Search Results

Search found 15651 results on 627 pages for 'setup'.

Page 587/627 | < Previous Page | 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594  | Next Page >

  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

    Read the article

  • Finding contained bordered regions from Excel imports.

    - by dmaruca
    I am importing massive amounts of data from Excel that have various table layouts. I have good enough table detection routines and merge cell handling, but I am running into a problem when it comes to dealing with borders. Namely performance. The bordered regions in some of these files have meaning. Data Setup: I am importing directly from Office Open XML using VB6 and MSXML. The data is parsed from the XML into a dictionary of cell data. This wonks wonderfully and is just as fast as using docmd.transferspreadsheet in Access, but returns much better results. Each cell contains a pointer to a style element which contains a pointer to a border element that defines the visibility and weight of each border (this is how the data is structured inside OpenXML, also). Challenge: What I'm trying to do is find every region that is enclosed inside borders, and create a list of cells that are inside that region. What I have done: I initially created a BFS(breadth first search) fill routine to find these areas. This works wonderfully and fast for "normal" sized spreadsheets, but gets way too slow for imports into the thousands of rows. One problem is that a border in Excel could be stored in the cell you are checking or the opposing border in the adjacent cell. That's ok, I can consolidate that data on import to reduce the number of checks needed. One thing I thought about doing is to create a separate graph that outlines the cells using the borders as my edges and using a graph algorithm to find regions that way, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to implement the algorithm. I've used Dijkstra in the past and thought I could do similar with this. So I can span out using no endpoint to search the entire graph, and if I encounter a closed node I know that I just found an enclosed region, but how can I know if the route I've found is the optimal one? I guess I could flag that to run a separate check for the found closed node to the previous node ignoring that one edge. This could work, but wouldn't be much better performance wise on dense graphs. Can anyone else suggest a better method? Thanks for taking the time to read this.

    Read the article

  • Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

    - by abszero
    I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problem updating through LINQtoSQL in MVC application using StructureMap, Repository Pattern and UoW

    - by matt
    I have an ASP MVC application using LINQ to SQL for data access. I am trying to use the Repository and Unit of Work patterns, with a service layer consuming the repositories and unit of work. I am experiencing a problem when attempting to perform updates on a particular repository. My application architecture is as follows: My service class: public class MyService { private IRepositoryA _RepositoryA; private IRepositoryB _RepositoryB; private IUnitOfWork _unitOfWork; public MyService(IRepositoryA ARepositoryA, IRepositoryB ARepositoryB, IUnitOfWork AUnitOfWork) { _unitOfWork = AUnitOfWork; _RepositoryA = ARepositoryA; _RepositoryB = ARepositoryB; } public PerformActionOnObject(Guid AID) { MyObject obj = _RepositoryA.GetRecords() .WithID(AID); obj.SomeProperty = "Changed to new value"; _RepositoryA.UpdateRecord(obj); _unitOfWork.Save(); } } Repository interface: public interface IRepositoryA { IQueryable<MyObject> GetRecords(); UpdateRecord(MyObject obj); } Repository LINQtoSQL implementation: public class LINQtoSQLRepositoryA : IRepositoryA { private MyDataContext _DBContext; public LINQtoSQLRepositoryA(IUnitOfWork AUnitOfWork) { _DBConext = AUnitOfWork as MyDataContext; } public IQueryable<MyObject> GetRecords() { return from records in _DBContext.MyTable select new MyObject { ID = records.ID, SomeProperty = records.SomeProperty } } public bool UpdateRecord(MyObject AObj) { MyTableRecord record = (from u in _DB.MyTable where u.ID == AObj.ID select u).SingleOrDefault(); if (record == null) { return false; } record.SomeProperty = AObj.SomePropery; return true; } } Unit of work interface: public interface IUnitOfWork { void Save(); } Unit of work implemented in data context extension. public partial class MyDataContext : DataContext, IUnitOfWork { public void Save() { SubmitChanges(); } } StructureMap registry: public class DataServiceRegistry : Registry { public DataServiceRegistry() { // Unit of work For<IUnitOfWork>() .HttpContextScoped() .TheDefault.Is.ConstructedBy(() => new MyDataContext()); // RepositoryA For<IRepositoryA>() .Singleton() .Use<LINQtoSQLRepositoryA>(); // RepositoryB For<IRepositoryB>() .Singleton() .Use<LINQtoSQLRepositoryB>(); } } My problem is that when I call PerformActionOnObject on my service object, the update never fires any SQL. I think this is because the datacontext in the UnitofWork object is different to the one in RepositoryA where the data is changed. So when the service calls Save() on it's IUnitOfWork, the underlying datacontext does not have any updated data so no update SQL is fired. Is there something I've done wrong in the StrutureMap registry setup? Or is there a more fundamental problem with the design? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I add a filter button to this pagination?

    - by ClarkSKent
    Hey, I want to add a button(link), that when clicked will filter the pagination results. I'm new to php (and programming in general) and would like to add a button like 'Automotive' and when clicked it updates the 2 mysql queries in my pagination script, seen here: As you can see, the category automotive is hardcoded in, I want it to be dynamic, so when a link is clicked it places whatever the id or class is in the category part of the query. 1: $record_count = mysql_num_rows(mysql_query("SELECT * FROM explore WHERE category='automotive'")); 2: $get = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM explore WHERE category='automotive' LIMIT $start, $per_page"); This is the entire current php pagination script that I am using: <?php //connecting to the database $error = "Could not connect to the database"; mysql_connect('localhost','root','root') or die($error); mysql_select_db('ajax_demo') or die($error); //max displayed per page $per_page = 2; //get start variable $start = $_GET['start']; //count records $record_count = mysql_num_rows(mysql_query("SELECT * FROM explore WHERE category='automotive'")); //count max pages $max_pages = $record_count / $per_page; //may come out as decimal if (!$start) $start = 0; //display data $get = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM explore WHERE category='automotive' LIMIT $start, $per_page"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($get)) { // get data $name = $row['id']; $age = $row['site_name']; echo $name." (".$age.")<br />"; } //setup prev and next variables $prev = $start - $per_page; $next = $start + $per_page; //show prev button if (!($start<=0)) echo "<a href='pagi_test.php?start=$prev'>Prev</a> "; //show page numbers //set variable for first page $i=1; for ($x=0;$x<$record_count;$x=$x+$per_page) { if ($start!=$x) echo " <a href='pagi_test.php?start=$x'>$i</a> "; else echo " <a href='pagi_test.php?start=$x'><b>$i</b></a> "; $i++; } //show next button if (!($start>=$record_count-$per_page)) echo " <a href='pagi_test.php?start=$next'>Next</a>"; ?>

    Read the article

  • WPF ClickOnce Bootstrap Dection Failure on One Machine

    - by Dexter Morgan
    Hello Friend, I've decided to use ClickOnce technology to deploy my new WPF application. By and large, ClickOnce works as advertised but I've hit a minor glitch regarding Bootstrapping and framework detection. Some background: - I'm using the standard Visual Studio-generated publish.htm page as my launch page. - The only prerequisite is the .NET Framework 4.0 Client Profile. - All clients using IE 8. - All clients already have the .NET 4.0 Client Profile installed. ClickOnce works as advertised on the vast majority of machines. The VS-generated JScript correctly detects that the framework is installed and presents the user with a Run button. The app launches just fine. I'm getting odd results on one of the machines, however. On the offending machine, the VS-generated JScript tells the user that the prereqs may not be installed -- or rather, it FAILS to detect that the framework is already installed. The "launch" link successfully launches the application but the Run link points to the bootstrapper setup.exe. Why is it failing to detect the framework on this one machine? It occurred to me that framework detection is largely a matter of examining the useragent string that's submitted by the browser. So, what you see below are two UserAgent strings. The first is from a machine where things are working properly. The second is from the offending machine. THIS ONE WORKS: 2011-01-11 15:14:14 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 72.130.187.100 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+Media+Center+PC+5.0;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+.NET4.0C) 304 0 0 THIS ONE DOESN'T: 2011-01-11 18:49:12 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 76.212.204.169 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+GTB6.6;+SLCC2;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+Media+Center+PC+6.0;+.NET4.0C) 200 0 0 The useragent string of both machines clearly states, "hey the .NET 4.0 client profile is installed here" -- yet the second machine seems unable to detect it. I don't know enough about useragent strings to understand why the former works and the latter fails. The only difference as far as I can tell is that the offending machine is running 64bit. But that shouldn't make a difference. Should it? Any ideas? Dexter Morgan

    Read the article

  • DB Design Pattern - Many to many classification / categorised tagging.

    - by Robin Day
    I have an existing database design that stores Job Vacancies. The "Vacancy" table has a number of fixed fields across all clients, such as "Title", "Description", "Salary range". There is an EAV design for "Custom" fields that the Clients can setup themselves, such as, "Manager Name", "Working Hours". The field names are stored in a "ClientText" table and the data stored in a "VacancyClientText" table with VacancyId, ClientTextId and Value. Lastly there is a many to many EAV design for custom tagging / categorising the vacancies with things such as Locations/Offices the vacancy is in, a list of skills required. This is stored as a "ClientCategory" table listing the types of tag, "Locations, Skills", a "ClientCategoryItem" table listing the valid values for each Category, e.g., "London,Paris,New York,Rome", "C#,VB,PHP,Python". Finally there is a "VacancyClientCategoryItem" table with VacancyId and ClientCategoryItemId for each of the selected items for the vacancy. There are no limits to the number of custom fields or custom categories that the client can add. I am now designing a new system that is very similar to the existing system, however, I have the ability to restrict the number of custom fields a Client can have and it's being built from scratch so I have no legacy issues to deal with. For the Custom Fields my solution is simple, I have 5 additional columns on the Vacancy Table called CustomField1-5. This removes one of the EAV designs. It is with the tagging / categorising design that I am struggling. If I limit a client to having 5 categories / types of tag. Should I create 5 tables listing the possible values "CustomCategoryItems1-5" and then an additional 5 many to many tables "VacancyCustomCategoryItem1-5" This would result in 10 tables performing the same storage as the three tables in the existing system. Also, should (heaven forbid) the requirements change in that I need 6 custom categories rather than 5 then this will result in a lot of code change. Therefore, can anyone suggest any DB Design Patterns that would be more suitable to storing such data. I'm happy to stick with the EAV approach, however, the existing system has come across all the usual performance issues and complex queries associated with such a design. Any advice / suggestions are much appreciated. The DBMS system used is SQL Server 2005, however, 2008 is an option if required for any particular pattern.

    Read the article

  • Representing xml through a single class

    - by Charles
    I am trying to abstract away the difficulties of configuring an application that we use. This application takes a xml configuration file and it can be a bit bothersome to manually edit this file, especially when we are trying to setup some automatic testing scenarios. I am finding that reading xml is nice, pretty easy, you get a network of element nodes that you can just go through and build your structures quite nicely. However I am slowly finding that the reverse is not quite so nice. I want to be able to build a xml configuration file through a single easy to use interface and because xml is composed of a system of nodes I am having a lot of struggle trying to maintain the 'easy' part. Does anyone know of any examples or samples that easily and intuitively build xml files without declaring a bunch of element type classes and expect the user to build the network themselves? For example if my desired xml output is like so <cook version="1.1"> <recipe name="chocolate chip cookie"> <ingredients> <ingredient name="flour" amount="2" units="cups"/> <ingredient name="eggs" amount="2" units="" /> <ingredient name="cooking chocolate" amount="5" units="cups" /> </ingredients> <directions> <direction name="step 1">Preheat oven</direction> <direction name="step 2">Mix flour, egg, and chocolate</direction> <direction name="step 2">bake</direction> </directions> </recipe> <recipe name="hot dog"> ... How would I go about designing a class to build that network of elements and make one easy to use interface for creating recipes? Right now I have a recipe object, an ingredient object, and a direction object. The user must make each one, set the attributes in the class and attach them to the root object which assembles the xml elements and outputs the formatted xml. Its not very pretty and I just know there has to be a better way. I am using python so bonus points for pythonic solutions

    Read the article

  • Unable to get index from jQuery UI slider range

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm having a hell of a time trying to get (what I thought was) a simple index from a collection of multiple sliders. The HTML is as follows: <div id="left-values" class="line"> <span id="l1" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l2" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l3" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l4" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l5" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l6" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l7" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> <span id="l8" style="padding: 0 1.8em;">0</span> </div> And the jQuery code is: // setup audiometry sliders $("#eq > span").each(function (e) { // read initial values from markup and remove that var value = parseInt($(this).text()); // var index = $(this).index; <- this didn't work. $(this).empty(); $(this).slider({ value: value, slide: function (event, ui) { //console.log($(this).attr('id')); <- neither did this. //console.log(index); $('#left-values span:first').text(ui.value); } }) }); The problem is that jQuery UI - when creating a slider - replaces the existing HTML with its own markup. This includes any ID values and, for whatever reason, I can't get the index for a given slider to surface either. So I'm running out of ideas.

    Read the article

  • devise register confirmation

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a user and an admin role in my project. i created my authentification with devise, really nice and goot tool for handling the authentification. in my admin role i don´t have any confirmation or something like that. it is really simple and doesn´t make problems. but in my user model i have following things: model: devise :database_authenticatable, :confirmable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable, :timeoutable, :registerable # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :username, :prename, :surname, :phone, :street, :number, :location, :password, :password_confirmation and few validations, but they aren´t relevant this time. my migration looks like following one: class DeviseCreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table(:users) do |t| t.database_authenticatable :null = false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable t.timeoutable t.validateable t.string :username t.string :prename t.string :surname t.string :phone t.string :street t.integer :number t.string :location t.timestamps end add_index :users, :email, :unique => true add_index :users, :confirmation_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :reset_password_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :username, :unique => true add_index :users, :prename, :unique => false add_index :users, :surname, :unique => false add_index :users, :phone, :unique => false add_index :users, :street, :unique => false add_index :users, :number, :unique => false add_index :users, :location, :unique => false end def self.down drop_table :users end end into my route.rb I added following statements: map.devise_for :admins map.devise_for :users, :path_names = { :sign_up = "register", :sign_in = "login" } map.root :controller = "main" and now my problem.. if I register a new user, I fill in all my data in the register form and submit it. After that I get redirected to the controller main with the flash-notice "You have signed up successfully." And I am logged in. But I don´t want to be logged in, because I don´t have confirmed my new user account yet. If I open the console I see the last things in the logs and there I see the confirmation-mail and the text and all stuff, but I am already logged in... I can´t explain why, ... does somebody of you have an idea? If I copy out the confirmation-token from the logs and confirm my account, I can log in, but if I don´t confirm, I also can log in..

    Read the article

  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

    Read the article

  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

    - by MikeH
    I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

    Read the article

  • NHibernate unable to create SessionFactory

    - by Tyler
    I'm having a bit of trouble setting up NHibernate, and I'm not too sure what the problem is exactly. I'm attempting to save a domain object to the database (Oracle 10g XE). However, I'm getting a TypeInitializationException while trying to create the ISessionFactory. Here is what my hibernate.cfg.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="MyProject.DataAccess"> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=myid;Password=mypassword;Data Source=localhost </property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.OracleDialect</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <mapping resource="MyProject/Domain/User.hbm.xml"/> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a DAO which I will use to persist domain objects to the database. The DAO uses a HibernateUtil class that creates the SessionFactory. Both classes are in the DataAccess namespace along with the Hibernate configuration. This is where the exception is occuring. Here's that class: public class HibernateUtil { private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = BuildSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory BuildSessionFactory() { try { // This seems to be where the problem occurs return new Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } catch (TypeInitializationException ex) { Console.WriteLine("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new Exception("Unable to create SessionFactory."); } } public static ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return SessionFactory; } } The DataAccess namespace references the NHibernate DLLs. This is virtually the same setup I've used with Hibernate in Java, so I'm not entirely sure what I'm doing wrong here. Any ideas? Edit The innermost exception is the following: "Could not find file 'C:\Users\Tyler\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject\ConsoleApplication\bin\Debug\hibernate.cfg.xml'." ConsoleApplication contains the entry point where I've created a User object and am trying to persist it with my DAO. Why is it looking for the configuration file there? The actual persisting takes place in the DAO, which is in DataAccess. Also, when I add the configuration file to ConsoleApplication, it still does not find it.

    Read the article

  • I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

    - by Handleman
    According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

    Read the article

  • UIScrollView does not scroll

    - by Preston Cheung
    I got a problem about UIScrollView. I am making a custom view which inherits UIView. The view has a UIScrollView on which there are lots of buttons which should scroll left and right. The UIScrollView and buttons can show normally. But I cannot scroll the buttons. Could someone give me some suggestions? Thanks a lot! MZMPhotoCalenderSwitcher.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MZMPhotoCalenderSwitcher : UIView <UIScrollViewDelegate> @property (strong, nonatomic) UIScrollView *topSwitcher; @end MZMPhotoCalenderSwitcher.m - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view. self.topSwitcher = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, LABEL_HEIGHT + VIEW_Y, self.view.bounds.size.width, TOP_SWITCHER_HEIGHT)]; self.topSwitcher.backgroundColor = [UIColor greenColor]; self.topSwitcher.pagingEnabled = YES; self.topSwitcher.showsHorizontalScrollIndicator = NO; self.topSwitcher.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = NO; [self add:3 ButtonsOnView:self.topSwitcher withButtonWidth:44.8f andHeight:20.0f]; } - (void)add:(int)num ButtonsOnView:(UIScrollView *)view withButtonWidth:(CGFloat)width andHeight:(CGFloat)height { CGFloat totalTopSwitcherWidth = num * width; [view setContentSize:CGSizeMake(totalTopSwitcherWidth, view.bounds.size.height)]; CGFloat xOffset = 0.0f; for (int i=1; i<=num; i++) { UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [button setFrame:CGRectMake(xOffset, 0, width, height)]; xOffset += width; [button setTitle:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", i] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; button.titleLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:10]; [button setTitleColor:[UIColor blueColor] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button setTitleColor:[UIColor blackColor] forState:UIControlStateSelected]; [button setTag:i]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonEvent) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; if (i % 2 == 0) [button setBackgroundColor:[UIColor yellowColor]]; else [button setBackgroundColor:[UIColor redColor]]; [view addSubview:button]; } }

    Read the article

  • Rails 3: How do I call a javascript function from a js.erb file

    - by user321775
    Now that I've upgraded to Rails 3, I'm trying to figure out the proper way to separate and reuse pieces of javascript. Here's the scenario I'm dealing with: I have a page with two areas: one with elements that should be draggable, the other with droppables. When the page loads I use jQuery to setup the draggables and droppables. Currently I have the script in the head portion of application.html.erb, which I'm sure is not the right solution but at least works. When I press a button on the page, an ajax call is made to my controller that replaces the draggables with a new set of elements that should also be draggable. I have a js.erb file that renders a partial in the correct location. After rendering I need to make the new elements draggable, so I'd like to reuse the code that currently lives in application.html.erb, but I haven't found the right way to do it. I can only make the new elements draggable by pasting the code directly into my js.erb file (yuck). What I'd like to have: - a javascript file that contains the functions prepdraggables() and prepdroppables() - a way to call either function from application.html.erb or from a js.erb file I've tried using :content_for to store and reuse the code, but can't seem to get it working correctly. What I currently have in the head section of application.html.erb <% content_for :drag_drop_prep do %> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function () { // declare all DOM elements with class draggable to be draggable $( ".draggable" ).draggable( { revert : 'invalid' }); // declare all DOM elements with class legal to be droppable $(".legal").droppable({ hoverClass : 'legal_hover', drop : function(event, ui) { var c = new Object(); c['die'] = ui.draggable.attr("id"); c['cell'] = $(this).attr("id"); c['authenticity_token'] = encodeURIComponent(window._token); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/placeDie", data: c, timeout: 5000 }); }}); }); </script> <% end %> undo.js.erb $("#board").html("<%= escape_javascript(render :partial => 'shared/board', :locals => { :playable => true, :restartable => !session[:challenge]}) %>") // This is where I want to prepare draggables. <%= javascript_include_tag "customdragdrop.js" %> // assuming this file had the draggables code from above in a prepdraggables() function prepdraggables();

    Read the article

  • HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

    - by Keith Barrows
    We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

    Read the article

  • Load/Store Objects in file in Java

    - by brain_damage
    I want to store an object from my class in file, and after that to be able to load the object from this file. But somewhere I am making a mistake(s) and cannot figure out where. May I receive some help? public class GameManagerSystem implements GameManager, Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -5966618586666474164L; HashMap<Game, GameStatus> games; HashMap<Ticket, ArrayList<Object>> baggage; HashSet<Ticket> bookedTickets; Place place; public GameManagerSystem(Place place) { super(); this.games = new HashMap<Game, GameStatus>(); this.baggage = new HashMap<Ticket, ArrayList<Object>>(); this.bookedTickets = new HashSet<Ticket>(); this.place = place; } public static GameManager createManagerSystem(Game at) { return new GameManagerSystem(at); } public boolean store(File f) { try { FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(f); ObjectOutputStream oos = new ObjectOutputStream(fos); oos.writeObject(games); oos.writeObject(bookedTickets); oos.writeObject(baggage); oos.close(); fos.close(); } catch (IOException ex) { return false; } return true; } public boolean load(File f) { try { FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream(f); ObjectInputStream ois = new ObjectInputStream(fis); this.games = (HashMap<Game,GameStatus>)ois.readObject(); this.bookedTickets = (HashSet<Ticket>)ois.readObject(); this.baggage = (HashMap<Ticket,ArrayList<Object>>)ois.readObject(); ois.close(); fis.close(); } catch (IOException e) { return false; } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { return false; } return true; } . . . } public class JUnitDemo { GameManager manager; @Before public void setUp() { manager = GameManagerSystem.createManagerSystem(Place.ENG); } @Test public void testStore() { Game g = new Game(new Date(), Teams.LIONS, Teams.SHARKS); manager.registerGame(g); File file = new File("file.ser"); assertTrue(airport.store(file)); } }

    Read the article

  • Adding user role constraint redirects Browser to jsf.js script?

    - by simgineer
    My JSF form login was working with Constraint 1 however when I added Constraint 2 to my web.xml doing a submit on the form now takes me to a jsf javascript page. Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong? I would like only administrators to be able to access the /admin/* pages and only registered users to access the entire site included admin files. BTW after I see the java script page I can still navigate to the intended page in the browser, I just don't want the user to see the intermediate js page or need to know the target page URL. Constraint 1 <security-constraint> <display-name>Admin</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <url-pattern>/admin/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>ADMIN</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Constraint 2 <security-constraint> <display-name>Users</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>USER</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Here is the undesired url I am being redirected to: javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces&stage=Development Here is the start of the jsf.js.xhtml... /** @project JSF JavaScript Library @version 2.0 @description This is the standard implementation of the JSF JavaScript Library. */ /** * Register with OpenAjax */ if (typeof OpenAjax !== "undefined" && typeof OpenAjax.hub.registerLibrary !== "undefined") { OpenAjax.hub.registerLibrary("jsf", "www.sun.com", "2.0", null); } // Detect if this is already loaded, and if loaded, if it's a higher version if (!((jsf && jsf.specversion && jsf.specversion >= 20000 ) && (jsf.implversion && jsf.implversion >= 3))) { ... Notes I'm using Firefox 10.0.4, Glassfish 3.1 w JSF2.0 lib, j_security_check, and my login realm setup is similar to this

    Read the article

  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

    Read the article

  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

    Read the article

  • JPanels, JFrames, and Windows, Oh my!

    - by Jonathan
    Simply stated, I am trying to make a game I am working on full-screen. I have the following code I am trying to use: GraphicsEnvironment ge = GraphicsEnvironment.getLocalGraphicsEnvironment(); GraphicsDevice gs = ge.getDefaultScreenDevice(); if(!gs.isFullScreenSupported()) { System.out.println("full-screen not supported"); } Frame frame = new Frame(gs.getDefaultConfiguration()); Window win = new Window(frame); try { // Enter full-screen mode gs.setFullScreenWindow(win); win.validate(); } Problem with this is that I am working within a class that extends JPanel, and while I have a variable of type Frame, I have none of type Window within the class. My understanding of JPanel is that it is a Window of sorts, but I cannot pass 'this' into gs.setFullScreenWindow(Window win)... How should I go about doing this? Is there any easy way of calling that, or a similar method, using a JPanel? Is there a way I can get something of type Window from my JPanel? - EDIT: The following method changes the state of JFrame and is called every 10ms: public void paintScreen() { Graphics g; try{ g = this.getGraphics(); //get Panel's graphic context if(g == null) { frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setExtendedState(frame.getExtendedState()|JFrame.MAXIMIZED_BOTH); frame.add(this); frame.pack(); frame.setResizable(false); frame.setTitle("Game Window"); frame.setVisible(true); } if((g != null) && (dbImage != null)) { g.drawImage(dbImage, 0, 0, null); } Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().sync(); //sync the display on some systems g.dispose(); } catch (Exception e) { if(blockError) { blockError = false; } else { System.out.println("Graphics context error: " + e); } } } I anticipate that there may be a few redundancies or unnecessary calls after the if(g==null) statement (all the frame.somethingOrOther()s), any cleanup advice would be appreciated... Also, the block error is what it seems. I am ignoring an error. The error only occurs once, and this works fine when setup to ignore the first instance of the error... For anyone interested I can post additional info there if anyone wants to see if that block can be removed, but i'm not concerned... I might look into it later.

    Read the article

  • What are the steps to convert this function to a model/controller in Zend Framework?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm learning Zend Framework MVC, and I have a website that is mainly static php pages. However one of the pages is using functions, etc, and I'm trying to figure out what the process is for converting this to an OOP setup. Within the <body> I have this function (and more, but this is the first function): function filterEventDetails($contentText) { $data = array(); foreach($contentText as $row) { if(strstr($row, 'When: ')) { ##cleaning "when" string to get date in the format "May 28, 2009"## $data['duration'] = str_replace('When: ','',$row); list($when, ) = explode(' to ',$data['duration']); $data['when'] = substr($when,4); if(strlen($data['when'])>13) $data['when'] = trim(str_replace(strrchr($data['when'], ' '),'',$data['when'])); $data['duration'] = substr($data['duration'], 0, strlen($data['duration'])-4); //trimming time zone identifier (UTC etc.) } if(strstr($row, 'Where: ')) { $data['where'] = str_replace('Where: ','',$row); //pr($row); //$where = strstr($row, 'Where: '); //pr($where); } if(strstr($row, 'Event Description: ')) { $event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$row); //$event_desc = strstr($row, 'Event Description: '); ## Filtering event description and extracting venue, ticket urls etc from it. //$event_desc = str_replace('Event Description: ','',$contentText[3]); $event_desc_array = explode('|',$event_desc); array_walk($event_desc_array,'get_desc_second_part'); //pr($event_desc_array); $data['venue_url'] = $event_desc_array[0]; $data['details'] = $event_desc_array[1]; $data['tickets_url'] = $event_desc_array[2]; $data['tickets_button'] = $event_desc_array[3]; $data['facebook_url'] = $event_desc_array[4]; $data['facebook_icon'] = $event_desc_array[5]; } } return $data; } ?> So right now I have this in my example.phtml view page. I understand this needs to be a model and acted on by the controller, but I'm really not sure where to start with this conversion? This is a function tht is taking info from a Google calendar and parsing it for the view. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Pure sine wave inverter

    - by Nick
    Not exactly programming (sorry) but I think it's pretty close and can be of interest to other programmers. I'm trying to setup a battery power station so that I can work from anywhere. I go surfing a lot and my idea is to be able to work from wherever I can park my car (given there's coverage). So, I'm getting a deep cycle battery, a 240V charger (I'm in Australia), and an inverter. At the back of my laptop it says 19V and 4.62A. From the people I've spoken to that means it consumes about 90W at most. So my inverter needs to be able to output about 100W. Most of them seem to be 200W and up so this shouldn't be a problem. I want to be able run my laptop for 10 hours (plus the 2 hours I get from the laptop battery) straight. According to the people I've spoken to and from what I gather online I need a battery that has the amp hours for my "amp draw". I have no idea how to calculate this but I've been guesstimating. Most deep cycle batteries seem to be classified using amp hours (Ah)... 35Ah, 50Ah, 75Ah, 100Ah, and so on. However the amp hours on those batteries is for a 240V and I seem to be using 19V. According to an expert I spoke to you'd need a 100Ah battery to power a 5A appliance at 240V for 10 hours (you only get about 50% useful power). That to me is 5A * 240V = 100Ah battery. So, naive as I might be I take 240V and divide that by my 19V and reach the conclusion that I can get away with a battery that's about 12 times smaller than that 100Ah. The expert told me I needed a 50Ah battery so that's probably what I'll be getting, but it would be interesting to know what I theoretically would need to power my laptop for 10 hours. As for charging the battery the expert I spoke to said I needed a 3-5A charger to be able to charge that 50Ah battery from flat to full in about 10 hours (I will just leave it plugged in over night). Now to my question. The expert said it's not a matter of "if" more like a guaranteed "when" my computer will stuff up if I don't use a "pure sine wave inverter". From what I gather the power that comes out of that battery is not as clean as the power we get in the socket at home. Apparently it's "square" and the one in the socket is nice and smooth. I've already got an inverter, but it's not "pure". Do I really need to buy the $200-300 pure sine wave inverter or can I get away with something else? Perhaps the laptop adapter that sits in the middle of my laptop power cable already fixes that wave to be nice and smooth? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590 591 592 593 594  | Next Page >