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• How do I test database-related code with NUnit?

  - by Michael Haren

  I want to write unit tests with NUnit that hit the database. I'd like to have the database in a consistent state for each test. I thought transactions would allow me to "undo" each test so I searched around and found several articles from 2004-05 on the topic: http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/07/12/180189.aspx http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/10/05/238201.aspx http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2004/07/12/365.aspx http://haacked.com/archive/2005/12/28/11377.aspx These seem to resolve around implementing a custom attribute for NUnit which builds in the ability to rollback DB operations after each test executes. That's great but... Does this functionality exists somewhere in NUnit natively? Has this technique been improved upon in the last 4 years? Is this still the best way to test database-related code? Edit: it's not that I want to test my DAL specifically, it's more that I want to test pieces of my code that interact with the database. For these tests to be "no-touch" and repeatable, it'd be awesome if I could reset the database after each one. Further, I want to ease this into an existing project that has no testing place at the moment. For that reason, I can't practically script up a database and data from scratch for each test.

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• Sinatra application running on Dreamhost suddenly not working

  - by jbrennan

  My Sinatra application was running fine on Dreamhost until a few days ago (I'm not sure precisely when it went bad). Now when I visit my app I get this error: can't activate rack (~> 1.1, runtime) for ["sinatra-1.1.2"], already activated rack-1.2.1 for [] I have no idea how to fix this. I've tried updating all my gems, then touching the app/tmp/restart.txt file, but still no fix. I hadn't touched any files of my app, nor my Dreamhost account. It just busted on its own (my guess is DH changed something on their server which caused the bust). When I originally deployed my app, I had to go through some hoops to get it working, and I seem to think I was using gems in a custom location, but I can't remember exactly where or how. I don't know my way around Rack/Passenger very well. Here's my config.ru: (mostly grafted from around the web, I don't fully understand it) ENV['RACK_ENV'] = 'development' if ENV['RACK_ENV'].empty? #### Make sure my own gem path is included first ENV['GEM_HOME'] = "#{ENV['HOME']}/.gems" ENV['GEM_PATH'] = "#{ENV['HOME']}/.gems:" require 'rubygems' Gem.clear_paths ## NB! key part require 'sinatra' set :env, :production disable :run require 'MY_APP_NAME.rb' run Sinatra::Application

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• How to return proper 404 for google while providing user friendly content to the user?

  - by Marek

  I am bouncing between posting this here and on Superuser. Please excuse me if you feel this does not belong here. I am observing the behavior described here - Googlebot is requesting random urls on my site, like aecgeqfx.html or sutwjemebk.html. I am sure that I am not linking these urls from anywhere on my site. I suspect this may be google probing how we handle non existent content - to cite from an answer to the linked question: [google is requesting random urls to] see if your site correctly handles non-existent files (by returning a 404 response header) We have a custom page for nonexistent content - a styled page saying "Content not found, if you believe you got here by error, please contact us", with a few internal links, served (naturally) with a 200 OK. The URL is served directly (no redirection to a single url). I am afraid this may discriminate the site at google - they may not interpret the user friendly page as a 404 - not found and may think we are trying to fake something and provide duplicate content. How should I proceed to ensure that google will not think the site is bogus while providing user friendly message to users in case they click on dead links by accident?

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• Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

  - by Ben

  Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

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• Errors In Programmatically Running ANT Build In Eclipse

  - by Sujay

  I am trying to run an ANT script through a small Java program and I keep on encountering the following error: build: Exception in thread "main" build.xml:7: Problem: failed to create task or type eclipse.refreshLocal Cause: The name is undefined. Action: Check the spelling. Action: Check that any custom tasks/types have been declared. Action: Check that any <presetdef>/<macrodef> declarations have taken place. at org.apache.tools.ant.UnknownElement.getNotFoundException(UnknownElement.java:487) at org.apache.tools.ant.UnknownElement.makeObject(UnknownElement.java:419) at org.apache.tools.ant.UnknownElement.maybeConfigure(UnknownElement.java:163) I used to get this problem when I used to execute the build file manually. All I had to do to make Eclipse run this build was to go to Run External Tools External Tools Configuration JRE and select "Run in the same JRE as the workspace" and then attempt to execute. But I have no idea how to achieve the same effect through my code. Any suggestion would really be appreciated. Note that this has reference to a previous question that I asked over here

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• JSF/Facelets: set `action` attribute to a dynamically evaluated string

  - by harto

  In my JSF/Facelets application, I want to dynamically generate a breadcrumb trail from a list of page IDs using a custom tag: <foo:breadcrumbs trail="foo,bar,baz"/> This should generate something like: <h:commandLink action="foo" ... /> <h:commandLink action="bar" ... /> <!-- (etc.) --> My code looks something like this: <ui:repeat value="#{fn:split(trail, ',')}" var="key"> <h:commandLink action="#{key}" ... /> </ui:repeat> The problem with this code is that #{key} is interpreted as a method binding. However, I just want the string value of #{key} to be returned as the navigation outcome. How can I achieve this? The only thing I could think of was creating a dummy managed-bean that has an outcome field and an action handler, and invoke it like so: <h:commandLink action="#{dummy.click}" ...> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{dummy.outcome}" value="#{key}" /> </h:commandLink> with the dummy class defined like so: public class Dummy { private String outcome; public String click() { return outcome; } public void setOutcome(String outcome) { this.outcome = outcome; } public void getOutcome() { return outcome; } } That seems ugly though, and I don't know if it would work.

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• Putting a C++ Vector as a Member in a Class that Uses a Memory Pool

  - by Deep-B

  Hey, I've been writing a multi-threaded DLL for database access using ADO/ODBC for use with a legacy application. I need to keep multiple database connections for each thread, so I've put the ADO objects for each connection in an object and thinking of keeping an array of them inside a custom threadInfo object. Obviously a vector would serve better here - I need to delete/rearrange objects on the go and a vector would simplify that. Problem is, I'm allocating a heap for each thread to avoid heap contention and stuff and allocating all my memory from there. So my question is: how do I make the vector allocate from the thread-specific heap? (Or would it know internally to allocate memory from the same heap as its wrapper class - sounds unlikely, but I'm not a C++ guy) I've googled a bit and it looks like I might need to write an allocator or something - which looks like so much of work I don't want. Is there any other way? I've heard vector uses placement-new for all its stuff inside, so can overloading operator new be worked into it? My scant knowledge of the insides of C++ doesn't help, seeing as I'm mainly a C programmer (even that - relatively). It's very possible I'm missing something elementary somewhere. If nothing easier comes up - I might just go and do the array thing, but hopefully it won't come to that. I'm using MS-VC++ 6.0 (hey, it's rude to laugh! :-P ). Any/all help will be much appreciated.

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• Caching page by parts; how to pass variables calculated in cached parts into never-cached parts?

  - by Kirzilla

  Hello, Let's imagine that I have a code like this... if (!$data = $cache->load("part1_cache_id")) { $item_id = $model->getItemId(); ob_start(); echo 'Here is the cached item id: '.$item_id; $data = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $cache->save($data, "part1_cache_id"); } echo $data; echo never_cache_function($item_id); if (!$data_2 = $cache->load("part2_cache_id")) { ob_start(); echo 'Here is the another cached part of the page...'; $data_2 = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $cache->save("part2_cache_id"); } echo $data_2; As far as you can see I need to pass $item_id variable into never_cache_function, but if fist part is cached (part1_cache_id) then I have no way to get $item_id value. I see the only solution - serialize all data from fist part (including $item_id value); then cache serialized string and unserialize it everytime when script is executed... Something like this... if (!$data = $cache->load("part1_cache_id")) { $item_id = $model->getItemId(); $data['item_id'] = $item_id; ob_start(); echo 'Here is the cached item id: '.$item_id; $data['html'] = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $cache->save( serialize($data), "part1_cache_id" ); } $data = unserialize($data); echo $data['html'] echo never_cache_function($data['item_id']); Is there any other ways for doing such trick? I'm looking for the most high performance solution. Thank you UPDATED And another question is - how to implement such caching into controller without separating page into two templates? Is it possible? PS: Please, do not suggest Smarty, I'm really interested in implementing custom caching.

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• Problem in encoding and decoding the string in Iphone sdk

  - by monish

  HI Guys, Here I am having a problem In encoding/decoding the strings. Actually I had a string which I am encoding it using the base64.which was working fine. And now I need to decode the string that was encoded before and want to print it. I code I written as: I imported the base64.h and base64.m files into my application which contains the methods as: + (NSData *) dataWithBase64EncodedString:(NSString *) string; - (id) initWithBase64EncodedString:(NSString *) string; - (NSString *) base64EncodingWithLineLength:(unsigned int) lineLength; And the code in my view controller where I encode the String is: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { // Custom initialization userName = @"Sekhar"; password = @"Bethalam"; } return self; } -(void)reloadView { NSString *authStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@:%@",userName,password]; NSData *authData = [authStr dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSString *authValue = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [authData base64EncodingWithLineLength:30]]; NSLog(authValue); //const char *str = authValue; //NSString *decStr = [StringEncryption DecryptString:authValue]; //NSLog(decStr); //NSData *decodeData = [NSData decode:authValue]; //NSString *decStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",decodeData]; //NSStr //NSLog(decStr); } -(void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self reloadView]; } and now I want to decode the String that I encoded. But I dont know How to do that.can anyone suggest me with code how to get it. Anyone's help will be much appreciated. Thank you, Monish.

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• Card emulation via software NFC

  - by user85030

  After reading a lot of questions, i decided to post this one. I read that stock version of android does not support API's for card emulation. Also, we cannot write custom applications to secure element embedded in nfc controllers due to keys managed by google/samsung. I need to emulate a card (mifare or desfire etc). The option i can see is doing it via software. I have a ACR122U reader and i've tested that NFC P2P mode works fine with the Nexus-S that i have. 1) I came across a site that said that nexus s's NFC controller (pn532) can emulate a mifare 4k card. If this is true, can i write/read apdu commands to this emulated card? (Probably if i use a modded rom like cyanogenmod) 2) Can i write a android application that reads apdu commands sent from the reader and generate appropriate responses (if not fully, then upto some extent only). To do so, i searched that we need to patch nexus s with cynagenmod. Has someone tried emulating card via this method? I see that this is possible since we have products from access control companies offering mobile applications via which one can open doors e.g. http://www.assaabloy.com/en/com/Products/seos-mobile-access/

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• Dynamically populated NSPopUpButtonCell menu in an NSOutlineView

  - by Mo

  I’m working with an NSOutlineView which has two columns. My dataSource supplies the outline view with a tree of items of a custom class which represents file types (that is, you initialise it with a UTI). The first column is the display name of the file type (e.g., “Source code”, “Interface Builder NIB document”, etc.). The second column is an NSPopUpButtonCell which is supposed to allow the user to pick a handler for the given document type (think of Xcode’s “File Types” preference pane, and you’re pretty much there). I can generate an NSMenu for a given item in the tree, populated with options based upon the Launch Services database entries for the UTI, complete with the relevant application icon and and so on. In fact, the menu itself works wonderfully, populated by way of NSPopUpButtonCellWillPopUpNotification. The problem is, try as I might, the cell when the menu isn’t popped up always contains precisely one of two things: either an empty string, or the default text for the cell, the former if the result of -handlerName on the item (the attribute assigned to the column) is non-nil, the latter otherwise. Moreover, I’m manually calling -selectItem: on the NSPopUpButtonCell instance, which just seems Wrong. In contrast, the left-hand column, which is just an NSTextFieldCell, everything just works (although granted, all it’s got to do is read the value from the item and present it). (Disclaimer: I’m fairly new at Cocoa UI stuff; I know Objective-C, and lots of other programming languages, but I’ve not a huge amount of experience of building Mac OS X UIs, so be gentle).

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• Is it possible to write an IIS URL Rewrite Rule that examines content of HTTP Post?

  - by JohnRudolfLewis

  I need to split a portion of functionality away from a legacy ISAPI dll onto another solution (ASP.NET MVC most likely). IIS7's URL Rewrite sounded like a perfect candidate for the job, but it turns out I cannot find a way to configure the rules the way I need. I need to write a rule that examines the content of the HTTP post for a particular value. i.e. <form method="post" action="legacy_isapi.dll"> <input name="foo" /> </form> if (Request.Form["foo"] == "bar") Context.RewritePath("/some_other_url/on_the_same_machine/foo/bar"); As a proof of concept, I was able to create an IHttpModule that examines context.Request.Form collection and performs a rewrite when certain parameters are present. I installed this module in my website, and it works. Rather than a custom module, however, I'd rather extend the existing URL Rewrite module to support examining the content of the HTTP Post as one of its rules. Is this possible?

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• Handling MVC2 variables with hyphens in their name

  - by Jaxidian

  I'm working with some third-party software that creates querystring parameters with hyphens in their names. I was taking a look at this SO question and it seems like their solution is very close to what I need but I'm too ignorant to the underlying MVC stuff to figure out how to adapt this to do what I need. Ideally, I'd like to simply replace hyphens with underscores and that would be a good enough solution. If there's a better one, then I'm interested in hearing it. An example of a URL I want to handle is this: http://localhost/app/Person/List?First-Name=Bob with this Controller: public ActionResult List(string First_Name) { {...} } To repeat, I cannot change the querystring being generated so I need to support it with my controller somehow. But how? For reference, below is the custom RouteHandler that is being used to handle underscores in controller names and action names from the SO question I referenced above that we might be able to modify to accomplish what I want: public class HyphenatedRouteHandler : MvcRouteHandler { protected override IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { requestContext.RouteData.Values["controller"] = requestContext.RouteData.Values["controller"].ToString().Replace("-", "_"); requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"] = requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"].ToString().Replace("-", "_"); return base.GetHttpHandler(requestContext); } }

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• Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

  - by john c

  OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

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• VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

  - by Alexis Abril

  The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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• Java Scanner won't follow file

  - by Steve Renyolds

  Trying to tail / parse some log files. Entries start with a date then can span many lines. This works, but does not ever see new entries to file. File inputFile = new File("C:/test.txt"); InputStream is = new FileInputStream(inputFile); InputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); //bis.skip(inputFile.length()); Scanner src = new Scanner(bis); src.useDelimiter("\n2010-05-01 "); while (true) { while(src.hasNext()){ System.out.println("[ " + src.next() + " ]"); } } Doesn't seem like Scanner's next() or hasNext() detects new entries to file. Any idea how else I can implement, basically, a tail -f with custom delimiter. ok - using Kelly's advise i'm checking & refreshing the scanner, this works. Thank you !! if anyone has improvement suggestions plz do! File inputFile = new File("C:/test.txt"); InputStream is = new FileInputStream(inputFile); InputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); //bis.skip(inputFile.length()); Scanner src = new Scanner(bis); src.useDelimiter("\n2010-05-01 "); while (true) { while(src.hasNext()){ System.out.println("[ " + src.next() + " ]"); } Thread.sleep(50); if(bis.available() > 0){ src = new Scanner(bis); src.useDelimiter("\n2010-05-01 "); } }

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• Accesing WinCE ComboBox DroppedDown property (.NET CF 2.0)

  - by PabloG

  I'm implementing custom behavior sub-classing the form controls, but I cannot manage to access the DroppedDown property of the ComboBox. Looking in the help, it's supposed to be supported in CF.NET 2.0: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace xCustomControls { public partial class xComboBox : System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox { private ComboBox comboBox1; public xComboBox() { InitializeComponent(); this.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(this.KeyDownHandler); } private void KeyDownHandler(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { // DroppedDown doesn't appear in the IntelliSense of ComboBox. // or this.comboBox1. if (((ComboBox)sender).DroppedDown) // fail! return; switch (e.KeyData) { case Keys.Up: case Keys.Enter: case Keys.Down: e.Handled = true; this.Parent.SelectNextControl((Control)sender, e.KeyData != Keys.Up, true, true, true); ... fails with 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'DroppedDown' and no extension method 'DroppedDown' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox' could be found How can I access the property? TIA, Pablo

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• is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution on sql server

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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• UITableView not responding to row selection until a different row is selected

  - by Larry Fransson

  This is driving me nuts. I have searched on everything I can think of to find a solution but haven't found one yet. I've got a UITableView that uses custom cells. The accessory is the detail disclosure button. I would like the cell to respond to either row selection or the disclosure button being tapped. It responds to the disclosure button just as you would expect. But selecting the row is a different story. When I select the row, it highlights, but nothing happens until I tap a different row. Then the previously selected row does what it was supposed to do, which is to create and push a new view controller for that row. If I tap a single row five times and then tap a different row, it then creates and pushes five view controllers for that first row. It does this both in the simulator and on the device. What's really maddening is that I have another tableview in the same application that responds correctly to row selection or tapping the detail disclosure button. I can't find anything I've done differently between the two. Has anyone seen this before?

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• Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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• Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

  - by Ira Cooke

  I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

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• Phonegap/Cordova geolocation not working on Android

  - by Kreeki

  I'm having a trouble to get Geolocation working on Android in both emulator (even when I geo fix over telnet) and on device. Works on iOS, WP8 and in the browser. When I ask device for location using the following code, I always get an error (in my case custom Retrieving your position failed for unknown reason. with null both error code and error message). Related code: successHandler = (position) -> resolve App.Location.create lat: position.coords.latitude lng: position.coords.longitude errorHandler = (error) -> error = switch error.code when 1 App.LocationError.create message: 'You haven\'t shared your location.' when 2 App.LocationError.create message: 'Couldn\'t detect your current location.' when 3 App.LocationError.create message: 'Retrieving your position timeouted.' else App.LocationError.create message: 'Retrieving your position failed for unknown reason. Error code: ' + error.code + '. Error message: ' + error.message reject(error) options = maximumAge: Infinity # I also tried with 0 timeout: 60000 enableHighAccuracy: true navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(successHandler, errorHandler, options) platforms/android/AndroidManifest.xml <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_COARSE_LOCATION" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_LOCATION_EXTRA_COMMANDS" /> www/config.xml (just in case) <feature name="Geolocation"> <param name="android-package" value="org.apache.cordova.GeoBroker" /> </feature> Using Cordova 3.1.0. Testing on Android 4.2. Plugin installed. Cordova.js included in index.html (other plugins like InAppBrowser are working fine). $ cordova plugins ls [ 'org.apache.cordova.console', 'org.apache.cordova.device', 'org.apache.cordova.dialogs', 'org.apache.cordova.geolocation', 'org.apache.cordova.inappbrowser', 'org.apache.cordova.vibration' ] I'm clueless. Am I missing something?

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• MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

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• How do I specify Open ID Realm in spring security ?

  - by Salvin Francis

  We are using Spring security in our application with support for username / password based authentication as well as Open id based authentication. The issue is that google gives a different open id for the return url specified and we have at least 2 different entry points in our application from where open id is configured into our system. Hence we decided to use open id realm. http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/0...ue-per-domain/ http://groups.google.com/group/googl...unts-api?pli=1 how is it possible to integrate realm into our spring configuration/code ? This is how we are doing it in traditional openid library code: AuthRequest authReq = consumerManager.authenticate(discovered, someReturnToUrl,"http://www.example.com"); This works and gives same open id for different urls from our site. our configuration: Code: ... <http auto-config="false"> <!-- <intercept-url> tags are here --> <remember-me user-service-ref="someRememberedService" key="some key" /> <form-login login-page="/Login.html" authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="false" default-target-url="/MainPage.html"/> <openid-login authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="true" default-target-url="/MainPage.html" user-service-ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </http> ... <beans:bean id="someOpenIdUserService" class="com.something.MyOpenIDUserDetailsService"> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="openIdAuthenticationProvider" class="com.something.MyOpenIDAuthenticationProvider"> <custom-authentication-provider /> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </beans:bean> ...

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• How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

  - by spoulson

  The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

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