Search Results

Search found 17852 results on 715 pages for 'load balancer'.

Page 586/715 | < Previous Page | 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593  | Next Page >

  • Flash As3.0 PHP Variables?

    - by user311421
    Is it possible to make php variables public and accessible anywhere on the timeline? The script I included works fine if I set it as the document class only (it won't work if I try importing it). The variables pass the text to dynamic text fields on the main timeline. The problem: It will pull the information and display it when the SWF first loads but if I move to my second frame and then back it erases the information. It also will not pass any variables to the second frame. The only way to see the variables after going back to the first frame is to reload the whole SWF. I'm pretty much stuck at this point trying to make the variables persistent through all frames. this is my code: package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.*; import flash.display.Stage; public class Main extends MovieClip { public function Main() { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/mytest2/dataLayer.php"); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.VARIABLES; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); loader.load(request); function completeHandler(evt:Event) { var username = evt.target.data.username; var pclass = evt.target.data.pclass; var hpoints = evt.target.data.hpoints; var spoints = evt.target.data.spoints; username_txt.text = username; class_txt.text = pclass; hpoints_txt.text = hpoints; spoints_txt.text = spoints; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Playing Multiple sounds at the same time in Android

    - by Wrapper
    I am unable to use the following to code to play multiple sounds/beeps simultaneously. In my onclicklistener I have added ... public void onClick(View v) { mSoundManager.playSound(1); mSoundManager.playSound(2); } ... But this plays only one sound at a time, sound with index 1 followed by sound with index 2. How can I play atleast 2 sounds simultaneously using this code whenever there is an onClick() event? public class SoundManager { private SoundPool mSoundPool; private HashMap<Integer, Integer> mSoundPoolMap; private AudioManager mAudioManager; private Context mContext; public SoundManager() { } public void initSounds(Context theContext) { mContext = theContext; mSoundPool = new SoundPool(4, AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 0); mSoundPoolMap = new HashMap<Integer, Integer>(); mAudioManager = (AudioManager)mContext.getSystemService(Context.AUDIO_SERVICE); } public void addSound(int Index,int SoundID) { mSoundPoolMap.put(1, mSoundPool.load(mContext, SoundID, 1)); } public void playSound(int index) { int streamVolume = mAudioManager.getStreamVolume(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); mSoundPool.play(mSoundPoolMap.get(index), streamVolume, streamVolume, 1, 0, 1f); } public void playLoopedSound(int index) { int streamVolume = mAudioManager.getStreamVolume(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); mSoundPool.play(mSoundPoolMap.get(index), streamVolume, streamVolume, 1, -1, 1f); } }

    Read the article

  • Troubleshooting failover cluster problem in W2K8 / SQL05

    - by paulland
    I have an active/passive W2K8 (64) cluster pair, running SQL05 Standard. Shared storage is on a HP EVA SAN (FC). I recently expanded the filesystem on the active node for a database, adding a drive designation. The shared storage drives are designated as F:, I:, J:, L: and X:, with SQL filesystems on the first 4 and X: used for a backup destination. Last night, as part of a validation process (the passive node had been offline for maintenance), I moved the SQL instance to the other cluster node. The database in question immediately moved to Suspect status. Review of the system logs showed that the database would not load because the file "K:\SQLDATA\whatever.ndf" could not be found. (Note that we do not have a K: drive designation.) A review of the J: storage drive showed zero contents -- nothing -- this is where "whatever.ndf" should have been. Hmm, I thought. Problem with the server. I'll just move SQL back to the other server and figure out what's wrong.. Still no database. Suspect. Uh-oh. "Whatever.ndf" had gone into the bit bucket. I finally decided to just restore from the backup (which had been taken immediately before the validation test), so nothing was lost but a few hours of sleep. The question: (1) Why did the passive node think the whatever.ndf files were supposed to go to drive "K:", when this drive didn't exist as a resource on the active node? (2) How can I get the cluster nodes "re-syncd" so that failover can be accomplished? I don't know that there wasn't a "K:" drive as a cluster resource at some time in the past, but I do know that this drive did not exist on the original cluster at the time of resource move.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET UpdatePanel > Get selected value from checbox list outside of panel

    - by Rob
    Hi, I have a listing in an UpdatePanel I have some filters for that list in the form a checkboxList control. The checkboxList is created dynamically on page load During the Ajax update (postback), the checkbox list is not populated form the viewstate, so I cannot get the listing to filter. Note: If I put the checkbox list items directly in the markup, it all works, just not if the listing is populated on-postback. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { foreach (var p in global.Product) CheckListManufacurer.Items.Add(new ListItem(p, p)); } base.OnLoad(e); } <form id="ProductListForm" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager" runat="server" EnablePartialRendering="true"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="CheckListManufacurer" runat="server" EnableViewState="true"> <asp:ListItem Value="" Text="(All)"></asp:ListItem> </asp:CheckBoxList> <asp:Button id="btnTestAjax" runat="server" Text="Test" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="ProductsPanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnTestAjax" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CheckListManufacurer" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <sr:ProductList ID="Products" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form>

    Read the article

  • Embedding/deploying custom font in .NET app

    - by Swingline Rage
    Is there an official way to distribute (deploy) a specific font with a .NET application? We have a (public domain) "LED font" that prints numbers with the retro LED instrumentface look. This is a standard True Type or Open Type font like any other except it looks funky. Obviously for that to work, this font needs to be on the user's machine. But we'd prefer to not force the user to "install our special font into your font folder". We'd prefer to either load a Font object directly from the TTF, or programatically install the font so it's available. How do applications handle this sort of things? Eg, I notice Adobe XYZ installs various fonts on the system without user intervention. That's what we'd like to do. EDIT: okay, ideally, we'd prefer not to install the font directly. We don't want our nifty themed LED font showing up in the user's font dropdown in MS Word. We'd prefer to use this font, but restrict its use or appearance to our app. Any way to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Error while opening port in Java

    - by Deepak
    I am getting the following error while trying to open the cash drawer. Error loading win32com: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_15\jre\bin\win32com.dll: Can't load IA 32-bit .dll on a AMD 64-bit platform The code i am using is as follows `import javax.comm.; import java.util.; /** Check each port to see if it is open. **/ public class openPort { public static void main (String [] args) { Enumeration port_list = CommPortIdentifier.getPortIdentifiers (); while (port_list.hasMoreElements ()) { // Get the list of ports CommPortIdentifier port_id = (CommPortIdentifier) port_list.nextElement (); // Find each ports type and name if (port_id.getPortType () == CommPortIdentifier.PORT_SERIAL) { System.out.println ("Serial port: " + port_id.getName ()); } else if (port_id.getPortType () == CommPortIdentifier.PORT_PARALLEL) { System.out.println ("Parallel port: " + port_id.getName ()); } else System.out.println ("Other port: " + port_id.getName ()); // Attempt to open it try { CommPort port = port_id.open ("PortListOpen",20); System.out.println (" Opened successfully"); port.close (); } catch (PortInUseException pe) { System.out.println (" Open failed"); String owner_name = port_id.getCurrentOwner (); if (owner_name == null) System.out.println (" Port Owned by unidentified app"); else // The owner name not returned correctly unless it is // a Java program. System.out.println (" " + owner_name); } } } //main } // PortListOpen`

    Read the article

  • Linker flags for one library break loading of another

    - by trevrosen
    I'm trying to use FMOD and HTTPriot in the same app. FMOD works fine until I add in linker flags for HTTPriot, at which point I get a bunch of linking errors wherein FMOD is complaining about undefined symbols. In other words, adding in linker flags for HTTPriot seems to break the loading of FMOD's library. These are the kinds of errors I'm getting, all coming during the linking phase of my build: Undefined symbols: "_FMOD_Sound_Lock", referenced from: -[FMODEngine recordedSoundAsNSData] in FMODEngine.o -[FMODEngine writeRecordingToDiskWithName:] in FMODEngine.o "_FMOD_MusicSystem_PrepareCue", referenced from: -[FMODEngine addCue:] in FMODEngine.o These are the linker flags for HTTPriot: -lhttpriot -lxml2 -ObjC -all_load I added those as well as a path to the HTTPriot SDK per the instructions here: http://labratrevenge.com/httpriot/docs/iphone-setup.html I was hoping someone could enlighten me on why adding linker flags for one library might cause a failure of another to load. If I DON'T have these flags in, HTTPriot and FMOD both work fine on the simulator, but HTTPriot has runtime errors on the device, I assume because its libraries are not linked. FMOD works fine on the device though. I placed header search paths and library search paths in my build settings in order for XCode to find FMOD. That seemed to be OK until I tried adding these HTTPriot linker flags. I also tried adding a linker flag for the FMOD library (-lfmodex), but I get the same errors as I do without it.

    Read the article

  • How to loop video using NetStream in Data Generation Mode

    - by WesleyJohnson
    I'm using a NetStream in Data Generation Mode to play an embeded FLV using appendBytes. When the stream is finished playing, I'd like to loop the FLV file. I'm not sure how to achieve this. Here is what I have so far (this isn't a complete example): public function createBorderAnimation():void { // Load the skin image borderAnimation = Assets.BorderAnimation; // Convert the animation to a byte array borderAnimationBytes = new borderAnimation(); // Initialize the net connection border_nc = new NetConnection(); border_nc.connect( null ); // Initialize the net stream border_ns = new NetStream( border_nc ); border_ns.client = { onMetaData:function( obj:Object ):void{ trace(obj); } } border_ns.addEventListener( NetStatusEvent.NET_STATUS, border_netStatusHandler ); border_ns.play( null ); border_ns.appendBytes( borderAnimationBytes ); // Initialize the animation border_vd = new Video( 1024, 768 ); border_vd.attachNetStream( border_ns ); // Add the animation to the stage ui = new UIComponent(); ui.addChild( DisplayObject( border_vd ) ); grpBackground.addElement( ui ); } protected function border_netStatusHandler( event:NetStatusEvent ):void { if( event.info.code == "NetStream.Buffer.Flush" || event.info.code == "NetStream.Buffer.Empty" ) { border_ns.appendBytesAction( NetStreamAppendBytesAction.RESET_BEGIN ); border_ns.appendBytes( borderAnimationBytes ); border_ns.appendBytesAction( NetStreamAppendBytesAction.END_SEQUENCE ); } } This will loop the animation, but it starts chewing up memory like crazy. I've tried using NetStream.seek(0) and NetStream.appendBytesAction( NetStreamAppendBytesAction.RESET_SEEK ), but then I'm not sure what to do next. If you just try to call appendBytes again after that, it doesn't work, presumably because I'm appending the full byte array which has the FLV header and stuff? I'm not very familiar with how that all works. Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • javafx doesnt repaint label till method has finished, why?

    - by jeff porter
    Hi all, I have a JavaFX app with a some code like this... public class MainListener extends EventListener{ override public function event (arg0 : String) : Void { statusText.content = arg0; } } statusText is defined like this... var statusText = Text { x: 30 y: stageHeight - 40 font: Font { name: "Bitstream Vera Sans Bold" size: 10 } wrappingWidth: 420 fill: Color.WHITE textAlignment: TextAlignment.CENTER content: "Status: awaiting DBF file." }; I also have some other Javacode that is load data, much like this.. public ArrayList<CustomerRecord> read(EventListener listener) { ArrayList<CustomerRecord> listOfCustomerRecords = new ArrayList<CustomerRecord>(); listener.event("Status: Starting read"); // ** takes a while... List<Map<String, CustomerField>> customerRecords = new Reader(file).readData(listener); // ** long running method over. listener.event("Status: Loaded all customers, count:" + listOfCustomerRecords.size()); return listOfCustomerRecords; } Now while the last method is in its long running call, I would expect to see my statusText updated to have 'Status: Starting read', but its doesn't. Its only when the read() method returns that the text is updated. If its was 'straight' java I would presume that the long running job is hogging the CPU, or the statusText needed to have repaint() called on it. Can anyone give me any ideas? Thanks Jeff Porter

    Read the article

  • Stack Overflow works best with JavaScript enabled banner

    - by carpenter
    I am trying to mimic this site's Javascipt required banner, and have the below divs which are being hidden if javascript is allowed/enabled, but I am getting a flash/glimps of it on page load. <div id="Main_noJS">Craftystuff.com works best with JavaScript enabled</div> <div id="PartOfMain_noJS"><br /></div> CSS: #Main_noJS { width: 100%; height: 23px; font-family: Arial; font-size: 111%; color: White; font-weight: bold; background: #AE0000; text-align: center; padding-top: 4px; position: fixed; z-index: 100; } JavaScript: // hide the "Craftystuff.com works best with JavaScript enabled" banner, if JavaScript is working if ($("#Main_noJS")) { $("#Main_noJS").hide(); // hide the spacer between the main content and banner... $("#PartOfMain_noJS").hide(); } So the banner is visible to start with, and only when javascript is enabled do I hide it but javascript must take a second to get to work to hide things... I would like to try to stop the glimps of the banner, when the page first loads, any help?

    Read the article

  • Translating CURL to FLEX HTTPRequests

    - by Joshua
    I am trying to convert from some CURL code to FLEX/ActionScript. Since I am 100% ignorant about CURL and 50% ignorant about Flex and 90% ignorant on HTTP in general... I'm having some significant difficulty. The following CURL code is from http://code.google.com/p/ga-api-http-samples/source/browse/trunk/src/v2/accountFeed.sh I have every reason to believe that it's working correctly. USER_EMAIL="[email protected]" #Insert your Google Account email here USER_PASS="secretpass" #Insert your password here googleAuth="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s \ -d Email=$USER_EMAIL \ -d Passwd=$USER_PASS \ -d accountType=GOOGLE \ -d source=curl-accountFeed-v2 \ -d service=analytics \ | awk /Auth=.*/)" feedUri="https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default\ ?prettyprint=true" curl $feedUri --silent \ --header "Authorization: GoogleLogin $googleAuth" \ --header "GData-Version: 2" The following is my abortive attempt to translate the above CURL to AS3 var request:URLRequest=new URLRequest("https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/accounts/default"); request.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; var GoogleAuth:String="$(curl https://www.google.com/accounts/ClientLogin -s " + "-d [email protected] " + "-d Passwd=secretpass " + "-d accountType=GOOGLE " + "-d source=curl-accountFeed-v2" + "-d service=analytics " + "| awk /Auth=.*/)"; request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("Authorization", "GoogleLogin " + GoogleAuth)); request.requestHeaders.push(new URLRequestHeader("GData-Version", "2")); var loader:URLLoader=new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, GACompleteHandler); loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, GAErrorHandler); loader.load(request); This probably provides you all with a good laugh, and that's okay, but if you can find any pity on me, please let me know what I'm missing. I readily admit functional ineptitude, therefore letting me know how stupid I am is optional.

    Read the article

  • Ruby script/console and Ruby script/server using two different DBs?

    - by aronchick
    Has anyone seen where script/console and script/server load two different databases (though both report using the same)? Here's the first output $ script/server => Booting WEBrick => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 => Call with -d to detach => Ctrl-C to shutdown server [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick 1.3.1 [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10) [i386-mingw32] [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick::HTTPServer#start: pid=7148 port=3000 No errors. I then run my standard code for entering a form - no problems. Checking the Dev Database (.yml at bottom): mysql> select * from books; [...] | 712 | Book | Book Name | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | [...] 712 rows in set (0.00 sec) The code CLEARLY saved it seconds ago And now here's the output of script/console: $ script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> Books.all => [] Nothing. Further, upon further inspection, it's using the production database, but I can't figure out why. Any thoughts here? All consoles have been closed and reopened. UPDATE: Requested .yml file (can't see how it'd be helpful (user name and password are all the same for each)) - development: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBdev username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBtest username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 production: adapter: mysql database: BooksDB username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000

    Read the article

  • WCF and ASP.NET - Server.Execute throwing object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET page that calls to a WCF service. This WCF service uses a BackgroundWorker to asynchronously create an ASP.NET page on my server. Oddly, when I execute the WCF Service [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public void PostRequest(string comments) { // Do stuff // If everything went o.k. asynchronously render a page on the server. I do not want to // block the caller while this is occurring. BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); myWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(myWorker_DoWork); myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(HttpContext.Current); } private void myWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Set the current context so we can render the page via Server.Execute HttpContext context = (HttpContext)(e.Argument); HttpContext.Current = context; // Retrieve the url to the page string applicationPath = context.Request.ApplicationPath; string sourceUrl = applicationPath + "/log.aspx"; string targetDirectory = currentContext.Server.MapPath("/logs/"); // Execute the other page and load its contents using (StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter()) { // Write the contents out to the target url // NOTE: THIS IS WHERE MY ERROR OCCURS currentContext.Server.Execute(sourceUrl, stringWriter); // Prepare to write out the result of the log targetPath = targetDirectory + "/" + DateTime.Now.ToShortDateString() + ".aspx"; using (StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(targetPath, false)) { // Write out the content to the file sb.Append(stringWriter.ToString()); streamWriter.Write(sb.ToString()); } } } Oddly, when the currentContext.Server.Execute method is executed, it throws an "object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The reason this is so strange is because I can look at the currentContext properties in the watch window. In addition, Server is not null. Because of this, I have no idea where this error is coming from. Can someone point me in the correct direction of what the cause of this could be? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Can I output/flush data to screen while processing ajax page?

    - by Bee
    I need to display on my page a list of records pulled from a table. Ajax works fine (I query the database and put all the data inside a on the main page) but if I have lots of records (say 500+) it will hang until data is fully loaded, THEN it will be sent back to the page and correctly displayed. I would like to be able to display the records on the page while getting them, instead of being forced to wait until completion. I am trying with flush(); inside the remote (ajax) page but it still waits until full data is loaded. This is what I currently have inside the ajax page: At the very beginning: @apache_setenv('no-gzip', 1); @ini_set('zlib.output_compression', 0); @ini_set('implicit_flush', 1); for ($i = 0; $i < ob_get_level(); $i++) { ob_end_flush(); } ob_implicit_flush(1); Then whenever I have a echo call: ob_flush(); Now if I load the ajax page alone... it will list the records while reading them from the database. But if I call the same page via Ajax, it will hang and send all the data at once. Any idea? This is the function I use to get the ajax content ('id' is the target , 'url' refers to the ajax page that runs the database query to list the records): function ajax(id,url) { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,false); xmlhttp.send(null); document.getElementById(id).innerHTML = parseScript(xmlhttp.responseText); }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have anonymous purchases with ubercart without the creation of a new user account?

    - by DKinzer
    I would like to be able to have anonymous users purchase a product but not have a new account created when they purchase it. Unfortunately the creation of a new user seems to be very tightly integrated into ubercart's ordering system. And, because the order module is part of the ubercart core, it's behavior cannot be overridden easily. One possibility for overriding is the creation of a new user account by supplying ubercart with an bogus anonymous account: hook into hook_form_alter at $form_id == 'uc_cart_checkout_review_form' because this is where ubercart first associates the $order to an uid. Add our submit function to the queue: //Find out if the user is anonymous: global $user; if ($user->uid == 0 ) { //Load a previously created anonymous user account $anonymous_user = mymodule_get_anonymous_user(); //create the order and assign our anonymous_user_id to it $order = uc_order_load($_SESSION['cart_order']); $order->uid = $anonymous_user->uid; uc_order_save($order); //Assign the global user our anonymous user uid $user->uid = $anonymous_user->uid; } But what I really need is to be able to have an anonymous purchase without being forced to create a new account, this solution does not work for me. Apart from which, using this technique will automatically login the anonymous_user into our bogus_anonymous_user account. Which is definitely something I don't want. Is there a better non-duct-tape way around the creation of a new user account for anonymous purchases in ubercart?. AND FYI - at this point I'm kind of stuck with ubercart so I cannot use something else. Thanks! D

    Read the article

  • Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

    Read the article

  • Read a variable from a variable cookie jquerycookie.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR How could I tell "page.html" which one of 3 or so cookies to look at when the cookie is set on the previous page? Currently: When a link is clicked save text of link to cookie When "page.html" is loaded get the value of the cookie Loads the getjson call as per value of the cookie. E.g: <a href="page.html">link1</a> -c1 <a href="page.html">link2</a> -c2 <a href="page.html">link3</a> -c3 See previous discussion here Now that is all good and well apart from the fact if I were to say open them in multiple tabs. It changes the cookie and correctly loads the right data. But if I were to refresh one of these tabs it will load the most recently open data rather than what it should be. So if I were to save a cookie as c1 with a value of link1 c2 with a value of link2 c3 with a value of link3 How could I tell "page.html" which cookie it should be looking at, therefore not breaking the back/forward/refresh buttons on the browser when multiple tabs are open?

    Read the article

  • Database access through collections

    - by Mike
    Hi All, I have an 3 tiered application where I need to get database results and populated the UI. I have a MessagesCollection class that deals with messages. I load my user from the database. On the instantiation of a user (ie. new User()), a MessageCollection Messages = new MessageCollection(this) is performed. Message collection accepts a user as a parameter. User user = user.LoadUser("bob"); I want to get the messages for Bob. user.Messages.GetUnreadMessages(); GetUnreadMessages calls my Business Data provider which in turn calls the data access layer. The Business data provider returns List. My question is - I am not sure what the best practice is here - If I have a collection of messages in an array inside the MessagesCollection class, I could implement ICollection to provide GetEnumerator() and ability to traverse the messages. But what happens if the messages change and the the user has old messages loaded? What about big message collections? What if my user had 10,000 unread messages? I don't think accessing the database and returning 10,000 Message objects would be efficient.

    Read the article

  • nhibernate - mapping with contraints

    - by Tobias Müller
    Hello everybody, I am having a Problem with my nhibernate-mapping and I can't find a solution by searching on stackoverflow/google/documentation. The database I am using has (amongst others) two tables. One is unit with the following fields: id enduring_id starts ends damage_enduring_id [...] The other one is damage, which has the following fields: id enduring_id starts ends [...] The units are assigned to a damage and one damage can have zero, one or more units working on it. Every time a unit moves to annother damage, the dataset is copied. The field "ends" of the old record and "starts" of the new record are set to the current time stamp, enduring_id stays the same. So if I want to know which units were working on a damage at a certain time, I do the following select: select * from unit join damage on damage.enduring_id = unit.damage_enduring_id where unit.starts <= 'time' and unit.ends = 'time' (This is not an actualy query from the database, I made it up to make clear what I mean. The the real database is a little more complex) Now I want to map it that way, so I can load all the damages which are valid at one time (starts <= wanted time <= ends) and that each of them has a Bag with all the attached units at that time (again starts <= wanted time <= ends). Is this possible within the mapping? Sorry if this is a stupid question, but I am pretty new to nhibernate and I have no clue how to do it. Thanks a lot for reading my post! Bye, Tobias

    Read the article

  • Analyzing Windows crash dumps generated on XP/32 machines with Win7/64 ?

    - by Martin
    We have a problem with analyzing our Windows crash-dumps that were created on customer Windows XP/32 boxes on our development machines. Many of our development machines are now Win7/64 boxes, but it appears that the crash-dumps generated under Windows XP cannot full resolve their binary dependency, thereby leading to warnings when displaying the call stacks in Visual Studio (2005). For example, the msvcr80.dll cannot be resolved when loaded from a Win7 machine when the dump was generated on Windows XP: On XP, the WinSxS path appears to be C:\WINDOWS\WinSxS\x86_Microsoft.VC80.CRT_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_8.0.50727.4053_x-ww_e6967989\msvcr80.dll -- on Win7, the WinSxS path to the same DLL version seems to be: x86_microsoft.vc80.crt_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_8.0.50727.4053_none_d08d7da0442a985d (I got this info from a forum thread on codeguru that link to an msdn article.) Visual Studio (2005) can now no longer correctly resolve the binaries for the crash-dump. How can I get Visual Studio to resolve all the correct binaries for my dump file? Note: I have already correctly set up the symbol server. The public symbols for most system DLLs (kernel32.dll, etc) and our symbols of our own DLLs are correctly loaded. It is just that the symbols of DLLs that reside in the WinSxS folder are not loaded, because it appears that Vista/7 uses a different path scheme for these DLLs than XP does and therefore Visual Studio cannot find the dll (not the pdb) on the local dev machine and so cannot load the corresponding symbols for the dump file.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

    Read the article

  • Squid handling of concurrent cache misses

    - by Oliver H-H
    We're using a Squid cache to off-load traffic from our web servers, ie. it's setup as a reverse-proxy responding to inbound requests before they hit our web servers. When we get blitzed with concurrent requests for the same request that's not in the cache, Squid proxies all the requests through to our web ("origin") servers. For us, this behavior isn't ideal: our origin servers gets bogged down trying to fulfill N identical requests concurrently. Instead, we'd like the first request to proxy through to the origin server, the rest of the requests to queue at the Squid layer, and then all be fulfilled by Squid when the origin server has responded to that first request. Does anyone know how to configure Squid to do this? We've read through the documentation multiple times and thoroughly web-searched the topic, but can't figure out how to do it. We use Akamai too and, interestingly, this is its default behavior. (However, Akamai has so many nodes that we still see lots of concurrent requests in certain traffic spike scenarios, even with Akamai's super-node feature enabled.) This behavior is clearly configurable for some other caches, eg. the Ehcache documentation offers the option "Concurrent Cache Misses: A cache miss will cause the filter chain, upstream of the caching filter to be processed. To avoid threads requesting the same key to do useless duplicate work, these threads block behind the first thread." Some folks call this behavior a "blocking cache," since the subsequent concurrent requests block behind the first request until it's fulfilled or timed-out. Thx for looking over my noob question! Oliver

    Read the article

  • FormMethod.Get and query string parameters

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website in asp.net mvc. I have to show a view where user put some search values like tags and titles to search. I want to use the same Index method for that. I have make my form to use formMethod.Get to send the parameters as querystring. so here is the method [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index(string title, string tags, int? page) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(title) return View(null); var list = GetSomeData(); return View(list); } here is my view <div id="searchBox"> <% using (Html.BeginForm(null, null, FormMethod.Get)) { %> <table> <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" id="isPosted" name="isPosted" value="1" /> I am looking for <%=Html.TextBox("Title")%> Tags: <%=Html.TextBox("Tags")%> <input id="search" type="submit" value="Search" /> </td> </tr> </table> <% } %> So when the user first visit the page, he will see only two text boxs and a button. but when he types something in the title and tags and click the search button i will load the view with some data. Now the problem is when i type something in title and tags box and click search, they are received in the method, but are not visible in the url. Is there anything i m doing wrong. help will be appreciated. Regards Parminder

    Read the article

  • Display a tree dijit using zend framework

    - by churris43
    I am trying to display a tree of categories and subcategories by using dijits with zend framework. Haven't been able to find a good example. This is what I've got: Basically I got the following code as my action: class SubcategoriesController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ ..... public function loadtreeAction() { Zend_Dojo::enableView($this->view); Zend_Layout::getMvcInstance()->disableLayout(); //Creating a sample tree of categories and subcategories $a["cat1"]["id"] = "id1"; $a["cat1"]["name"] = "Category1"; $a["cat1"]["type"] = "category"; $subcat1 = array("id" => "Subcat1","name" => "Subcategory1" , "type" => "subcategory"); $subcat2 = array("id" => "Subcat12","name" => "Subcategory12" , "type" => "subcategory"); $a["cat1"]["children"] = array($subcat1,$subcat2); $treeObj = new Zend_Dojo_Data('id', $a); $treeObj->setLabel('name'); $this->view->tree = $treeObj->toJson(); } .... } And on my view: <?php $this->dojo()->requireModule('dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore'); $this->dojo()->requireModule('dijit.Tree'); $this->dojo()->requireModule('dojo.parser'); ?> <div dojoType="dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore" url="/Subcategories/loadtree" jsId="store"></div> <div dojoType="dijit.tree.ForestStoreModel" jsId="treeModel" store="store" rootId="root" rootLabel="List of Categories" childrenAttrs="children" query="{type:'category'}"></div> <div dojoType="dijit.Tree" model="treeModel" labelAttrs="ListOfCategories"></div> It doesn't even seem to try to load the tree at all. Any help is appreciated

    Read the article

  • PHP fails silently when php-code is within html tag

    - by Michal M
    PROBLEM UPDATED, READ BELOW For some reason my CI fails silently when loading view. Loading view is simply called from controller $this->load->view('templates/default.php'); Now. There are some functions in the loaded view that are not defined unless a proper helper is loaded as well. Normally, php would throw an error, but instead it fails silently here. I have no idea why. The template gets outputted till the line containing the undefined function. It took me long time to realise where my script is failing. Here's my setup: Windows 7 Ultimate Apache 2.2.15 PHP 5.3.2 with following error reporting settings: display_errors = On display_startup_errors = On error_reporting = E_ALL | E_STRICT CodeIgniter 1.7.2 Any ideas why would that be? UPDATE After further debugging, it turned out that PHP fails to report any errors when php code is inline with HTML and within the HTML tag. Now this is bizarre. This returns Fatal Error: <p><?php echo $bogus(); ?></p> This doesn't and fails silently: <p class="<?php echo $bogus(); ?>">paragraph</p> Why? :O UPDATE 2 Further investigation showed that if an error_log in PHP is specified, the errors are in fact reported in that file, but still not in the browser... Again, why? UPDATE 3 Actually my code should be slightly different. Checked another PHP installation on completely different machine and it confirmed the PHP bug. Reported here: http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=52040

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593  | Next Page >