Search Results

Search found 44309 results on 1773 pages for 'hp command view'.

Page 584/1773 | < Previous Page | 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591  | Next Page >

  • How to get entire input string in Lex and Yacc?

    - by DevDevDev
    OK, so here is the deal. In my language I have some commands, say XYZ 3 5 GGB 8 9 HDH 8783 33 And in my Lex file XYZ { return XYZ; } GGB { return GGB; } HDH { return HDH; } [0-9]+ { yylval.ival = atoi(yytext); return NUMBER; } \n { return EOL; } In my yacc file start : commands ; commands : command | command EOL commands ; command : xyz | ggb | hdh ; xyz : XYZ NUMBER NUMBER { /* Do something with the numbers */ } ; etc. etc. etc. etc. My question is, how can I get the entire text XYZ 3 5 GGB 8 9 HDH 8783 33 Into commands while still returning the NUMBERs? Also when my Lex returns a STRING [0-9a-zA-Z]+, and I want to do verification on it's length, should I do it like rule: STRING STRING { if (strlen($1) < 5 ) /* Do some shit else error */ } or actually have a token in my Lex that returns different tokens depending on length?

    Read the article

  • Reflection: cast an object to subclass without use instaceof

    - by Fabrizio
    I have this simple interface/class: public abstract class Message { } public class Message1 extends Message{ } public class Message2 extends Message{ } And an utility class: public class Utility { public void handler(Message m){ System.out.println("Interface: Message"); } public void handler(Message1 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message1"); } public void handler(Message2 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message2"); } } Now, the main class: public static void main(String[] args) { Utility p=new Utility(); Message1 m1=new Message1(); p.handler(m1); Message m=(Message) m1; p.handler(m); } The output is Class: Message1 Interface: Message I would that p.handler(m) call the method p.handler(m:Message1) I don't want use the "manual" command instanceof because I have many cases: if(m instance of Message1) p.handler((Message1)m) else if (m instanceof Message2) p.handler((Message2)m) ... If I call m.getClass() I obtain "mypackage.Message1", so the subclass and not the superclass. I try with this code (use reflection): p.handler(m.getClass().cast(m)); But the output is Interface: Message So, this is my problem. I would do a runtime cast of superclass object to subclassobject without use the "code command" istanceof. I would a right command like this: p.handler((m.getclass)m); How can I obtain it? It's possible? Thank in advance. Fabrizio

    Read the article

  • django inner redirects

    - by Zayatzz
    Hello I have one project that in my own development computer (uses mod_wsgi to serve the project) caused no problems. In live server (uses mod_fastcgi) it generates 500 though. my url conf is like this: # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django.conf.urls.defaults import * # Uncomment the next two lines to enable the admin: from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), url(r'^', include('jalka.game.urls')), ) and # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django.conf.urls.defaults import * from django.contrib.auth import views as auth_views urlpatterns = patterns('jalka.game.views', url(r'^$', view = 'front', name = 'front',), url(r'^ennusta/(?P<game_id>\d+)/$', view = 'ennusta', name = 'ennusta',), url(r'^login/$', auth_views.login, {'template_name': 'game/login.html'}, name='auth_login'), url(r'^logout/$', auth_views.logout, {'template_name': 'game/logout.html'}, name='auth_logout'), url(r'^arvuta/$', view = 'arvuta', name = 'arvuta',), ) and .htaccess is like that: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteOptions MaxRedirects=10 # RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.com RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R=301,L] AddHandler fastcgi-script .fcgi RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^jalka\.domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*) cgi-bin/fifa2010.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^subdomain\.otherdomain\.eu$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*) cgi-bin/django.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] Notice, that i have also other project set up with same .htaccess and that one is running just fine with more complex urls and views fifa2010.fcgi: #!/usr/local/bin/python # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- import sys, os DOMAIN = "domain.com" APPNAME = "jalka" PREFIX = "/www/apache/domains/www.%s" % (DOMAIN,) # Add a custom Python path. sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs/django/Django-1.2.1")) sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs")) sys.path.insert(0, os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs/jalka")) # Switch to the directory of your project. (Optional.) os.chdir(os.path.join(PREFIX, "htdocs", APPNAME)) # Set the DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE environment variable. os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = "%s.settings" % (APPNAME,) from django.core.servers.fastcgi import runfastcgi runfastcgi(method="threaded", daemonize="false") Alan

    Read the article

  • Does Gigabit degrade all ports to 100 megabit if there is a 100 megabit device attached?

    - by hjoelr
    Our company is buying some HP Procurve managed gigabit switches to replace some of our core switches. However, we aren't able to upgrade all of our switches from 100Mb to Gigabit switches. I think I know the answer but I'm not exactly sure. If we plug those 100Mb switches (or even a 100Mb device) into those Gigabit switches, will the performance of the entire switch drop to 100Mb or will just that one port work at 100Mb?

    Read the article

  • Motherboard Is A MCP61PM-HM Rev 1.OB

    - by Dennis Smith
    I have a compaq presario pc SR5110NX The Processor is AMD Athlon 64 Proceessor3800+ It has 512 mb of Ram and a 40gb Hard Drive Here is my problem I Have 2 Sata One Is Black and the other Is White I have 2 red little cables and they have the letters and numbers on them It Is HP P/N:5188-2897 0720 on the side of the cable.Here is the Mother Board MCP61PM-HM Rev 1.0B I need to now where do the two Sata Connectors Connect Too Please Help Thank You So Much.Ps I am running windows XP Pro

    Read the article

  • How to unit test this simple ASP.NET MVC controller

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Lets say I have a simple controller for ASP.NET MVC I want to test. I want to test that a controller action (Foo, in this case) simply returns a link to another action (Bar, in this case). How would you test this? (either the first or second link) My implementation has the same link twice. One passes the url throw ViewData[]. This seems more testable to me, as I can check the ViewData collection returned from Foo(). Even this way though, I don't know how to validate the url itself without making dependencies on routing. The controller: public class TestController : Controller { public ActionResult Foo() { ViewData["Link2"] = Url.Action("Bar"); return View("Foo"); } public ActionResult Bar() { return View("Bar"); } } the "Foo" view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master"%> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <%= Html.ActionLink("link 1", "Bar") %> <a href="<%= ViewData["Link2"]%>">link 2</a> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Zend Layout and Bootstrapping

    - by emeraldjava
    So i'm using the standard Zend Layout for my site. I have a number of custom controllers and views, and the content of these pages is displayed, but the details in the head element of the layout.phtml are not shown. Do i need to manually associate the Zend_Layout with each specific controller?. I expected since the layout is loaded via the bootstrap this should be available for free. My app.ini file has # layout resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.layout.layout = "layout" #resources.view[] = # Views resources.view.encoding = "UTF-8" resources.view.basePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/views/" my layout.phtml <?php echo $this->doctype() ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <?php echo $this->headTitle() ?> <?php echo $this->jQuery();?> </head> <!-- application/layouts/scripts/layout.phtml --> <body> <div id="content"> <?php echo $this->layout()->content ?> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • Android Multiple Handlers Design Question

    - by Soumya Simanta
    This question is related to an existing question I asked. I though I'll ask a new question instead of replying back to the other question. Cannot "comment" on my previous question because of a word limit. Marc wrote - I've more than one Handlers in an Activity." Why? If you do not want a complicated handleMessage() method, then use post() (on Handler or View) to break the logic up into individual Runnables. Multiple Handlers makes me nervous. I'm new to Android. Is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? I'm new to Android. My question is - is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? Here is the sketch of my current implementation. I've a mapActivity that creates a data thread (a UDP socket that listens for data). My first handler is responsible for sending data from the data thread to the activity. On the map I've a bunch of "dynamic" markers that are refreshed frequently. Some of these markers are video markers i.e., if the user clicks a video marker, I add a ViewView that extends a android.opengl.GLSurfaceView to my map activity and display video on this new vide. I use my second handler to send information about the marker that the user tapped on ItemizedOverlay onTap(int index) method. The user can close the video view by tapping on the video view. I use my third handler for this. I would appreciate if people can tell me what's wrong with this approach and suggest better ways to implement this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Qt Socket blocking functions required to run in QThread where created. Any way past this?

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    The title is very cryptic, so here goes! I am writing a client that behaves in a very synchronous manner. Due to the design of the protocol and the server, everything has to happen sequentially (send request, wait for reply, service reply etc.), so I am using blocking sockets. Here is where Qt comes in. In my application I have a GUI thread, a command processing thread and a scripting engine thread. I create the QTcpSocket in the command processing thread, as part of my Client class. The Client class has various methods that boil down to writing to the socket, reading back a specific number of bytes, and returning a result. The problem comes when I try to directly call Client methods from the scripting engine thread. The Qt sockets randomly time out and when using a debug build of Qt, I get these warnings: QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be enabled from another thread QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be disabled from another thread Anytime I call these methods from the command processing thread (where Client was created), I do not get these problems. To simply phrase the situation: Calling blocking functions of QAbstractSocket, like waitForReadyRead(), from a thread other than the one where the socket was created (dynamically allocated), causes random behaviour and debug asserts/warnings. Anyone else experienced this? Ways around it? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • GridView onTouch

    - by Jeff
    I am trying to set up a GridView of buttons that responds to onTouch. For example, if I swipe my finger across the screen horizontally, vertically or diagonally then I want the buttons which were touched to be selected. I tried setting OnTouchListener's for the buttons, but this didn't work, only the first button in the drag event received the onTouch events. Next I tried creating an OnTouchListener for the GridView and then using the X,Y coords to determine which buttons where touched. This doesn't seem to work either since the MOTION_DOWN events are only passed to the GridView's onTouch() if I start the drag on the very edge of the GridView. In fact if I drag my finger horizontally across the grid, the onTouch events aren't fired at all unless I start the drag at the edge of the GridView. Does anyone know of a better way to do this? Thanks in advance. gridview.setOnTouchListener(new View.OnTouchListener() { @Override public boolean onTouch(@SuppressWarnings("unused") View view, MotionEvent event) { float X = event.getX(); float Y = event.getY(); switch (event.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: System.out.println("Down: " + X + "," + Y); break; case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: System.out.println("Move: " + X + "," + Y); break; case MotionEvent.ACTION_UP: System.out.println("Up: " + X + "," + Y); break; } return true; } }

    Read the article

  • How to properly force a Blackberry Java application to install using Loader.exe

    - by Kevin White
    I want to include the Application Loader process in a software installation, to ensure that users get our software installed on their Blackberry by the time our installer software finishes. I know this is possible, because Aerize Card Loader (http://aerize.com/blackberry/software/loader/) does this. When you install their software, if your Blackberry is connected the Application Loader will come up and force the .COD file to install to the device. I can't make it work. Looking at RIM's own documentation, I need to: Place the ALX and COD files into a subfolder here: C:\Program Files\Common Files\Research In Motion\Shared\Applications\ Add a path to the ALX file in HKCU\Software\Research In Motion\Blackberry\Loader\Packages Index the application, by executing this at the command line: loader.exe /index Start the force load, by doing this: loader.exe /defaultUSB /forceload When I execute that last command, the Application Loader comes up and says that all applications are up to date and nothing needs to be done. If I execute loader.exe by double-clicking on it (or typing in the command with no parameters), I get the regular Application Loader wizard. It shows my program as listed, but un-checked. If I check it and click next, it will install to the Blackberry. (This is the part that I want to avoid, and that Aerize Card Loader's install process avoids.) What am I missing? It appears that the Aerize installer is doing something different but I haven't been able to ascertain what.

    Read the article

  • Java process is not terminating after starting an external process

    - by tangens
    On Windows I've started a program "async.cmd" with a ProcessBuilder like this: ProcessBuilder processBuilder = new ProcessBuilder( "async.cmd" ); processBuilder.redirectErrorStream( true ); processBuilder.start(); Then I read the output of the process in a separate thread like this: byte[] buffer = new byte[ 8192 ]; while( !interrupted() ) { int available = m_inputStream.available(); if( available == 0 ) { Thread.sleep( 100 ); continue; } int len = Math.min( buffer.length, available ); len = m_inputStream.read( buffer, 0, len ); if( len == -1 ) { throw new CX_InternalError(); } String outString = new String( buffer, 0, len ); m_output.append( outString ); } Now it happened that the content of the file "async.cmd" was this: REM start a command window start cmd /k The process that started this extenal program terminated (process.waitFor() returned the exit value). Then I sent an readerThread.interrupt() to the reader thread and the thread terminated, too. But there was still a thread running that wasn't terminating. This thread kept my java application running even if it exited its main method. With the debugger (eclipse) I wasn't able to suspend this thread. After I quit the opened command window, my java program exited, too. Question How can I quit my java program while the command window stays open?

    Read the article

  • call lynx from jsp script

    - by Piero
    Hi, I have an execute(String cmd) in a jsp script that calls the exec method from the Runtime class. It works when I call a local command, like a php script stored on the server. for example: /usr/bin/php /path/to/php/script arg1 arg2 So I guess my execute command is ok, since it is working with that. Now when I try to call lynx, the text-based web browser, it does not work. If I call it in a terminal, it works fine: /usr/bin/lynx -dump -accept_all_cookies 'http://www.someurl.net/?arg1=1&arg2=2' But when I call this from my execute command, nothing happens... Any idea why? This is my execute method: public String execute(String cmd){ Runtime r = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process p = null; String res = ""; try { p = r.exec(cmd); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String line = null; //out.println(res); while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { res += line; } p.waitFor(); } catch (Exception e) { res += e; } System.out.println(p.exitValue()); return res; }

    Read the article

  • Display a tree dijit using zend framework

    - by churris43
    I am trying to display a tree of categories and subcategories by using dijits with zend framework. Haven't been able to find a good example. This is what I've got: Basically I got the following code as my action: class SubcategoriesController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ ..... public function loadtreeAction() { Zend_Dojo::enableView($this->view); Zend_Layout::getMvcInstance()->disableLayout(); //Creating a sample tree of categories and subcategories $a["cat1"]["id"] = "id1"; $a["cat1"]["name"] = "Category1"; $a["cat1"]["type"] = "category"; $subcat1 = array("id" => "Subcat1","name" => "Subcategory1" , "type" => "subcategory"); $subcat2 = array("id" => "Subcat12","name" => "Subcategory12" , "type" => "subcategory"); $a["cat1"]["children"] = array($subcat1,$subcat2); $treeObj = new Zend_Dojo_Data('id', $a); $treeObj->setLabel('name'); $this->view->tree = $treeObj->toJson(); } .... } And on my view: <?php $this->dojo()->requireModule('dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore'); $this->dojo()->requireModule('dijit.Tree'); $this->dojo()->requireModule('dojo.parser'); ?> <div dojoType="dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore" url="/Subcategories/loadtree" jsId="store"></div> <div dojoType="dijit.tree.ForestStoreModel" jsId="treeModel" store="store" rootId="root" rootLabel="List of Categories" childrenAttrs="children" query="{type:'category'}"></div> <div dojoType="dijit.Tree" model="treeModel" labelAttrs="ListOfCategories"></div> It doesn't even seem to try to load the tree at all. Any help is appreciated

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework cleaning default routes when adding other

    - by Renato Aquino
    I have the following problem with Zend Framework. My project has several controllers like Video,Category and Post. The VideoController has an Action called categorylist, so the default URL/Route becomes /video/categorylist Since the action requires 3 parameters I whant to add one simple route: $router->addRoute( 'categorylist', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('categorylist/:category/:page/:per_page', array('controller' => 'video', 'action' => 'categorylist','page'=>1,'per_page'=>6,'category'=>1)) ); With this I got my URL like www.siteurl.com/categorylist/42/1/6 but, the View Helper URL got crazy, and every url for the other controllers I try to echo it´s redirected to the categorylist route. So when I try this: <?= $this->url(array("controller"=> "video", "action" =>"view",'category'=>1),null,true)?> The expected result its /video/view/category/1, but I got /categorylit only. I tryied to debug the default routes but I got an empty array. print_r($ctrl->getRouter()->getRoutes()); Does anyone have some clue about this wierd behavior? I´m using Zend Framework Version 1.9.7

    Read the article

  • F#, Linux and makefiles

    - by rwallace
    I intend to distribute an F# program as both binary and source so the user has the option of recompiling it if desired. On Windows, I understand how to do this: provide .fsproj and .sln files, which both Visual Studio and MSBuild can understand. On Linux, the traditional solution for C programs is a makefile. This depends on gcc being directly available, which it always is. The F# compiler can be installed on Linux and works under Mono, so that's fine so far. However, as far as I can tell, it doesn't create a scenario where fsc runs the compiler, instead the command is mono ...path.../fsc.exe. This is also fine, except I don't know what the path is going to be. So the full command to run the compiler in my case could be mono ~/FSharp-2.0.0.0/bin/fsc.exe types.fs tptp.fs main.fs -r FSharp.PowerPack.dll except that I'm not sure where fsc.exe will actually be located on the user's machine. Is there a way to find that out within a makefile, or would it be better to fall back on just explaining the above in the documentation and relying on the user to modify the command according to his setup?

    Read the article

  • Graphite Integration breaks ganglia/gmetad?

    - by Falk Stern
    I'm trying to forward metrics from gmetad to graphite/carbon. After configuring carbon_server and ganglia_prefix in gmetad.conf gmetad starts losing metrics. gmetad Version is 3.3.5, carbon/whisper/graphite-web is 0.9.8. There is no I/O bottleneck on the system and no CPU bottleneck (HP DL385G7 with 2 SSDs in RAID0), I even configured another gmetad on a remote host to send metrics to graphite/carbon, which also broke down. Does anyone else experience this?

    Read the article

  • How does Select statement works in a Dynamic Linq Query?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, 1) I've a Product table with 4 columns: ProductID, Name, Category, and Price. Here's the regular linq to query this table. public ActionResult Index() { private ProductDataContext db = new ProductDataContext(); var products = from p in db.Products where p.Category == "Soccer" select new ProductInfo { Name = p.Name, Price = p.Price} return View(products); } Where ProductInfo is just a class that contains 2 properties (Name and Price). The Index page Inherits ViewPage - IEnumerable - ProductInfo. Everything works fine. 2) To dynamicaly execute the above query, I do this: Public ActionResult Index() { var products = db.Products .Where("Category = \"Soccer\"") .Select(/* WHAT SOULD I WRITE HERE TO SELECT NAME & PRICE?*/) return View(products); } I'm using both 'System.Lind.Dynamic' namespace and the DynamicLibrary.cs (downloaded from ScottGu blog). Here are my questions: What expression do I use to select only Name and Price? (Most importantly) How do I retrieve the data in my view? (i.e. What type the ViewPage inherits? ProductInfo?)

    Read the article

  • I have problems printing from gedit in windows

    - by John C
    Gedit in linux works like a champ. For me, in two installations Gedit in Windows xp works well except that it will not print properly on HP laser jets or toshibas laser printers. It will make a 90 page project out of two pages of text composed in gedit. It puts one or two confused lines of text at the top of a sheet and then ejects the page. Any suggestions? jac

    Read the article

  • How can I read the properties of an object that I assign to the Session in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by quakkels
    Hey all, I'm trying my hand at creating a session which stores member information which the application can use to reveal certain navigation and allow access to certain pages and member role specific functionality. I've been able to assign my MemberLoggedIn object to the session in this way: //code excerpt start... MemberLoggedIn loggedIn = new MemberLoggedIn(); if (computedHash == member.Hash) { loggedIn.ID = member.ID; loggedIn.Username = member.Username; loggedIn.Email = member.Email; loggedIn.Superuser = member.Superuser; loggedIn.Active = member.Active; Session["loggedIn"] = loggedIn; } else if (ModelState.IsValid) { ModelState.AddModelError("Password", "Incorrect Username or Password."); } return View(); That works great. I then can send the properties of Session["loggedIn"] to the View in this way: [ChildActionOnly] public ActionResult Login() { if (Session["loggedIn"] != null) ViewData.Model = Session["loggedIn"]; else ViewData.Model = null; return PartialView(); } In the Partial View I can reference the session data by using Model.Username or Model.Superuser. However, it doesn't seem to work that way in the controller or in a custom Action Filter. Is there a way to get the equivalent of Session["loggedIn"].Username?

    Read the article

  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 580 581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591  | Next Page >