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Silverlight and Encryption, how to store/generate they key/iv pair?

- by cmaduro

I have a Silverlight app that connects to a php webservice. I want to encrypt the communication between the webservice and the Silverlight client. I'm not relying on SSL. I'm encrypting/decrypting the POST string myself using AES 256bit Key and IV. The big questions then are: How do I generate a random unique key/iv pair in PHP. How do I share this key/iv pair between the web service and silverlight client in a secure way. It seems impossible without having some kind of hard coded key or iv on the client. Which would compromise security. This is a public website, there are no logins. Just the requirement of secure communication. I can hard code the seed for the key/iv (which is hashed with SHA256 with a time stamp salt and then assigned as the key or iv) in PHP source code, that's on the server so that is pretty safe. However on the client the seed for the key/iv pair would be visible, if it is hard coded. Further more using a time stamp as the basis for uniqueness/randomness is definitely not ok, since timestamps are predictable. It does however provide a common factor between the C# code and the PHP code. The only other option that I can think of would be to have a 3rd service involved that provides the key/iv to the Silverlight client, as well as the php webservice. This of course start the cycle anew, with the question of how to store the credentials for accessing the key/iv distribution service on the Silverlight client. Sounds like the solution is then asymmetric encryption, since sensitive data will be viewed only on the administrative back end of the website. Unfortunately Silverlight has no asymmetric encryption classes. The solution? Roll my own Diffie-Hellman key exchange! Plug that key into AES256!

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Handle URI hacking gracefully in ASP.NET

- by asbjornu

I've written an application that handles most exceptions gracefully, with the page's design intact and a pretty error message. My application catches them all in the Page_Error event and there adds the exception to HttpContext.Curent.Context.Items and then does a Server.Transfer to an Error.aspx page. I find this to be the only viable solution in ASP.NET as there seems to be no other way to do it in a centralized and generic manner. I also handle the Application_Error and there I do some inspection on the exception that occurred to find out if I can handle it gracefully or not. Exceptions I've found I can handle gracefully are such that are thrown after someone hacking the URI to contain characters the .NET framework considers dangerous or basically just illegal at the file system level. Such URIs can look like e.g.: http://exmample.com/"illegal" http://example.com/illegal"/ http://example.com/illegal / (notice the space before the slash at the end of the last URI). I'd like these URIs to respond with a "404 Not Found" and a friendly message as well as not causing any error report to be sent to avoid DDOS attack vectors and such. I have, however, not found an elegant way to catch these types of errors. What I do now is inspect the exception.TargetSite.Name property, and if it's equal to CheckInvalidPathChars, ValidatePath or CheckSuspiciousPhysicalPath, I consider it a "path validation exception" and respond with a 404. This seems like a hack, though. First, the list of method names is probably not complete in any way and second, there's the possibility that these method names gets replaced or renamed down the line which will cause my code to break. Does anyone have an idea how I can handle this less hard-coded and much more future-proof way? PS: I'm using System.Web.Routing in my application to have clean and sensible URIs, if that is of any importance to any given solution.

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How to programmatically start a WPF application from a unit test?

- by Lernkurve

Problem VS2010 and TFS2010 support creating so-called Coded UI Tests. All the demos I have found, start with the WPF application already running in the background when the Coded UI Test begins or the EXE is started using the absolute path to it. I, however, would like to start my WPF application under test from the unit test code. That way it'll also work on the build server and on my peer's working copies. How do I accomplish that? My discoveries so far a) This post shows how to start a XAML window. But that's not what I want. I want to start the App.xaml because it contains XAML resources and there is application logic in the code behind file. b) The second screenshot on this post shows a line starting with ApplicationUnterTest calculatorWindow = ApplicationUnderTest.Launch(...); which is conceptually pretty much what I am looking for, except that again this example uses an absolute path the the executable file. c) A Google search for "Programmatically start WPF" didn't help either.

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WebRequest.Create problem

- by Saurabh

My requirement is downlaoding a HTTM page. Like and I am using WebRequest.Create. But the line HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create("http://www.mayosoftware.com"); Is throwinh an exception {"Configuration system failed to initialize"}. I am working in a compmany. Does it due to proxy or anything? But it’s occurring while creation of the URL it self. Exception trace is: at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.PrepareConfigSystem() at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.PrivilegedConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Net.Configuration.WebRequestModulesSectionInternal.GetSection() at System.Net.WebRequest.get_PrefixList() at System.Net.WebRequest.Create(Uri requestUri, Boolean useUriBase) Code is like void GetHTTPReq() { Looking forward on it. The complete code is as follows but problem is in the starting itself : \ // used to build entire input StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); // used on each read operation byte[] buf = new byte[8192]; // prepare the web page we will be asking for HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create("http://www.mayosoftware.com"); // execute the request HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse) request.GetResponse(); // we will read data via the response stream Stream resStream = response.GetResponseStream(); string tempString = null; int count = 0; do { // fill the buffer with data count = resStream.Read(buf, 0, buf.Length); // make sure we read some data if (count != 0) { // translate from bytes to ASCII text tempString = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buf, 0, count); // continue building the string sb.Append(tempString); } } while (count > 0); // any more data to read? // print out page source Console.WriteLine(sb.ToString()); }

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Invoking WCF functions using Reflection

- by Jankhana

I am pretty new to WCF applications. I have a WCF application that is using NetTcpBinding. I wanted to invoke the functions in WCF service using the System.Reflection's Methodbase Invoke method. I mean I wanted to Dynamically call the Function by passing the String as the Function name. Reflection works great for Web Service or a Windows application or any dll or class. So their is certain way to do this for WCF also but I am not able to find that. I am getting the Assembly Name than it's type everything fine but as we cannot create an instance of the Interface class I tried to open the WCF connection using the binding and tried to pass that object but it's throwing the exception as : "Object does not match target type." I have opened the connection and passed the object and type is of interface only. I don't know whether I'm trying wrong thing or in wrong way. Any idea how shall I accomplish this??? The NetTCPBinding all are properly given while opening the connection. And one more thing I am using WCF as a Windows Service using NETTCPBinding.

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Returning Meaningful Exceptions from a WCF Project

- by MissingLinq

I am pretty new to WCF in general. What little experience I have comes from using fairly simple .SVC services in ASP.NET web applications. I tried experimenting with using a WCF Project for the first time, and ran into a major show-stopper. As I’m sure most are aware, for some strange reason, in a web application in which the customErrors mode is set to On , services (both .ASMX and .SVC) will not return exception details to the client. Instead, the exception and stack trace are emptied, and the message always reads “There was an error processing the request”, which is not at all helpful. When services are directly hosted inside the web application itself, it’s easy to work around this restriction by placing the services in a dedicated folder, and setting for that folder. However, I’m running into this same issue with exceptions not being returned from services that live in a separate WCF project. Thing is, I don’t know how to work around that. In a nutshell: I need to get my WCF Project services to bubble REAL exceptions to the client – or at least, the original exception message, instead of “There was an error processing the request”.

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Creating ViewResults outside of Controllers in ASP.NET MVC

- by Craig Walker

Several of my controller actions have a standard set of failure-handling behavior. In general, I want to: Load an object based on the Route Data (IDs and the like) If the Route Data does not point to a valid object (ex: through URL hacking) then inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 404 Not Found Validate that the current user has the proper permissions on the object If the user doesn't have permission, inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 403 Forbidden If the above is successful, then do something with that object that's action-specific (ie: render it in a view). These steps are so standardized that I want to have reusable code to implement the behavior. My current plan of attack was to have a helper method to do something like this: public static ActionResult HandleMyObject(this Controller controller, Func<MyObject,ActionResult> onSuccess) { var myObject = MyObject.LoadFrom(controller.RouteData). if ( myObject == null ) return NotFound(controller); if ( myObject.IsNotAllowed(controller.User)) return NotAllowed(controller); return onSuccess(myObject); } # NotAllowed() is pretty much the same as this public static NotFound(Controller controller){ controller.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 404 # NotFound.aspx is a shared view. ViewResult result = controller.View("NotFound"); return result; } The problem here is that Controller.View() is a protected method and so is not accessible from a helper. I've looked at creating a new ViewResult instance explicitly, but there's enough properties to set that I'm wary about doing so without knowing the pitfalls first. What's the best way to create a ViewResult from outside a particular Controller?

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Using Google Maps v3, PHP and Json to plot markers

- by bateman_ap

Hi, I am creating a map using the new(ish) v3 of the Google Maps API I have managed to get a map displaying using code as below: var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(50.8194000,-0.1363000); var myOptions = { zoom: 14, center: myLatlng, mapTypeControl: false, scrollwheel: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("location-map"), myOptions); However I now want to add a number of markers I have stored in a PHP array. The Array currently looks like this if I print it out to screen: Array ( [0] => Array ( [poiUid] => 20 [poiName] => Brighton Cineworld [poiCode] => brighton-cineworld [poiLon] => -0.100450 [poiLat] => 50.810780 [poiType] => Cinemas ) [1] => Array ( [poiUid] => 21 [poiName] => Brighton Odeon [poiCode] => brighton-odeon [poiLon] => -0.144420 [poiLat] => 50.821860 [poiType] => Cinemas ) ) All the reading I have done so far suggests I turn this into JSON by using json_encode If I run the Array though this and echo it to the screen I get: [{"poiUid":"20","poiName":"Brighton Cineworld","poiCode":"brighton-cineworld","poiLon":"-0.100450","poiLat":"50.810780","poiType":"Cinemas"},{"poiUid":"21","poiName":"Brighton Odeon","poiCode":"brighton-odeon","poiLon":"-0.144420","poiLat":"50.821860","poiType":"Cinemas"}] The bit now is where I am struggling, I am not sure the encoded array is what I need to start populating markers, I think I need something like the code below but not sure how to add the markers from my passed through JSON var locations = $jsonPoiArray; for (var i = 0;i < locations.length; i += 1) { // Create a new marker };

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Using FluentValidation with Castle Windsor and Entity Framework 4.0 (POCO) in MVC2

- by Brian McCord

This isn't a very simple question, but hopefully someone has run across it. I am trying to get the following things working together: MVC2 FluentValidation Entity Framework 4.0 (POCO) Castle Windsor I've pretty much gotten everything working. I have Castle Windsor implemented and working with the Controllers being served up by the WindsorControllerFactory that is part of MVCContrib. I also have Castle serving up the FluentValidation validators as is described by this article: http://www.jeremyskinner.co.uk/2010/02/22/using-fluentvalidation-with-an-ioc-container/ My problem comes in when I try to use Html.EditorForModel or EditorFor on a view. When I try to do that I get this error message: No component for supporting the service FluentValidation.IValidator`1[[System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.State_71C51A42554BA6C3CF05105DA05435AD209602C217FC4C34CA52ACEA2B06B99B, EntityFrameworkDynamicProxies-BrindleyInsurance.BusinessObjects, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null]] was found This is due to using the POCO generation on Entity Framework 4.0. At runtime, the generated classes get wrapped with a Dynamic Proxy so tracking and lazy loading can happen. Apparently, when using EditorForModel or EditorFor, it tries to ask Windsor to create a validator for the dynamic proxy type instead of the underlying real type. Does anyone know what I can do to solve this issue?

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Code Golf: Collatz Conjecture

- by Earlz

Inspired by http://xkcd.com/710/ here is a code golf for it. The Challenge Given a positive integer greater than 0, print out the hailstone sequence for that number. The Hailstone Sequence See Wikipedia for more detail.. If the number is even, divide it by two. If the number is odd, triple it and add one. Repeat this with the number produced until it reaches 1. (if it continues after 1, it will go in an infinite loop of 1 -> 4 -> 2 -> 1...) Sometimes code is the best way to explain, so here is some from Wikipedia function collatz(n) show n if n > 1 if n is odd call collatz(3n + 1) else call collatz(n / 2) This code works, but I am adding on an extra challenge. The program must not be vulnerable to stack overflows. So it must either use iteration or tail recursion. Also, bonus points for if it can calculate big numbers and the language does not already have it implemented. (or if you reimplement big number support using fixed-length integers) Test case Number: 21 Results: 21 -> 64 -> 32 -> 16 -> 8 -> 4 -> 2 -> 1 Number: 3 Results: 3 -> 10 -> 5 -> 16 -> 8 -> 4 -> 2 -> 1 Also, the code golf must include full user input and output.

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Strings in array are no longer strings after jQuery.each()

- by Álvaro G. Vicario

I'm pretty confused with the behaviour of arrays of strings when I loop them through the jQuery.each() method. Apparently, the strings become jQuery objects inside the callback function. However, I cannot use the this.get() method to obtain the original string; doing so triggers a this.get is not a function error message. I suppose the reason is that it's not a DOM node. I can do $(this).get() but it makes my string become an array (from "foo" to ["f", "o", "o"]). How can I cast it back to string? I need to get a variable of String type because I pass it to other functions that compare the values among them. I enclose a self-contained test case (requires Firebug's console): <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

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How do I convert some ugly inline javascript into a function?

- by Taylor

I've got a form with various inputs that by default have no value. When a user changes one or more of the inputs all values including the blank ones are used in the URL GET string when submitted. So to clean it up I've got some javascript that removes the inputs before submission. It works well enough but I was wondering how to put this in a js function or tidy it up. Seems a bit messy to have it all clumped in to an onclick. Plus i'm going to be adding more so there will be quite a few. Here's the relevant code. There are 3 seperate lines for 3 seperate inputs. The first part of the line has a value that refers to the inputs ID ("mf","cf","bf","pf") and the second part of the line refers to the parent div ("dmf","dcf", etc). The first part is an example of the input structure... echo "<div id='dmf'><select id='mf' name='mFilter'>"; This part is the submit and js... echo "<input type='submit' value='Apply' onclick='javascript: if (document.getElementById(\"mf\").value==\"\") { document.getElementById(\"dmf\").innerHTML=\"\"; } if (document.getElementById(\"cf\").value==\"\") { document.getElementById(\"dcf\").innerHTML=\"\"; } if (document.getElementById(\"bf\").value==\"\") { document.getElementById(\"dbf\").innerHTML=\"\"; } if (document.getElementById(\"pf\").value==\"\") { document.getElementById(\"dpf\").innerHTML=\"\"; } ' />"; I have pretty much zero javascript knowledge so help turning this in to a neater function or similar would be much appreciated.

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Using a UITextView in a UITableViewCell with a UIKeyboard

- by Luther Baker

I have a simple UITableView that has two cells. Cell 0:0 consists of a UITextField we'll call the title and Cell 0:1 consists of a UITextView we'll simply call a note. Cell 0:0 (the text field) is a standard size, one row cell. I'm therefore trying to fill the rest of the screen up with Cell 0:1 so I return a larger height for it. This all displays just fine and I'm using most of the iPhone real estate pretty efficiently at this point. Now, when a user wants to edit one of these cells, he need only click in the appropriate textfield or textview. If a user clicks in the textfield of Cell 0:0, all is well and the keyboard slides up from the bottom. My problem occurs when a user clicks into the the textview (Cell 0:1). No matter what I try, the UITableView wants to slide the entire table view up and that generally put the UITextView in Cell 0:1 halfway out of sight. What I want to do is two fold, I'm registered for when the keyboard will appear and in that method, I'd like to shrink the UITextView in Cell 0:1 as well as shrink the UITableViewCell itself so that the keyboard doesn't have to be smart and think it has to slide the UITableViewCell into view. Unfortunately, no matter what I try, the UITableView slides up. I just want the UITableView to stand still and I want the cell to animate up/shorter with the keyboard. It appears that, by the time the keyboard is actually animating into the screen - it is to late to adjust the cell size. The UIKit has already made up it's mind that it is going to scroll the UITableView.

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Any task-control algorithms programming practices?

- by NumberFour

Hi, I was just wondering if there's any field which concerns the task-control programming (or at least that's the way I call it). For a better explanation of task-control consider the following scenario: An application (master-thread) waits for a command - which might be a particular action or a set of actions the application should perform. When a command is received the master-thread creates a task (= spawns an independent thread which actually does the action) and adds a record in it's task-list - thus keeping track of the time of execution, thread handle, task priority...etc. The master-thread awaits for any other incoming commands while taking care of all the tasks - e.g: kills tasks running too long, prioritizes tasks with higher priorities, kills a task on a request of another task, limits the number of currently running tasks, allows task scheduling, cleans finished tasks (threads) and so on. The model is pretty similar to what we can see in OS dealing with running processes. Are there any good practices programming such task-models or is there some theoretical work done in this field? Maybe my question is too generalized, but at least I wanted to know whether there are any experiences working on such models or if there's a better approach. Thanks for any answers.

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BizTalk WCF Service

- by WtFudgE

Hi, I am getting an error in my event viewer after deploying a wcf service on our server. The Messaging Engine received an error from transport adapter "WCF-BasicHttp" when notifying the adapter with the BatchComplete event. Reason "Value does not fall within the expected range.". The thing is, this service was running before and worked fine. I just modified a schema a bit, undeployed the service and redeployed. When I then talk to this service the event viewer shows me this message. If I deploy the same service locally it works fine. Also if I browse to my service with explorer it shows no errors. Normally when the receive location is wrong or the used user isn't in the isolated biztalk usergroup it gives an error here, but this isn't the case. Anyone have any idea what I should do? My problem is pretty urgent.. I googled my errormessage but without much success. Thanks yall

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Binding a DropDownList in ListView InsertItemTemplate throwing an error

- by Telos

I've got a ListView which binds to a LinqDataSource and displays selected locations. The insert item Contains a dropdownlist that pulls from another LinqDataSource to give all the unselected locations. The problem is that I get the following error when loading the page: Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control. I'm doing a very similar setup in another page of the website, and it isn't giving us this error so I'm pretty confused. I know I can work around this by not binding, manually finding the control and getting the value, but this should work and I don't understand why it isn't. Any thoughts? The better part of the source code is below. <asp:LinqDataSource ID="ldsLocations" runat="server" ContextTypeName="ClearviewInterface.ESLinqDataContext" EnableDelete="true" EnableInsert="true" OnInserting="ldsLocations_Inserting" OnDeleting="ldsLocations_Deleting" TableName="crmLocations" OrderBy="addr1" OnSelecting="ldsLocations_Selecting" /> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="ldsFreeLocations" runat="server" ContextTypeName="ClearviewInterface.ESLinqDataContext" OrderBy="addr1" TableName="v_CVLocations" OnSelecting="ldsFreeLocations_Selecting" /> <asp:ListView ID="lvLocations" DataSourceID="ldsLocations" DataKeyNames="ID" InsertItemPosition="LastItem" runat="server" > <InsertItemTemplate> <tr> <td colspan="6"><hr /></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlFreeLocations" DataSourceID="ldsFreeLocations" DataTextField="addr1" DataValueField="record" MarkFirstMatch="true" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("record") %>' runat="server" /> </td> <td><asp:ImageButton ID="btnAdd" CommandName="Insert" SkinID="Insert" runat="server" /></td> </tr> </InsertItemTemplate>

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antlr grammar multiple alternatives

- by joe

I have this simple grammar for a C# like syntax. I can't figure out any way to separate fields and methods. All the examples I've seen for parsing C# combine fields and methods in the same rule. I would like to split them up as my synatx is pretty simple. grammar test; options { language =CSharp2; k = 3; output = AST; } SEMI : ';' ; LCURLY : '{' ; RCURLY : '}' ; LPAREN : '(' ; RPAREN : ')' ; DOT :'.'; IDENTIFIER : ( 'a'..'z' | 'A'..'Z' | '_' ) ( 'a'..'z' | 'A'..'Z' | '_' | '0'..'9' )* ; namespaceName : IDENTIFIER (DOT IDENTIFIER)* ; classDecl : 'class' IDENTIFIER LCURLY (fieldDecl | methodDecl)* RCURLY ; fieldDecl : namespaceName IDENTIFIER SEMI; methodDecl : namespaceName IDENTIFIER LPAREN RPAREN SEMI; I always end up wit this warning Decision can match input such as "IDENTIFIER DOT IDENTIFIER" using multiple alternatives: 1, 2

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Help with stock ticker style scrolling using Core Animation

- by Glen Harding

Hi, I'm looking for some guidance on the best way to implement stock ticker style right-to-left scrolling of CALayers in Core Animation on OSX. I'm pretty new to Cocoa and don't know the best way to implement this. I have a continuous stream of news items and stock details that I turn into CALayers (made up of 1 image and a CATextLayer) and I want to animate the CALayers from right to left of my custom view. The news and stock information is constantly updating so I would like to add 1 item at a time to the view, scroll it right to left until the right-most point of the CALayer is showing, then add another CALayer to the view and start scrolling that as well. I would like to do this dynamic updating instead of taking a big snapshot of all my data, turning it into a big horizontal CALayer and scrolling that. I'm looking for guidance on how to achieve this sort of effect - do I manually animate each new CALayer along a path in the view? Or should I be using CAScrollLayer to achieve this effect? Many thanks Glen.

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FullCalendar and events: function

- by Ernest

I am trying to display my events from a MySQL database. I'm using the events function. My XML file being returned is pretty basic. I've looked at all of the FullCalendar questions and most of them talk about JSON and point to the documentation for JSON. I can't use JSON. I have to go XML. Can you tell me where I'm off. Here is a sample of what my xml looks like: Grow Your Business on the Web 2010-06-05T9:30 2010-06-05T12:30 O The whole file is prefaced with a tag and closed with a tag. My jquery is as follows: $(document).ready(function() { $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ height: 550, theme: true, header: { left: 'prev,next today', center: 'title', right: 'month,agendaWeek,agendaDay' }, editable: true, events: function(start, end, callback) { $.ajax({ url: 'ncludeFiles/sbdp-cal-xml.php', dataType: 'xml', data: { // our hypothetical feed requires UNIX timestamps start: Math.round(start.getTime() / 1000), end: Math.round(end.getTime() / 1000) }, success: function(doc) { var events = []; $(doc).find('event').each(function() { events.push({ title: $(this).attr('title'), start: $(this).attr('start'), end: $(this).attr('end'), className: $(this).attr('className'), url: $(this).attr('url') }); }); callback(events); } }); } }); }); I'd appreciate any help you could give me. Thanks!

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Relation between [[Prototype]] and prototype in JavaScript

- by Claudiu

From http://www.jibbering.com/faq/faq_notes/closures.html : Note: ECMAScript defines an internal [[prototype]] property of the internal Object type. This property is not directly accessible with scripts, but it is the chain of objects referred to with the internal [[prototype]] property that is used in property accessor resolution; the object's prototype chain. A public prototype property exists to allow the assignment, definition and manipulation of prototypes in association with the internal [[prototype]] property. The details of the relationship between to two are described in ECMA 262 (3rd edition) and are beyond the scope of this discussion. What are the details of the relationship between the two? I've browsed through ECMA 262 and all I've read there is stuff like: The constructor’s associated prototype can be referenced by the program expression constructor.prototype, Native ECMAScript objects have an internal property called [[Prototype]]. The value of this property is either null or an object and is used for implementing inheritance. Every built-in function and every built-in constructor has the Function prototype object, which is the initial value of the expression Function.prototype Every built-in prototype object has the Object prototype object, which is the initial value of the expression Object.prototype (15.3.2.1), as the value of its internal [[Prototype]] property, except the Object prototype object itself. From this all I gather is that the [[Prototype]] property is equivalent to the prototype property for pretty much any object. Am I mistaken?

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UIView using Quartz rendering engine to display PDF has poor quality compared to original.

- by Josh Kerr

I'm using the quartz rendering engine to display a PDF file on the iphone using the 3.0 SDK. The result is a bit blurry compared to a PDF being shown in a UIWebView. How can I improve the quality in the UIView so that I don't need to rewrite my app to use the UIWebView. I'm using pretty much close to the example code that Apple provides. Here is some of my sample code: CGContextRef gc = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSaveGState(gc); CGContextTranslateCTM(gc, 0.0, rect.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(gc, 1.0, -1.0); CGAffineTransform m = CGPDFPageGetDrawingTransform(page, kCGPDFCropBox, rect, 0, false); CGContextConcatCTM(gc, m); CGContextSetGrayFillColor(gc, 1.0, 1.0); CGContextFillRect(gc, rect); CGContextDrawPDFPage(gc, page); CGContextRestoreGState(gc); Apple's tutorial code actually results in a blurry PDF view as well. If you drop the same PDF into a UIWebView you'll see it is actually sharper. Anyone have any ideas? This one issue is holding a two year development project from launching. :(

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Slow XML-RPC in Windows 7 with XML-RPC.NET

- by Emre Sahin

I'm considering to use XML-RPC.NET to communicate with a Linux XML-RPC server written in Python. I have tried a sample application (MathApp) from Cook Computing's XML-RPC.NET but it took 30 seconds for the app to add two numbers within the same LAN with server. I have also tried to run a simple client written in Python on Windows 7 to call the same server and it responded in 5 seconds. The machine has 4 GB of RAM with comparable processing power so this is not an issue. Then I tried to call the server from a Windows XP system with Java and PHP. Both responses were pretty fast, almost instantly. The server was responding quickly on localhost too, so I don't think the latency arise from server. My googling returned me some problems regarding Windows' use of IPv6 but our call to server does include IPv4 address (not hostname) in the same subnet. Anyways I turned off IPv6 but nothing changed. Are there any more ways to check for possible causes of latency?

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Binding property to Silverlight dependency property independent of DataContext

- by Simon_Weaver

I'm trying to make an Address control that has an IsReadOnly property, which will make every TextBox inside read only when set to true. <my:AddressControl Grid.Column="1" Margin="5" IsReadOnly="True"/> I've managed to do this just fine with a dependency property and it works. Here's a simple class with the dependency property declared : public partial class AddressControl : UserControl { public AddressControl() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = this; } public static readonly DependencyProperty IsReadOnlyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsReadOnly", typeof(bool), typeof(AddressControl), null); public bool IsReadOnly { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsReadOnlyProperty); } set { SetValue(IsReadOnlyProperty, value); } } } In the XAML for this codebehind file I have a Textbox for each address line: <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding IsReadOnly}" Text="{Binding City, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding IsReadOnly}" Text="{Binding State, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding IsReadOnly}" Text="{Binding Zip, Mode=TwoWay}"/> Like i said this works just fine. The problem is that the Address control itself is bound to its parent object (I have several addresses I am binding). <my:AddressControl DataContext="{Binding ShippingAddress, Mode=TwoWay}" IsReadOnly="True"> <my:AddressControl DataContext="{Binding BillingAddress, Mode=TwoWay}" IsReadOnly="True"> The problem is that as soon as I set DataContext to something other than 'this' then the binding for IsReadOnly breaks. Not surprising because its looking for IsReadOnly on the Address data entity and it doesn't exist or belong there. I've tried just about every combination of binding attributes to get IsReadOnly to bind to the AddressControl obejct but can't get it working. I've tried things like this, but I can't get IsReadOnly to bind independently to the AddressControl property instead of its DataContext. <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=IsReadOnlyProperty}" Text="{Binding City, Mode=TwoWay}" /> I think I'm pretty close. What am I doing wrong?

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Making Ninject Interceptors work with async methods

- by captncraig

I am starting to work with ninject interceptors to wrap some of my async code with various behaviors and am having some trouble getting everything working. Here is an interceptor I am working with: public class MyInterceptor : IInterceptor { public async void Intercept(IInvocation invocation) { try { invocation.Proceed(); //check that method indeed returns Task await (Task) invocation.ReturnValue; RecordSuccess(); } catch (Exception) { RecordError(); invocation.ReturnValue = _defaultValue; throw; } } This appears to run properly in most normal cases. I am not sure if this will do what I expect. Although it appears to return control flow to the caller asynchronously, I am still a bit worried about the possibility that the proxy is unintentionally blocking a thread or something. That aside, I cannot get the exception handling working. For this test case: [Test] public void ExceptionThrown() { try { var interceptor = new MyInterceptor(DefaultValue); var invocation = new Mock<IInvocation>(); invocation.Setup(x => x.Proceed()).Throws<InvalidOperationException>(); interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object); } catch (Exception e) { } } I can see in the interceptor that the catch block is hit, but the catch block in my test is never hit from the rethrow. I am more confused because there is no proxy or anything here, just pretty simple mocks and objects. I also tried something like Task.Run(() => interceptor.Intercept(invocation.Object)).Wait(); in my test, and still no change. The test passes happily, but the nUnit output does have the exception message. I imagine I am messing something up, and I don't quite understand what is going on as much as I think I do. Is there a better way to intercept an async method? What am I doing wrong with regards to exception handling?

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Capturing unhandled exceptions in .Net 2.0. Wrong event called.

- by SoMoS

Hello, I'm investigating a bit about how the unhandled exceptions are managed in .Net and I'm getting unexpected results that I would like to share with you to see what do you think about. The first one is pretty simple to see. I wrote this code to do the test, just a button that throws an Exception on the same thread that created the Form: Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Throw New Exception() End Sub Private Sub UnhandledException(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As UnhandledExceptionEventArgs) MsgBox(String.Format("Exception: {0}. Ending: {1}. AppDomain: {2}", CType(e.ExceptionObject, Exception).Message, e.IsTerminating.ToString(), AppDomain.CurrentDomain.FriendlyName)) End Sub Private Sub UnhandledThreadException(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs) MsgBox(String.Format("Exception: {0}. AppDomain: {1}", e.Exception.Message(), AppDomain.CurrentDomain.FriendlyName)) End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load AddHandler AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException, AddressOf UnhandledException AddHandler Application.ThreadException, AddressOf UnhandledThreadException End Sub End Class When I execute the code inside the Visual Studio the UnhandledException is called as expected but when I execute the application from Windows the UndhanledThreadException is called instead. ¿?¿?¿¿?¿? Someone has any idea of what can be happening here? Thanks in advance.

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