treats strings differently than normal C does (well, character arrays, anyway). I have a function that I made to make an 8 character long (well, 10 to include the \0 ) string of 0s and 1s to show me the contents of an 8-bit char variable. (IE, I give it the number 13, it returns the string "0001101\0" ) When I use the code below, it prints out !{happy face] 6 times (well, the second one is the happy face alone for some reason), each return comes back as 0xDEAE or "!\x02. I thought it would dereference it and return the appropriate string, but it appears to just be sending the pointer and attempting to parse it. This may seem silly, but my experience was actually in C++ and Java, so going back to C brings up a few issues that were dealt with in later programming languages that I'm not entirely sure how to deal with (like the lack of string variables). How could I fix this code, or how would be a better way to do what I am trying to do (I thought maybe sending in a pointer to a character array and working on it from the function might work, but I thought I should ask to see if maybe I'm just trying to reinvent the wheel). Currently I have it set up like this: this is an excerpt from the main() display[0] = '\0'; for(i=0;i<6;i++) { sprintf(s, "%s ", *char_to_bits(buffer[i])); strcat(display, s); } DispStr(8,5, display); and this is the offending function: char *char_to_bits(char x) { char bits[16]; strcpy(bits,"00000000\0"); if (x & 0x01) bits[7]='1'; if (x & 0x02) bits[6]='1'; if (x & 0x04) bits[5]='1'; if (x & 0x08) bits[4]='1'; if (x & 0x10) bits[3]='1'; if (x & 0x20) bits[2]='1'; if (x & 0x40) bits[1]='1'; if (x & 0x80) bits[0]='1'; return bits; } and just for the sake of completion, the other function is used to output to the stdio window at a specific location: void DispStr(int x, int y, char *s) { x += 0x20; y += 0x20; printf ("\x1B=%c%c%s", x, y, s); }

  Read the article

• How to Automatically Refresh Data on Page Using Ajax on an Interval?

  - by Karnak

  I would like to load an XML file every 30 seconds and display its contents inside an HTML page. So far I know how to load the file, but I don't know how to automatically refresh it and display its updated contents. It would also be great if it did some error checking and if it displayed error.png image when it's not able to load data.xml file. Here is my code: <head> <script> window.XMLHttpRequest { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } xmlhttp.open("GET", "data.xml", false); xmlhttp.send(); loadXMLDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; f = loadXMLDoc.getElementsByTagName("foo") function buildBar(i) { qux = (f[i].getElementsByTagName("qux")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.getElementById("displayBar").innerHTML = qux; } </script> </head> <body> <script> document.write("<ul>"); for (var i = 0; i < f.length; i++) { document.write("<li onclick='buildBar(" + i + ")'>"); document.write(f[i].getElementsByTagName("bar")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</li>"); } document.write("</ul>"); </script> <div id="displayBar"> </div> </body> After searching the internet for a few hours I found many examples on how to do this, but I didn't know how to implement it in my particular case. I am not a programmer, so please be kind. I would really appriciate any help. It would mean a lot.

  Read the article

• How to facebook getuser() after login with javascript SDK

  - by user1848205

  So I have to ask for extended permission by clicking the enter button, but after the login is necessary to refresh the page in order to display the app. Here's my code: <?php require 'facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '< THE APPID >', 'secret' => '< THE SECRET >', 'cookie' => true, )); $user = $facebook->getUser(); if ($user) { try { $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); $user = null; } } ?> <body> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : '< THE APPID >', status : true, cookie : true, xfbml : true }); // Additional initialization code such as adding Event Listeners goes here $('#btn-enter').click(function(){ login(); }); }; (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); }(document)); function login() { FB.login(function(response) { if (response.authResponse) { // connected } else { // cancelled } //}); }, {scope: 'read_friendlists,friends_photos,publish_stream'}); } </script> <?php if ($user): ?> <!--Here is my APP--> <?php else: ?> <a id="btn-enter">Enter</a> <?php endif ?> Is there a better way to do this ? What works for me is: function login() { FB.login(function(response) { if (response.authResponse) { top.location.href='https://the_app_url'; } else { } //}); }, {scope: 'read_friendlists,friends_photos,publish_stream'}); } But this causes the entire page to refresh and is not 'elegant' per se...

  Read the article

• In .NET Xml Serialization, is it possible to serialize a class with an enum property with different

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have a class, containing a list property, where the list contains objects that has an enum property. When I serialize this, it looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <test-event type="changing" /> <test-event type="changed" /> </events> </test> Is it possible, through attributes, or similar, to get the Xml to look like this? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ibm850"?> <test> <events> <changing /> <changed /> </events> </test> Basically, use the property value of the enum as a way to determine the tag-name? Is using a class hierarchy (ie. creating subclasses instead of using the property value) the only way? Edit: After testing, it seems even a class-hierarchy won't actually work. If there is a way to structure the classes to get the output I want, even with sub-classes, that is also an acceptable answer. Here's a sample program that will output the above Xml (remember to hit Ctrl+F5 to run in Visual Studio, otherwise the program window will close immediately): using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; namespace ConsoleApplication18 { public enum TestEventTypes { [XmlEnum("changing")] Changing, [XmlEnum("changed")] Changed } [XmlType("test-event")] public class TestEvent { [XmlAttribute("type")] public TestEventTypes Type { get; set; } } [XmlType("test")] public class Test { private List<TestEvent> _Events = new List<TestEvent>(); [XmlArray("events")] public List<TestEvent> Events { get { return _Events; } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Test test = new Test(); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changing }); test.Events.Add(new TestEvent { Type = TestEventTypes.Changed }); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Test)); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); serializer.Serialize(Console.Out, test, ns); } } }

  Read the article

• Dynamically created textboxes and changes plus jQuery in ASP.NET?

  - by gazeebo

  Hi all, I was wondering how to read off a value from a textbox that resides in a partialview and output the value into a textbox within the initial window. Here's my code... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { // Calculate the sum when the document has been loaded. var total = 0; $("#fieldValues :input.fieldKronor").each(function (e) { total += Number($(this).val()); }); // Set the value to the correspondent textbox $("#fieldSummation").text(total); // Re-calculate on change $("#fieldValues :input.fieldKronor").change(function (e) { var total = 0; $("#fieldValues :input.fieldKronor").each(function (e) { total += Number($(this).val()); }); $("#fieldSummation").text(total); }); }); </script> Here's the table where in info is... <table id="fieldValues" style="width: 60%; margin-bottom: 2em"> <thead> <tr> <th>Rubrik, t.ex. teknik*</th> <th>Kronor (ange endast siffror)*</th> </tr> </thead> <asp:Panel ID="pnlStaffRows" runat="server"></asp:Panel> <tfoot> <tr> <th></th> <th>Total kostnad</th> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td><input type="text" value="" class="fieldSummation" style="width:120px" /></td> </tr> </tfoot> </table> And here's the partialview... <tr> <td class="greyboxchildsocialsecuritynumberheading4" style="padding-bottom:1em"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtRubrikBox" ToolTip="Rubrik" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </td> <td class="greyboxchildnameheading3" style="padding-bottom:1em"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtKronorBox" class="fieldKronor" ToolTip="Kronor" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </td> </tr>

  Read the article

• Simple line matching using Regex

  - by Joan Venge

  I have this string stream: "do=whoposted&amp;t=1934067" rel=nofollow>61</A></TD><TD class=alt2 align=middle>5,286</TD></TR><TR><TD id=td_threadstatusicon_1911046 class=alt1><IMG id=thread_statusicon_1911046 border=0 alt="" src="http://url.com/forum/images/statusicon/thread_new.gif"> </TD><TD class=alt2><IMG title=Node border=0 alt=Node src="http://url.com/forum/images/icons/new.png"></TD><TD id=td_threadtitle_1911046 class=alt1 title="http://lulzimg.com/i14/7bd11b.jpg &#10; &#10;Complete name : cool-thread...."><DIV><A id=thread_gotonew_1911046 href="http://url.com/forum/f80/cool-topic-new/"><IMG class=inlineimg title="Go to first new post" border=0 alt="Go to first new post" src="http://url.com/forum/images/buttons/firstnew.gif"></A> [MULTI] <A style="FONT-WEIGHT: bold" id=thread_title_1911046 href="http://url.com/forum/f80/cool-topic-name-1911046/">Cool Topic Name</A> </DIV><DIV class=smallfont><SPAN style="CURSOR: pointer" onclick="window.open('http://url.com/forum/members/u2031889/', '_self')">m3no</SPAN> </DIV></TD><TD class=alt2 title="Replies: 11, Views: 1,554"><DIV style="TEXT-ALIGN: right; WHITE-SPACE: nowrap" class=smallfont>Today <SPAN class=time>08:04 AM</SPAN><BR>by <A href="http://url.com/forum/members/u1131830/" rel=nofollow>karetsos</A> <A " The lines I am interested are similar to this: <A style="FONT-WEIGHT: bold" id=thread_title_1911046 href="http://url.com/forum/f80/cool-topic-name-1911046/">Cool Topic Name</A> From here all I am trying to extract are: Thread id: 1911046 (could be from either location in the string) Thread name: "Cool Topic Name" Thread link: "http://url.com/forum/f80/cool-topic-name-1911046/" Currently I use this: Regex pattern = new Regex ( "<A\\s+href=\"([^\"]*)\">([^\\x00]*?)\\s+id=thread_title_(\\S+)</A>" ); MatchCollection matches = pattern.Matches ( doc.ToString ( ) ); foreach ( Match match in matches ) { int id = Convert.ToInt32 ( match.Groups [ 1 ].Value ); string name = match.Groups [ 3 ].Value; string link = match.Groups [ 2 ].Value; ... } I would appreciate if someone can help me fix the pattern to match it. This used to work but it returns 0 matches.

  Read the article

• Animating and moving a draggable shape in KineticJS's dragend event

  - by user3712941

  I would like to animate moving a draggable shape to another position after it has been dragged in KineticJS. I would like to animate the movement of the shape over a period of time (for example, over 1 second). For example, I create a draggable shape and save its initial xy coordinates. I register a "dragend" event on this shape. Then, I drag the shape to a new position. When I release the drag, the dragend event is called. In that event function, I want to animate/ease the shape back to its original position. See my JSFiddle for a complete example: DragSample. (function () { //create variables at global scope var layer; var stage; var triangle; var triangleLastX = 190; var triangleLastY = 120; var tween; function initTween() { tween = new Kinetic.Tween({ node: triangle, duration: 1, easing: Kinetic.Easings.EaseInOut, x: 400, y: 200, }); } this.init = function () { layer = new Kinetic.Layer(); stage = new Kinetic.Stage({ container: 'container', width: 800, height: 600 }); triangle = new Kinetic.RegularPolygon({ x: 190, y: 120, sides: 3, radius: 80, fill: '#00D2FF', stroke: 'black', strokeWidth: 4, draggable: true }); triangle.on('dragstart', function () { triangleLastX = triangle.attrs.x; triangleLastY = triangle.attrs.y; }); triangle.on('dragend', function () { tween.play(); stage.draw(); }); layer.add(triangle); stage.add(layer); initTween (); } window.onload = init(); })(); I have tried doing this several ways. The last way I attempted to do this was using Kinetic's Tween(), however, when I play this Tween from the dragend event handler function, it moves the shape back to its original position immediately (i.e. the position when the drag started), then applies the Tween. Is there any way to achieve animating the movement of a draggable shape to its original position (or any other position for that matter) in dragend using KineticJS?

  Read the article

• Why is the data I am printing not in a table format

  - by udaya

  Hi This is my program .when i submit the print button i can print the datas but they are not aligned in the table formatthe format in which i need the print to be...How can i print in the correct format <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jqueryjs.googlecode.com/files/jquery-1.3.1.min.js" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function PrintElem(elem) { //alert('ddd'); Popup($(elem).text()); } function Popup(data) { var mywindow = window.open('', 'mydiv', 'height=400,width=600'); mywindow.document.write('<html><head><title>my div</title>'); /*optional stylesheet*/ //mywindow.document.write('<link rel="stylesheet" href="main.css" type="text/css" />'); mywindow.document.write('</head><body >'); mywindow.document.write(data); mywindow.document.write('</body></html>'); mywindow.document.close(); mywindow.print(); return true; } </script> </head> <body> <div id="mydiv"> <table width="200" border="1"> <tr> <td>sss</td> <td>sssss;</td> <td>snssbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <td>ssss;</td> <td>sssnbsp;</td> <td>snbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <td>snbsp;</td> <td>snbsp;</td> <td>snbsp;</td> </tr> </table> </div> <input type="button" value="Print Div" onClick="PrintElem('#mydiv')" /> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• How to pass multiple PHP variables to a jQuery function?

  - by jcpeden

  I'm working on a Wordpress plugin. I need to pass plugin directories (that can change depending on an individual's installation) to a jquery function. What is the best way of doing this? The version of the plugin that I can to work on had included all the javascript in the PHP file so the functions were parsed along with the rest of the content before being rendered in a browser. I'm looking at AJAX but I think it might be more complicated than I need. I can get away with just two variables in this case (directories, nothing set by the user). As I've read its good practice, I'm trying to keep the js and php separate. When the plugin initializes, it call the js file: //Wordpress calls the .js when the plugin loads wp_enqueue_script( 'wp-backitup-funtions', plugin_dir_url( __FILE__ ) . 'js/wp-backitup.js', array( 'jquery' ) ); Then I'm in the .js file and need to figure out how to generate the following variables: dir = '<?php echo content_url() ."/plugins"; ?>'; dir = '<?php echo content_url() ."/themes"; ?>'; dir = '<?php echo content_url() ."/uploads"; ?>'; And run the parse the following requests: xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/includes/wp-backitup-restore.php'); ?>",true); xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/includes/wp-backitup-start.php'); ?>",true); xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/wp-backitup-directory.php'); ?>",true); xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/wp-backitup-db.php'); ?>",true); window.location = "<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/backitup-project.zip'); ?>"; xmlhttp.open("POST","<?php echo plugins_url() .'/wp-backitup/wp-backitup-delete.php'); ?>",true); Content URL and Plugins URL differ only by /plugins/ so if I was hard pressed, I would only really need to make a single PHP request and then bring this into the JS.

  Read the article

• C# Different class objects in one list

  - by jeah_wicer

  I have looked around some now to find a solution to this problem. I found several ways that could solve it but to be honest I didn't realize which of the ways that would be considered the "right" C# or OOP way of solving it. My goal is not only to solve the problems but also to develop a good set of code standards and I'm fairly sure there's a standard way to handle this problem. Let's say I have 2 types of printer hardwares with their respective classes and ways of communicating: PrinterType1, PrinterType2. I would also like to be able to later on add another type if neccessary. One step up in abstraction those have much in common. It should be possible to send a string to each one of them as an example. They both have variables in common and variables unique to each class. (One for instance communicates via COM-port and has such an object, while the other one communicates via TCP and has such an object). I would however like to just implement a List of all those printers and be able to go through the list and perform things as "Send(string message)" on all Printers regardless of type. I would also like to access variables like "PrinterList[0].Name" that are the same for both objects, however I would also at some places like to access data that is specific to the object itself (For instance in the settings window of the application where the COM-port name is set for one object and the IP/port number for another). So, in short something like: In common: Name Send() Specific to PrinterType1: Port Specific to PrinterType2: IP And I wish to, for instance, do Send() on all objects regardless of type and the number of objects present. I've read about polymorphism, Generics, interfaces and such, but I would like to know how this, in my eyes basic, problem typically would be dealt with in C# (and/or OOP in general). I actually did try to make a base class, but it didn't quite seem right to me. For instance I have no use of a "string Send(string Message)" function in the base class itself. So why would I define one there that needs to be overridden in the derived classes when I would never use the function in the base class ever in the first place? I'm really thankful for any answers. People around here seem very knowledgeable and this place has provided me with many solutions earlier. Now I finally have an account to answer and vote with too. EDIT: To additionally explain, I would also like to be able to access the objects of the actual printertype. For instance the Port variable in PrinterType1 which is a SerialPort object. I would like to access it like: PrinterList[0].Port.Open() and have access to the full range of functionality of the underlaying port. At the same time I would like to call generic functions that work in the same way for the different objects (but with different implementations): foreach (printer in Printers) printer.Send(message)

  Read the article

• Different data for different dates

  - by nsw1475

  I am making a web page which will allow users to input and view data for different dates, and to change the date, there are two buttons, one of which will display the previous day, and one which will show the next day. I know that I can do this by submitting forms and reloading the page every time they press one of these buttons, but I would rather use javascript and not have to submit a form, but I am having troubles getting it to work. Currently, I have the two buttons, and the date stored in a PHP variable, as shown in my code below: <script> function init() { <? $nutrDate = $this->parseDate(date('m/d/Y')); ?> } function nutrPrevDay() { <? $nutrDate = mktime(0, 0, 0, date('m',$nutrDate), date('d',$nutrDate)-1, date('Y',$nutrDate)); ?> alert("<? echo(date("m/d/y", $nutrDate)) ?>"); } function nutrNextDay() { <? $nutrDate = mktime(0, 0, 0, date('m',$nutrDate), date('d',$nutrDate)+1, date('Y',$nutrDate)); ?> } window.onload = init; </script> <p style="text-align:center; font-size:14px; color:#03F"> <button onclick="nutrPrevDay()" style="width:200px" >< Show Previous Day</button> <? echo(date('m/d/Y', $nutrDate)) ?> <button onclick="nutrNextDay()" style="width:200px">Show Next Day ></button> </p> I have the alert in the nutrPrevDay() only as debugging. What happens is when I click on the button, the alert shows that the day is correctly decreased (for example from May 17 to May 16), but only decreases one day, and not one day for every click. Also, I do not know how to make the text on the page (created by the line ) change to display the new date after a button is clicked. So here are my questions: 1) Is it possible to dynamically change data (such as text, and in the future, SQL queries) on a page using javascript without having to reload a page when clicking on a button? 2) If possible, how can I make those changes? 3) How can I fix this so that it will increment and decrement through dates every time a button is clicked?

  Read the article

• KineticJS issue with repeatable mouse event

  - by nuclearpeace

  I have noob issue here (i obviously missing something). I simplified it from my bigger application: When i click blue rectangle, i add another layer to the stage that includes red rectangle (clickable), when i clik this red rectangle it removes second layer with red rect. Problem: When i click blue rect second time, nothing happens :( i.e. app works only once, and i need to add/remove second layer(with red rect) repeatedly. What's wrong? :) You can see it here, Fiddle http://jsfiddle.net/mAX8r/ Code: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <style> body { margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } canvas { border: 1px solid #9C9898; } </style> <script src="http://www.html5canvastutorials.com/libraries/kinetic-v4.0.3.js"> </script> <script> window.onload = function() { var stage = new Kinetic.Stage({ container: 'container', width: 578, height: 200 }); var layerBlue = new Kinetic.Layer(); var layerRed = new Kinetic.Layer(); var rectBlue = new Kinetic.Rect({ x: 100, y: 75, width: 100, height: 50, fill: 'blue', stroke: 'black', strokeWidth: 4 }); var rectRed = new Kinetic.Rect({ x: 300, y: 75, width: 100, height: 50, fill: 'red', stroke: 'black', strokeWidth: 4 }); // mouse events rectBlue.on('click', function() { stage.add(layerRed); stage.draw(); }); rectRed.on('click', function() { layerRed.remove(); stage.draw(); }); // add the shape to the layer layerBlue.add(rectBlue); layerRed.add(rectRed); // add the layer to the stage stage.add(layerBlue); }; </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"></div> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• How to make area outside of custom dialog view unclickable?

  - by portfoliobuilder

  I created a custom dialog (no, this is not dialog object) from an image and some other views. The conflict I am having with this custom dialog (again, this is a layout) is that the area around it closes the custom dialog. Is there a way I can make the outside area unclickable? I have tried wrapping the dialog view with a fullscreen frameLayout w/ transparent background, and then programmatically I set the frame attribute to setClickable(false). framelayout.setClickable(false); This does nothing. It still closes the dialog. Any other suggestions? Thank you in advance. This is my code: //used to disable background from closing the custom dialog private FrameLayout fl; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); setContentView(R.layout.layout_dialog); btnContinue = (Button) findViewById(R.id.btnContinue); btnContinue.setOnClickListener(this); fl.setClickable(false); //background suppose to lock } @Override public void onClick(View v) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub switch (v.getId()) { case R.id.Continue: finish(); } break; } } I also have another class for broadcastReceiver public class DialogManagerBroadcastReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { if(IdeaPlayInterfaceApplication.isActivityVisible()){ Intent i=new Intent(context,CustomDialogActivity.class); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); } } } The idea is that this custom dialog is not called at a specific instance, it is called every set amount of time no matter what I am doing in the application. I use an Intent and PendingIntent to repeatedly call this custom dialog over time. With something like this: cancelAlarmNotificationMonitoring(context); Calendar calendar = Calendar.getInstance(); Intent intent = new Intent(context, AlarmManagerBroadcastReceiver.class); PendingIntent pintent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarm = (AlarmManager) context.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarm.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP,calendar.getTimeInMillis()+ALARM_INTERVAL,ALARM_INTERVAL, pintent); Hopefully this is more clear now.

  Read the article

• VB.Net 2008 IDE hanging - MSVB7.dll eating 100% CPU when editing code

  - by Andrew Backer

  I am having a problem with msvb7.dll eating 50%+ cpu on my dual core system. This usually lasts 10-30 seconds or so, during which time the IDE is non-responsive. This occurs when I do pretty much anything in the text editor, and can be replicated by simply adding blank lines to a function, and then deleting them. Or pasting some code. Or... lotsa stuff. SP1 installed I had DevExpress' refactor/coderush, components, and codeit.right installed, but have removed all 3 of them. (I had installed the latest version of Refactor Pro! (9.3.4), perhaps the day before) I have tried a VS.NET Repair. There is a kb that referenced some cpu destroying with vb, but it was included in SP1 Also: The solution consists of ~30 VB projects and 2 C# projects 8 other developers aren't having any issues with this (or at least not the SAME issues, we all have em) Clean get from TFS was done Project builds properly, can can even debug. This doesn't seem to happen on really small solutions, but perhaps it does and it just goes away super quick. Any clues at all as to what might be causing this, or how to fix it? I REALLY don't want to lose another day uninstalling and reinstalling and patching and so on =) If that even fixes it. Here is the stack trace (process explorer) that I get from the threads window when the msvb7.dll is churning. --- title in process explorer [threads] tab for process -------- cpu:49.28% cswitch delta: 300 to 3500 startaddress: [msvb7.dll+0x4218c] msvb7.dll version: 9.0.30729.1 --- actual stack trace ------- ntkrnlpa.exe!KiUnexpectedInterrupt+0x121 ntkrnlpa.exe!ZwYieldExecution+0x1c56 ntkrnlpa.exe!KiDispatchInterrupt+0x72e NDIS.sys!NdisFreeToBlockPool+0x15e1 // shortened stack trace. all of these are from msvb7, msvb7.dll+0x46ce7 <- 0x2676a <- 0x2698e <- 0x38031 <- 0x2659f <- 0x26644 msvb7.dll+0x25f29 <- 0x2ac7a <- 0x27522 <- 0x274a0 <- 0x2b5ce <- 0x2b6e4 msvb7.dll+0x67d0a <- 0x68551 <- 0x6817b <- 0x681f0 <- 0x67c38 <- 0x65fa8 msvb7.dll+0x666c6 <- 0x6672c <- 0x6673d <- 0x6677c <- 0x667b4 <- 0x63c77 msvb7.dll+0x63e97 <- 0x42c3a <- 0x42bc1 <- 0x41bd7 kernel32.dll!GetModuleFileNameA+0x1b4 This is the list of stuff from "copy info" in help-about, shortened to a resonable length. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 | Version 9.0.30729.1 SP Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition - ENU Service Pack 1 (KB945140) KB945140 Microsoft .NET Framework | Version 3.5 SP1 Microsoft Visual Basic 2008 Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Microsoft Visual F# for Visual Studio 2008 Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Team Explorer | Version 9.0.30729.1 Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Tools for Office Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 Hotfix for Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition - ENU KB944899, KB945282, KB946040, KB946308, KB946344, KB946581, KB947171 KB947173, KB947180, KB947540, KB947789, KB948127, KB946260, KB946458, KB948816 Microsoft Recipe Framework Package 8.0 Process Editor WIT Designer 1.4.0.0 Process Editor for Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server, Version 1.4.0.0 tangible T4 Editor 9.0 tangible T4 Text Template Editor - T4 Editor tangibleprojectsystem 1.0 Team Foundation Server Power Tools October 2008 SQL Prompt 4.0 (disabled)

  Read the article

• Run CGI in IIS 7 to work with GET without Requiring POST Request

  - by Mohamed Meligy

  I'm trying to migrate an old CGI application from an existing Windows 2003 server (IIS 6.0) where it works just fine to a new Windows 2008 server with IIS 7.0 where we're getting the following problem: After setting up the module handler and everything, I find that I can only access the CGI application (rdbweb.exe) file if I'm calling it via POST request (form submit from another page). If I just try to type in the URL of the file (issuing a GET request) I get the following error: HTTP Error 502.2 - Bad Gateway The specified CGI application misbehaved by not returning a complete set of HTTP headers. The headers it did return are "Exception EInOutError in module rdbweb.exe at 00039B44. I/O error 6. ". This is a very old application for one of our clients. When we tried to call the vendor they said we need to pay ~ $3000 annual support fee in order to start the talk about it. Of course I'm trying to avoid that! Note that: If we create a normal HTML form that submits to "rdbweb.exe", we get the CGI working normally. We can't use this as workaround though because some pages in the application link to "rdbweb.exe" with normal link not form submit. If we run "rdbweb.exe". from a Console (Command Prompt) Window not IIS, we get the normal HTML we'd typically expect, no problem. We have tried the following: Ensuring the CGI module mapped to "rdbweb.exe".in IIS has all permissions (read, write, execute) enabled and also all verbs are allowed not just specific ones, also tried allowing GET, POST explicitely. Ensuring the application bool has "enable 32 bit applications" set to true. Ensuring the website runs with an account that has full permissions on the "rdbweb.exe".file and whole website (although we know it "read", "execute" should be enough). Ensuring the machine wide IIS setting for "ISAPI and CGI Restrictions" has the full path to "rdbweb.exe".allowed. Making sure we have the latest Windows Updates (for IIS6 we found knowledge base articles stating bugs that require hot fixes for IIS6, but nothing similar was found for IIS7). Changing the module from CGI to Fast CGI, not working also Now the only remaining possibility we have instigated is the following Microsoft Knowledge Base article:http://support.microsoft.com/kb/145661 - Which is about: CGI Error: The specified CGI application misbehaved by not returning a complete set of HTTP headers. The headers it did return are: the article suggests the following solution: Modify the source code for the CGI application header output. The following is an example of a correct header: print "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\n"; print "Content-Type: text/html\n\n\n"; Unfortunately we do not have the source to try this out, and I'm not sure anyway whether this is the issue we're having. Can you help me with this problem? Is there a way to make the application work without requiring POST request? Note that on the old IIS6 server the application is working just fine, and I could not find any special IIS configuration that I may want to try its equivalent on IIS7.

  Read the article

• How to bridge Debian guest VM to VPN via Cisco AnyConnect Client running on Windows Vista host

  - by bgoodr

  I am running Cisco Anyconnect VPN Client version 2.5.3054 on a laptop running Windows Vista Home Premium (version 6.0.6002) Service Pack 2. I am running the VMware Player version 4.0.2 build-591240. The host operating system running under VMware Player is Debian 6.0.2.1 i386. The laptop is connected to a wireless connection, and I can browse the web from Windows Vista using Firefox just fine. I am able to boot into the Debian VM and open up a browser and access websites on the WAN from within the VM just fine. I can ping real Linux hosts on my LAN via: ping <lan_system>.local where <lan_system> is the hostname returned from uname -a on that system on my LAN. From a DOS CMD shell, I am able to ping hosts that exist on the remote network served by the Cisco AnyConnect Client's VPN network (and without the .local suffix applied as above): ping <remote_system> However, from within the Debian VM, I expect to be able to also ping those same remote hosts (<remote_system>) that are tunnelled over the VPN set up by Cisco AnyConnect Client. Let's say that I can ping a <remote_system> called flubber from a DOS CMD prompt just fine. When I execute Linux ping command from inside the Debian VM via: ping flubber It returns immediately with this output: ping: unknown host flubber For reference since I suspect it will be useful, here is the output of the route print command from the DOS CMD prompt: route print =========================================================================== Interface List 30 ...00 05 9a 3c 7a 00 ...... Cisco AnyConnect VPN Virtual Miniport Adapter for Windows 11 ...00 1b 9e c4 de e5 ...... Atheros AR5007EG Wireless Network Adapter 26 ...00 50 56 c0 00 01 ...... VMware Virtual Ethernet Adapter for VMnet1 28 ...00 50 56 c0 00 08 ...... VMware Virtual Ethernet Adapter for VMnet8 1 ........................... Software Loopback Interface 1 12 ...02 00 54 55 4e 01 ...... Teredo Tunneling Pseudo-Interface 13 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #3 32 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #4 27 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 isatap.{E5292CF6-4FBB-4320-806D-A6B366769255} 17 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #2 20 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #8 22 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #10 24 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #11 25 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #12 29 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 isatap.{C3852986-5053-4E2E-BE60-52EA2FCF5899} 41 ...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #14 =========================================================================== At the top window border of the VM, clicking on Virtual Machine, then clicking on Virtual Machine Settings, then clicking on Network Adapter, I have these two options checked: [X] Bridged: Connected directly to the physical Network [X] Replicate physical network connection state [ ] NAT: used to share the hosts's IP address [ ] Host-only: A private network shared with the host [ ] LAN segment: [ ] <LAN Segments...> <Advanced> I've toyed with the other options such as NAT and Host-only but that had no effect. Is there some way to allow the VM to access those <remote_system>'s?

  Read the article

• SQL Server (2012 Enterprise) Browser service failing

  - by Watki02

  SQL Server (2012 Enterprise) Browser service failing I have a problem as described below: I have an instance of SQL Server 2012 Enterprise (thanks to MSDN) for local development on my PC. I try to start SQL server Browser Service from SQL Server Configuration Manager and it takes a long time to fail, then fails with: The request failed or the service did not respond in a timely fashion. Consult the event log or other applicable error logs for details. I checked event logs and found these errors in this order (all within the same 1-second time frame): The SQL Server Browser service port is unavailable for listening, or invalid. The SQL Server Browser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery. The SQL Server Browser is enabling SQL instance and connectivity discovery support. The SQL Server Browser service was unable to establish Analysis Services discovery. The SQL Server Browser service has started. The SQL Server Browser service has shutdown. I checked firewall rules and both port 1433 (TCP) and 1434 (UDP) are wide open, just as well - the programs and service binary had been "allowed through windows firewall". I started the "Analysis Services" service by hand and it works fine. Browser still won't start. Some History: Installed SQL 2008 R2 express advanced Installed SQL2012 Express advanced Uninstalled SQL 2008 R2 express advanced Installed 2012 SSDT and lots of features with Express install Installed a unique instance of SQL 2012 Enterprise with all features Uninstalled SSDT and reinstalled SSDT with Enterprise (solved a different problem) Uninstalled SQL 2012 Express Uninstalled SQL 2012 Enterprise Removed anything with "SQL" in the name from Control panel "Programs and features" Installed SQL 2012 Enterprise without Analysis services (This is where I noticed SQL Browser service was failing to start even on the install) Added the feature of Analysis Services (and everything else) via the installer (Browser continued to fail to start on the install) ======================== Other interesting facts: opening a command window with administrator and trying to run sqlbrowser.exe manually yielded: Microsoft Windows [Version 6.1.7601] Copyright (c) 2009 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. C:\Windows\system32cd C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SQL Server\90\Shared C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SQL Server\90\Sharedsqlbrowser.exe -c SQLBrowser: starting up in console mode SQLBrowser: starting up SSRP redirection service SQLBrowser: failed starting SSRP redirection services -- shutting down. SQLBrowser: starting up OLAP redirection service SQLBrowser: Stopping the OLAP redirector C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SQL Server\90\Shared As I try to repair the install it errors out saying The following error has occurred: Service 'SQLBrowser' start request failed. Click 'Retry' to retry the failed action, or click 'Cancel' to cancel this action and continue setup. For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?LinkID=20476&ProdName=Microsoft%20SQL%20Server&EvtSrc=setup.rll&EvtID=50000&ProdVer=11.0.2100.60&EvtType=0x4F9BEA51%25400xD3BEBD98%25401211%25401 Clicking retry fails every time. When clicking cancel I get: The following error has occurred: SQL Server Browser configuration for feature 'SQL_Browser_Redist_SqlBrowser_Cpu32' was cancelled by user after a previous installation failure. The last attempted step: Starting the SQL Server Browser service 'SQLBrowser', and waiting for up to '900' seconds for the process to complete. . For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?LinkID=20476&ProdName=Microsoft%20SQL%20Server&EvtSrc=setup.rll&EvtID=50000&ProdVer=11.0.2100.60&EvtType=0x4F9BEA51%25400xD3BEBD98%25401211%25401 When I go to uninstall the SQL Browser from "Programs and Features", it complains: Error opening installation log file. Verify that the specified log file location exists and is writable. Is there any way I can fix this short of re-imaging my computer and reinstalling from scratch? A possible approach would be to somehow really uninstall everything and delete all files related to SQL... is that a good idea, and how do I do that?

  Read the article

• svnstat script

  - by Kyle Hodgson

  So I'm building out a shell script to check out all of our relevant svn repositories for analysis in svnstat. I've gotten all of this to work manually, now I'm writing up a bash script in cygwin on my Vista laptop, as I intend to move this to a Linux server at some point. Edit: I gave up on this and wrote a simple .bat script. I'll figure out the Linux deployment some other way. Edit: added the sleep 30 and svn log commands. I can tell now, with the svn log command, that it's not getting to the svn log ... this time, it did Applications, and ran the log, and then check out Database, and froze. I'll put the sleep 30 before and after the log this time. co2.sh #!/bin/bash function checkout { mkdir $1 svn checkout svn://dev-server/$1 $1 svn log --verbose --xml >> svn.log $1 sleep 30 } cd /cygdrive/c/Users/My\ User/Documents/Repos/wc checkout Applications checkout Database checkout WebServer/www.mysite.com checkout WebServer/anotherhost.mysite.com checkout WebServer/AnotherApp checkout WebServer/thirdhost.mysite.com checkout WebServer/fourthhost.mysite.com checkout WebServer/WebServices It works, for the most part - but for some reason it has a tendency to stop working after a few repositories, usually right after finishing a repository before going to the next one. When it fails, it will not recover on its own. I've tried commenting out the svn line, it goes in and creates all the directories just fine when I do that - so its not that. I'm looking for direction as well as direct advice. Cygwin has been very stable for me, but I did start using the native rxvt instead of "bash in a cmd.exe window" recently. I don't think that's the problem, as I've left top on remote systems running all night and rxvt didn't seem to mind. Also I haven't done any bash scripting in cygwin so I suppose this might not be recommended; though I can't see why not. I don't want all of WebServer, hence me only checking out certain folders like that. What I suspect is that something is hanging up the svn checkout. Any ideas here? Edit: this time when I hit ctrl+z to cancel out, I forgot I was on Windows and typed ps to see if the job was still running; and as you can see there are lots of svn processes hanging around... strange. Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ jobs [1]- Stopped bash co2.sh [2]+ Stopped ./co2.sh Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ kill %1 [1]- Stopped bash co2.sh Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ [1]- Terminated bash co2.sh Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ ps PID PPID PGID WINPID TTY UID STIME COMMAND 7872 1 7872 2340 0 1000 Jun 29 /usr/bin/svn 7752 1 6140 7828 1 1000 Jun 29 /usr/bin/svn 6192 1 5044 2192 1 1000 Jun 30 /usr/bin/svn 7292 1 7452 1796 1 1000 Jun 30 /usr/bin/svn 6236 1 7304 7468 2 1000 Jul 2 /usr/bin/svn 1564 1 5032 7144 2 1000 Jul 2 /usr/bin/svn 9072 1 3960 6276 3 1000 Jul 3 /usr/bin/svn 5876 1 5876 5876 con 1000 11:22:10 /usr/bin/rxvt 924 5876 924 10192 4 1000 11:22:10 /usr/bin/bash 7212 1 7332 5584 4 1000 13:17:54 /usr/bin/svn 9412 1 5480 8840 4 1000 15:38:16 /usr/bin/svn S 8128 924 8128 9452 4 1000 17:38:05 /usr/bin/bash 9132 8128 8128 8172 4 1000 17:43:25 /usr/bin/svn 3512 1 3512 3512 con 1000 17:43:50 /usr/bin/rxvt I 10200 3512 10200 6616 5 1000 17:43:51 /usr/bin/bash 9732 1 9732 9732 con 1000 17:45:55 /usr/bin/rxvt 3148 9732 3148 8976 6 1000 17:45:55 /usr/bin/bash 5856 3148 5856 876 6 1000 17:51:00 /usr/bin/vim 7736 924 7736 8036 4 1000 17:53:26 /usr/bin/ps Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ jobs [2]+ Stopped ./co2.sh Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ Here's an strace on the PID of the hung svn program, it's been like this for hours. Looks like its just doing nothing. I keep suspecting that some interruption on the server is causing this; does svn have a locking mechanism I'm not aware of? Kyle Hodgson@KyleHodgson-PC ~/winUser/Documents/Repos $ strace -p 7304 ********************************************** Program name: C:\cygwin\bin\svn.exe (pid 7304, ppid 6408) App version: 1005.25, api: 0.156 DLL version: 1005.25, api: 0.156 DLL build: 2008-06-12 19:34 OS version: Windows NT-6.0 Heap size: 402653184 Date/Time: 2009-07-06 18:20:11 **********************************************

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 579 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590  | Next Page >