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• HTML templating in C++ and translations

  - by Karim

  I'm using HTML_Template for templating in my C++-based web app (don't ask). I chose that because it was very simple and it turns out to be a good solution. The only problem right now is that I would like to be able to include translatable strings in the HTML templates (HTML_Template does not really support that). Ultimately, what I would like is to have a single file that contains all the strings to be translated. It can then be given to a translator and plugged back in to the app and used depending on which language the user chose in settings. I've been going back and forth on some options and was wondering what others felt was the best choice (or if there's a better choice that isn't listed) Extend HTML_Template to include a tag for holding the literal string to translate. So, for example, in the HTML I would put something like <TMPL_TRANS "this is the text to translate"/> Use a completely separate scheme for translation and preprocess the HTML files to generate the final template files (without the special translation lingo). For example, in the pre-processed file, translatable text would look like this: {{this is the text to translate}} and the final would look like: this is the text to translate Don't do anything and let the translators find the string to translate in the html and js files themselves.

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• syntax for MySQL INSERT with an array of columns

  - by Mike_Laird

  I'm new to PHP and MySQL query construction. I have a processor for a large form. A few fields are required, most fields are user optional. In my case, the HTML ids and the MySQL column names are identical. I've found tutorials about using arrays to convert $_POST into the fields and values for INSERT INTO, but I can't get them working - after many hours. I've stepped back to make a very simple INSERT using arrays and variables, but I'm still stumped. The following line works and INSERTs 5 items into a database with over 100 columns. The first 4 items are strings, the 5th item, monthlyRental is an integer. $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` (country, stateProvince, city3, city3Geocode, monthlyRental) VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; When I make an array for the fields and use it, as follows: $colsx = array('country,', 'stateProvince,', 'city3,', 'city3Geocode,', 'monthlyRental'); $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` ('$colsx') VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; I get a MySQL error - check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ''Array') VALUES ( 'US', 'New York', 'Fairport, Monroe County, New York', '(43.09)' at line 1. I get this error whether the array items have commas inside the single quotes or not. I've done a lot of reading and tried many combinations and I can't get it. I want to see the proper syntax on a small scale before I go back to foreach expressions to process $_POST and both the fields and values are arrays. And yes, I know I should use mysql_real_escape_string, but that is an easy later step in the foreach. Lastly, some clues about the syntax for an array of values would be helpful, particularly if it is different from the fields array. I know I need to add a null as the first array item to trigger the MySQL autoincrement id. What else? I'm pretty new, so please be specific.

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• How is an array stored in memory?

  - by George

  In an interest to delve deeper into how memory is allocated and stored, I have written an application that can scan memory address space, find a value, and write out a new value. I developed a sample application with the end goal to be able to programatically locate my array, and overwrite it with a new sequence of numbers. In this situation, I created a single dimensional array, with 5 elements, e.g. int[] array = new int[] {8,7,6,5,4}; I ran my application and searched for a sequence of the five numbers above. I was looking for any value that fell between 4 and 8, for a total of 5 numbers in a row. Unforuntately, my the sequential numbers in my array matched hundreds of results, as the numbers 4 through 8, in no particular sequence happened to be next to each other, in memory, in many situations. Is there any way to distinguish that a set of numbers within memory, represents an array, not simply integers that are next to each other? Is there any way of knowing that if I find a certain value, that the matching values proceeding it are that of an array? I would assume that when I declare int[] array, its pointing at the first address of my array, which would provide some kind of meta-data to what existed in the array, e.g. 0x123456789 meta-data, 5 - 32 bit integers 0x123456789 + 32 "8" 0x123456789 + 64 "7" 0x123456789 + 96 "6" 0x123456789 + 128 "5" 0x123456789 + 160 "4" Am I way off base?

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• Question about singleton property

  - by Jack

  I'm reading the java tutorial for enums located here and have a question: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/enums.html#Card The part i'm confused about is as follows: "The Card class, above, contains a static factory that returns a deck, but there is no way to get an individual card from its rank and suit. Merely exposing the constructor would destroy the singleton property (that only a single instance of each card is allowed to exist). Here is how to write a static factory that preserves the singleton property, using a nested EnumMap: " Now as I understand, changing the original private "Card" constructor to public would allow us to instantiate an unlimited number of copies of a "Card" object with a given suit+rank. The solution as proposed was to create an EnumMap which would store four Maps (one for each suit), which themselves contained 13 Card objects with the rank as their keys. And so now if you wanted to retrieve a specific Card object from the deck, you would just call the "valueOf" method. My question now is, what's the prevent you with calling the valueOf method as many times as you like? Wouldn't that lead to the same problem as making the original private constructor public? Thanks.

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• hash fragments and collisions cont.

  - by Mark

  For this application I've mine I feel like I can get away with a 40 bit hash key, which seems awfully low, but see if you can confirm my reasoning (I want a small key because I want a small filename and the key will be converted to a filename): (Note: only accidental collisions a concern - no security issues.) A key point here is that the population in question is divided into groups, and a collision is only relevant if it occurs within the same group. A "group" is a directory on a user's system (the contents of files are hashed and a collision is only relevant if it occurs for files within the same directory). So with speculating roughly 100,000 potential users, say 2^17, that corresponds to 2^18 "groups" assuming 2 directories per user on average. So with a 40 bit key I can expect 2^(20+9) files created (among all users) before a collision occurs for some user somewhere. (Or IOW 2^((40+18)/2), due to the "birthday effect".) That's an average 4096 unique files created per user, for 2^17 users, before a single collision occurs for some user somewhere. And then that long again before another collision occurs somewhere (right?)

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• How to get readable classname and title from HWND handle? in WinApi c++

  - by Marko29

  I am using the following enumchild proc to get hwnd of each window, the problem is that i am unable to somehow detect any info from each hwnd so i can do what i want with the ones that are detected as the ones i need. For example, how could i get window class name and the title of each window in the enum bellow? I tried something like.. BOOL CALLBACK EnumChildProc(HWND hwnd, LPARAM lParam) { TCHAR className[MAX_PATH]; GetClassName(hwnd, cName, _countof(cName)); cout << cName; return TRUE; } It just returns the hexadec handle info and every single time it is same, shouldnt the GetClassName func change the cName into new handle each time? Also GetClassName function returns number of chars written to cName, i dont really see how this is useful to me? I need to get my cName in some readable format so i can do something like if(cName == TEXT("classnameiamlookingfor" && hwndtitle = TEXT("thetitlethatinterestsme") DOSOMETHINGWITHIT(); But all i get here is hexadec mess.

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• How to know the type of an object in a list?

  - by nacho4d

  Hi, I want to know the type of object (or type) I have in my list so I wrote this: void **list; //list of references list = new void * [2]; Foo foo = Foo(); const char *not_table [] = {"tf", "ft", 0 }; list[0] = &foo; list[1] = not_table; if (dynamic_cast<LogicProcessor*>(list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("Foo was found\n"); } if (dynamic_cast<char*> (list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("char was found\n"); } but I get : error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'class Foo*' (source is not a pointer to class) error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'char*' (target is not pointer or reference to class) Why is this? what I am doing wrong here? Is dynamic_cast what I should use here? Thanks in advance EDIT: I know above code is much like plain C and surely sucks from the C++ point of view but is just I have the following situation and I was trying something before really implementing it: I have two arrays of length n but both arrays will never have an object at the same index. Hence, or I have array1[i]!=NULL or array2[i]!=NULL. This is obviously a waste of memory so I thought everything would be solved if I could have both kind of objects in a single array of length n. I am looking something like Cocoa's (Objective-C) NSArray where you don't care about the type of the object to be put in. Not knowing the type of the object is not a problem since you can use other method to get the class of a certain later. Is there something like it in c++ (preferably not third party C++ libraries) ? Thanks in advance ;)

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• OpenLayers eraseFeatures doesn't erase features from map screen.

  - by Jenny

  I'm using OpenLayers, and have a layer for my Map, and a single Vector Layer. In this vector layer, I am using the DrawFeature control to draw a square. I have a listener waiting for a feature to be added, and then deleting any existing features (I only want one square at a time), like so: polygonLayer.events.register("beforefeatureadded", feature, function(evt){ console.log("Clearing existing polygons"); console.log(polygonLayer.features.length); polygonLayer.destroyFeatures(); polygonLayer.redraw(); });//end attempt at events registration When I check my layer.features.size, I can see that it's always 1, just like I expect, but the squares on the screen are still displayed. Even when I call .redraw() on the layer, the squares are still there. Is there some extra step I'm missing? Edit: You can find my code here: http://pastie.org/909644 Edit: Just realized: If I draw a square from previously existing coordinates, I can clear it just fine. It seems to be just the squares drawn from the controller that are an issue?

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• What am I doing wrong with my ItemsControl & databinding?

  - by Joel

  I'm reworking my simple hex editor to practice using what I've recently learned about data binding in WPF. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong here. As I understand it, for each byte in the collection "backend" (inherits from ObservableCollection), my ItemsControl should apply the DataTemplate under resources. This template is just a textbox with a binding to a value converter. So I'm expecting to see a row of textboxes, each containing a string representation of one byte. When I use this XAML, all I get is a single line of uneditable text, which as far as I can tell doesn't use a textbox. What am I doing wrong? I've pasted my XAML in below, with the irrelevant parts (Menu declaration, schema, etc) removed. <Window ...> <Window.Resources> <local:Backend x:Key="backend" /> <local:ByteConverter x:Key="byteConverter" /> <DataTemplate DataType="byte"> <TextBox Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource byteConverter}}" /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <StackPanel> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource backend}}"> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> </Window>

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• Eval string for wordpress "in_category" workaround outside the loop

  - by fimbim

  In Wordpress you can´t use "in_category" outside the loop, so I created a function that gives me all the categories my article is in and create a "is_category" if statement out of it. I put my function in my "functions.php": function inCatAlt($catID){ $allCats = get_categories('child_of='.$catID); $childCats = 'is_category('.$catID.') '; foreach($allCats as $childCat){ $childCats.= 'or is_category('.$childCat->cat_ID.') '; }; $allchildCats = trim(trim($childCats, 'or ')); return $allchildCats; } and call this in my sidebar, single and so on: echo inCatAlt(13); which gives me this as a string back: "is_category(13) or is_category(16) or is_category(15)" This is exactly what I needed, but now I want to evaluate the string to use it in a if function like this: if(eval(inCatAlt(13))){ do something } But it doesn´t work. Do I evaluate it wrong or what is the problem? If I copy paste the output into the if function it works fine… Thanks in advanced guys. Is my first time asking something here. I´m curious :)

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• Apache's AuthDigestDomain and Rails Distributed Asset Hosts

  - by Jared

  I've got a server I'm in the process of setting up and I'm running into an Apache configuration problem that I can not get around. I've got Apache 2.2 and Passenger serving a Rails app with distributed asset hosting. This is the feature of Rails that lets you serve your static assets from assets0.example.com, assets1, assets2, and so on. The site needs to be passworded until launch. I've set up HTTP authentication on the site using Apache's mod_auth_digest. In my configuration I'm attempting to use the AuthDigestDomain directive to allow access to each of the asset URLs. The problem is, it doesn't seem to be working. I get the initial prompt for the password when I load the page, but then the first time it loads an asset from one of the asset URLs, I get prompted a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th time. In some browsers, I get prompted for every single resource on the page. I'm hoping that this is only a problem of how I'm specifying my directives and not a limitation of authorization in Apache itself. See the edited auth section below: <Location /> AuthType Digest AuthName "Restricted Site" AuthUserFile /etc/httpd/passwd/passwords AuthGroupFile /dev/null AuthDigestDomain / http://assets0.example.com/ http://assets1.example.com/ http://assets2.example.com/ http://assets3.example.com/ require valid-user order deny,allow allow from all </Location>

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• Can Visual Studio (should it be able to) compute a diff between any two changesets associated with a

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Here is my use case: I start on a project XYZ, for which I create a work item, and I make frequent check-ins, easily 10-20 in total. ALL of the code changes will be code-read and code-reviewed. The change sets are not consecutive - other people check-in in-between my changes, although they are very unlikely to touch the exact same files. So ... at the en of the project I am interested in a "total diff" - as if there was a single check-in by me to complete the entire project. In theory this is computable. From the list of change sets associated with the work item, you get the list of all files that were affected. Then, the algorithm can aggregate individual diffs over each file and combine them into one. It is possible that a pure total diff is uncomputable due to the fact that someone else renamed files, or changed stuff around very closely, or in the same functions as me. I that case ... I suppose a total diff can include those changes by non-me as well, and warn me about the fact. I would find this very useful, but I do not know how to do t in practice. Can Visual Studio 2008/2010 (and/or TFS server) do it? Are there other source control systems capable of doing this? Thanks.

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• How can I dynamically call the named route in a :partial in rails?

  - by Angela

  I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is what I tried to do and conceptually what I'd like to do: assign the route based on the class name that has been passed to the :event from the :partial. What I did was create what the actual url should be. The 'text' of it is correct, but doesn't seem to recognize it as a named route. <% url = "skip_contact_#{event.class.name.tableize.singularize}_url" % <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{url} Remote", :url = skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update = "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" % ' My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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• How to convert a string to variable name

  - by p1xelarchitect

  I'm loading several external JSON files and want to check if they have been successfully cached before the the next screen is displayed. My strategy is to check the name of the array to see if it an object. My code works perfectly when I check only a single array and hard code the array name into my function. My question is: how can i make this dynamic? not dynamic: (this works) $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); } function checkJSON(){ if(typeof nav_items == "object"){ // success... } } dynamic: (this doesn't work) $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); checkJSON("foo_items"); checkJSON("bar_items"); } function checkJSON(item){ if(typeof item == "object"){ // success... } } here is the a larger context of my code: var loadAttempts = 0; var reloadTimer = false; $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); } function checkJSON(item){ loadAttempts++; //if nav_items exists if(typeof nav_items == "object"){ //if a timer is running, kill it if(reloadTimer != false){ clearInterval(reloadTimer); reloadTimer = false; } console.log("found!!"); console.log(nav_items[1]); loadAttempts = 0; //reset // load next screen.... } //if nav_items does not yet exist, try 5 times, then give up! else { //set a timer if(reloadTimer == false){ reloadTimer = setInterval(function(){checkJSON(nav_items)},300); console.log(item + " not found. Attempts: " + loadAttempts ); } else { if(loadAttempts <= 5){ console.log(item + " not found. Attempts: " + loadAttempts ); } else { clearInterval(reloadTimer); reloadTimer = false; console.log("Giving up on " + item + "!!"); } } } }

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• Override one css class with another?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I have a list, with an li style defined. I want to replace the style of an individual element, but it doesn't seem to have any visual effect. Example: .myList li { background-color: yellow; } .foo { background-color: green; } <ul class='myList'> <li>Hello</li> </ul> When I add an item to the list, it has the .myList li style applied properly. I try now to remove all styles and apply the foo style to a single item (using jquery): $(item).removeClass(); $(item).addClass("foo"); the item does not change color to green though, but this reports the class is set to 'foo': alert($(item).attr('class')); so I guess I'm not understanding css rules here, looks like the li class definition is just overriding whatever else I do, however I want the reverse to be true, I want to override the li style definition with foo. How do we do this? Thanks

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• login/logout problem in PHP

  - by user356170

  i have a question. I have a website in which i am giving security like login id and password( as usual). No what i want is that, 1) I don't want to allow a single user to login in different machine at the same time. 2) For this i am using a column in database which is keeping the current status of user(i.e. loging/logout). I am allowing user to login only when has session has not closed and status is login. 3) So my problem is that when i am logging out manually. it is closing the session as well as updating the database with status "logout". 4) but when i am closing the window from Cross buttonat top right corner. it is closing the ssion but table data is still "login". so later on i can't be able to login into the same user. 5) So how could i solve this problem. Please help me!

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• Finding 'free' times in MySQL

  - by James Inman

  Hi, I've got a table as follows: mysql> DESCRIBE student_lectures; +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | course_module_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | day | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | start | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | end | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | cancelled_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | lecture_type_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | lecture_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | student_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ I'm essentially wanting to find times when a lecture doesn't happen - so to do this I'm thinking a query to group overlapping lectures together (so, for example, 9am-10am and 10am-11am lectures will be shown as a single 9am-11am lecture). There may be more than two lectures back-to-back. I've currently got this: SELECT l.start, l2.end FROM student_lectures l LEFT JOIN student_lectures l2 ON ( l2.start = l.end ) WHERE l.student_id = 1 AND l.start >= '2010-04-26 09:00:00' AND l.end <= '2010-04-30 19:00:00' AND l2.end IS NOT NULL AND l2.end != l.start GROUP BY l.start, l2.end ORDER BY l.start, l2.start Which returns: +---------------------+---------------------+ | start | end | +---------------------+---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 09:00:00 | 2010-04-26 11:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 10:00:00 | 2010-04-26 12:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 10:00:00 | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 13:15:00 | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 14:15:00 | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 15:15:00 | 2010-04-26 17:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | ...etc... The output I'm looking for from this would be: +---------------------+---------------------+ | start | end | +---------------------+---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 09:00:00 | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 13:15:00 | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | Any help appreciated, thanks!

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• Can anyone give me a sample java socket programming for doing a peer to peer for 3 systems?

  - by Sadesh Kumar N

  I am doing an university project. I need some sample programs on peer to peer programs in java socket programming. Every where people are telling to add a server socket in the client program. I am in a confusion. Can a single program having server socket and client socket will do or i have to create two programs of one initiating a system and another peer program running thrice to solve the problem. or i need to create three programs for three peer systems. I am not clear on the architecture of building peer to peer programs using java sockets. Can some one help me giving a simple program on how to create a peer to peer connection between three systems. I know how to do a socket program for client server model and clear on the concept. But creating a peer to peer architecture sounds complex for me to understand. I also referred this thread. developing peer to peer in java The person commented second says" To make peer2peer app each client opens server socket too. When client A wishes to connect to client B it just connects to its socket. " Need some more sample and an explanation on how peer to peer java socket program works I dont want any external api like jxta to do this task. I need a clear picture on how it works alone with an example.

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• Split user.config into different files for faster saving (at runtime)

  - by HorstWalter

  In my c# Windows Forms application (.net 3.5 / VS 2008) I have 3 settings files resulting in one user.config file. One setting file consists of larger data, but is rarely changed. The frequently changed data are very few. However, since the saving of the settings is always writing the whole (XML) file it is always "slow". SettingsSmall.Default.Save(); // slow, even if SettingsSmall consists of little data Could I configure the settings somehow to result in two files, resulting in: SettingsSmall.Default.Save(); // should be fast SettingsBig.Default.Save(); // could be slow, is seldom saved I have seen that I can use the SecionInformation class for further customizing, however what would be the easiest approach for me? Is this possible by just changing the app.config (config.sections)? --- added information about App.config The reason why I get one file might be the configSections in the App.config. This is how it looks: <configSections <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" <section name="XY.A.Properties.Settings2Class" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" / <section name="XY.A.Properties.Settings3Class" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" / </sectionGroup </configSections I got the sections when I've added the 2nd and 3rd settings file. I have not paid any attention to this, so it was somehow the default of VS 2008. The single user.config has these 3 sections, it is absolutely transparent. Only I do not know how to tell the App.config to create three independent files instead of one. I have "played around" with the app.config above, but e.g. when I remove the config sections my applications terminates with an exception.

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• How can I dynamically define the named route in a :partial in rails?

  - by Angela

  I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is the content of the partial "contact_event": <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{event} Remote", :url => skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update => "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" %> <span id='update-area-<%="#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}"%>'> </span> </p> My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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• Cake returned the time consumed in data lookup in JQuery Alert Box

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, When I was doing some self-learning on JQuery Ajax in Cakephp, I found out some strange behaviour in the JQuery Alert Box. Here are a few lines of code of the JQuery Ajax I used: $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).change(function(){ var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post{"http://www.mywebsite.com/controllers/action/", usr, function(msg){alert(msg);} } }); }); The Alert box shows me a message returned from the Action: Helloworld <!--0.656s--> I am not sure why the number of time consumption was displayed in the Alert box, since it was not in my code as follows: function action($data=null){ $this->autoRender = false; $result2=$this->__avail($data); if($result2==1) {return "OK";} else {return "NOT";} } CakePHP rteurned some extra information in the Alert box. Later I altered a single line of code and tried out this instead, and the time consumption was not displayed on screen then: $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).change(function(){ var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post{"http://www.mywebsite.com/controllers/action/", usr, function(msg){$("#username").append('<span>'+msg+</span'>);} } }); });

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• Right Language for the Job

  - by Manoj

  Using the right language for the job is the key - this is the comment I read in SO and I also belive thats the right thing to do. Because of this we ended up using different languages for different parts of the project - like perl, VBA(Excel Macros), C# etc. We have three to four languages currently in use inside the project. Using the right language for the job has made it immensly more easy to do automate a job, but of late people are complaining that any new person who has to take over the project will have to learn so many different languages to get started. Also it is difficult to find such kind of person. Please note that this is a one to two person working on the project maximum at a given point of time. I would like to know if the method we are following is right or should we converge to single language and try to use it across all the job even though another language might be better suited for it. Your experenece related to this would also help. Languages used and their purpose: Perl - Processing large text file(log files) C# with Silverlight for web based reporting. LabVIEW for automation Excel macros for processing data in excel sheets, generating graphs and exporting to powerpoint.

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• Alternating table row color, but with 2 rows of data

  - by PixelMuse

  I've got my table setup for Zebra striping, but how do I accomplish making the row color alternate for 2 rows instead of a single row? My data markup looks like this: <tr> <td>@task.TaskNum</td> <td>@task.RepiarTime</td> <td>Priority Club</td> <td>SD</td> <td>Commercial</td> <td>Reg Commercial</td> <td>After Hours</td> </tr> <tr><td colspan="7"> @task.Description.ToString() </td></tr> I am using this to stripe it: $(document).ready(function () { $(".stripeMe tr").mouseover(function () { $(this).addClass("over"); }).mouseout(function () { $(this).removeClass("over"); }); $(".stripeMe tr:even").addClass("alt"); });

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• MySQL - Exclude rows from Select based on duplication of two columns

  - by Carson C.

  I am attempting to narrow results of an existing complex query based on conditional matches on multiple columns within the returned data set. I'll attempt to simplify the data as much as possible here. Assume that the following table structure represents the data that my existing complex query has already selected (here ordered by date): +----+-----------+------+------------+ | id | remote_id | type | date | +----+-----------+------+------------+ | 1 | 1 | A | 2011-01-01 | | 3 | 1 | A | 2011-01-07 | | 5 | 1 | B | 2011-01-07 | | 4 | 1 | A | 2011-05-01 | +----+-----------+------+------------+ I need to select from that data set based on the following criteria: If the pairing of remote_id and type is unique to the set, return the row always If the pairing of remote_id and type is not unique to the set, take the following action: Of the sets of rows for which the pairing of remote_id and type are not unique, return only the single row for which date is greatest and still less than or equal to now. So, if today is 2010-01-10, I'd like the data set returned to be: +----+-----------+------+------------+ | id | remote_id | type | date | +----+-----------+------+------------+ | 3 | 1 | A | 2011-01-07 | | 5 | 1 | B | 2011-01-07 | +----+-----------+------+------------+ For some reason I'm having no luck wrapping my head around this one. I suspect the answer lies in good application of group_by, but I just can't grasp it. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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• In Rails, how to respect :scope when using validates_uniqueness_of in an embedded object form?

  - by mkirk

  I have a Book model, which has_many Chapters (which belong_to a Book). I want to ensure uniqueness of Chapter titles, but only within the scope of a single book. The catch is that the form for creating chapters is embedded in the Book model's form (The Book model accepts_nested_attributes_for :chapters). Within the Chapter model: validates_uniqueness_of( :chapter_title, :scope = :book_id, :case_sensitive = false, :message = "No book can have multiple chapters with the same title.") However, when I submit the Book creation form (which also includes multiple embedded Chapter forms), if the chapter title exists in another chapter for a different book, I fail the validation test. Book.create( :chapters => [ Chapter.new(:title => "Introduction"), Chapter.new(:title => "How to build things") => Book 1 successfully created Book.create( :chapters => [ Chapter.new(:title => "Introduction"), Chapter.new(:title => "Destroy things") => Book 2 fails to validate second_book = Book.create( :chapters => [ Chapter.new(:title => "A temporary Introduction title"), Chapter.new(:title => "Destroy things") => Book 2 succesfully created second_book.chapters[0].title= "Introduction" => success second_book.chapters.save => success second_book.save => success Can anyone shed some light on how to do this? Or why it's happening?

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