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  • Getting the ranking of a photo in SQL

    - by Jake Petroules
    I have the following tables: Photos [ PhotoID, CategoryID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID ] Categories [ CategoryID, ... ] PK [ CategoryID ] Votes [ PhotoID, UserID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID, UserID ] A photo belongs to one category. A category may contain many photos. A user may vote once on any photo. A photo can be voted for by many users. I want to select the ranks of a photo (by counting how many votes it has) both overall and within the scope of the category that photo belongs to. The count of SELECT * FROM Votes WHERE PhotoID = @PhotoID being the number of votes a photo has. I want the resulting table to have generated columns for overall rank, and rank within category, so that I may order the results by either. So for example, the resulting table from the query should look like: PhotoID VoteCount RankOverall RankInCategory 1 48 1 7 3 45 2 5 19 33 3 1 2 17 4 3 7 9 5 5 ... ...you get the idea. How can I achieve this? So far I've got the following query to retrieve the vote counts, but I need to generate the ranks as well: SELECT PhotoID, UserID, CategoryID, DateUploaded, (SELECT COUNT(CommentID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.Comments WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS CommentCount, (SELECT COUNT(PhotoID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.PhotoVotes WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS VoteCount, Comments FROM dbo.Photos

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  • Vertically Merge Multiple Tables in MySQL by Joint Primary Key

    - by world
    Hello, I'll attempt to make my question as clear as possible. I'm fairly unexperienced with SQL, only know the really basic queries. In order to have a better idea I'd been reading the MySQL manual for the past few days, but I couldn't really find a concrete solution and my needs are quite specific. I've got 3 MySQL MyISAM tables: table1, table2 and table3. Each table has an ID column (ID, ID2, ID3 respectively), and different data columns. For example table1 has [ID, Name, Birthday, Status, ...] columns, table2 has [ID2, Country, Zip, ...], table3 has [ID3, Source, Phone, ...] you get the idea. The ID, ID2, ID3 columns are common to all three tables... if there's an ID value in table1 it will also appear in table2 and table3. The number of rows in these tables is identical, about 10m rows in each table. What I'd like to do is create a new table that contains (most of) the columns of all three tables and merge them into it. The dates, for instance, must be converted because right now they're in VARCHAR YYYYMMDD format. Reading the MySQL manual I figured STR_TO_DATE() would do the job, but I don't know how to write the query itself in the first place so I have no idea how to integrate the date conversion. So basically, after I create the new table (which I do know how to do), how can I merge the three tables into it, integrating into the query the date conversion?

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  • MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

    - by cbp
    Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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  • Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

    - by Orion Edwards
    Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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  • What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

    - by Peter
    From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

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  • WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

    - by user320849
    Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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  • How to install previously-archived apps from xcode organizer to my iphone

    - by Ben Clayton
    Hi all. Xcode keeps an archive of all the versions of my apps that I've submitted to the app store in the 'archived applications' section. I assumed using this I could install an old version of an app to my device, in order to reproduce any problems my client may have had with that particular version. However, when I try to do this I get an error: 'this executable was signed with invalid entitlements, the entitlements specified in your applications code signing entitlements do not match those specified in your provisioning profile' The original app was signed using our App Store distribution certificate, and I use the Organizer interface to re-sign it using our Developer profile. select the archived app select the version I want to test click 'share' select 'iphone developer' next to identity save to disk (saves the ipa file) then copy the ipa to the device using the little + button you see next to 'applications' on the screen you get when you select the connected device. Then I get the error, and the app isn't installed. Is there something obvious I'm doing wrong here? Or is there a different process to re-install an archived app to my device? Thanks,

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  • Zend Routes conflict

    - by meder
    I have defined 2 custom routes. One for threads/:id/:name and the other for threads/tags/:tagName however the second one conflicts with the first because if I enable both then the first breaks and treats :id literally as an action, not obeying the \d+ requirement ( I also tried using pure regex routes, see bottom ). Action "1" does not exist and was not trapped in __call() I tried re-arranging the order of the routes but if I do that then the threads/tags/:tagName doesnt correctly capture the tagName. I also tried disabling default routes but the routes still don't properly work after that. Here's my route init function: protected function _initRoutes() { $fc = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $fc->getRouter(); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/:id/:name', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 'id' => '\d+' ) ) ); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/tags/:tagName', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'tags', ), array( 'tagName' => '[a-zA-Z]+' ) ) ); } I also tried using a pure regex route but was unsuccessful, most likely because I did it wrong: $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex( 'threads/(\d+)/([a-zA-Z]+)', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 1 => 'tagName', 2 => 'name' ) ) );

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  • Trying to use jquery ui in google chrome extension in the content level

    - by user135697
    The problem is that the scope of the content script is on the web page that your plugin is suppose to be used at. So the css background:url(images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png) becomes url('http://webpageforplugin/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') in order for this to work as far as i understood i need to have it to point to: url('chrome-extension://extensionId/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') So i tried to haxorz the document.styleSheets var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i=0; i<ss.length; i++) { var found=-1, x,i; var rules = ss[i].cssRules || ss[i].rules; for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if ('.ui-helper-hidden'==rules[j].selectorText){ found=i; break; } } if (found>-1){ for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if (x=rules[j].style.background){ if ((i=x.indexOf('url'))!=-1) rules[j].style.background = x.replace('http://page/images/','chrome-extension://extensionId/images/'); } } break; } }; I feel that i'm missing the obvious. That there must be an easier way. Even if i manage to change this how will i get the extension id to build the string. Btw this doesn't work, the icons are not properly fetched. (I hardcoded the extension id) Any ideas?

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  • Paragraph with normal opacity within greyed-out div

    - by dmr
    I am greying out a web page when a user doesn't have permission to access it. In order to do that, I am placing a div with background-color white and a lowered opacity on top of the web page. I want to write some words in that div with the words having a normal opacity. As of now, the greyed out background is showing correctly. However, I can't seem to get the words to be a regular opacity. The derived styles on Firebug show the opacity on the words as normal, but it clearly isn't. What am I doing wrong? The HTML: <div class="noPermission"> <p>I'm sorry. You do not have permission to access this page.</p> </div> The CSS: div.noPermission { background-color: white; filter:alpha(opacity=50); /* IE */ opacity: 0.5; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.50; /* FireFox */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-position:center; position:absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px; } div.noPermission p{ color: black; margin: 300px auto auto 50px; text-align: left; font-weight: bold; font-size: 18px; display: block; width: 250px; }

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  • Centralized Exception handling for Eclipse plug-in

    - by Svilen
    Hello, At first I thought this would be question often asked, however trying (and failing) to look up info on this proved me wrong. Is there a mechanism in Eclipse platform for centralized exception handling of exceptions? For example... You have plug-in project which connects to a DB and issues queries, results of which are used to populate some e.g. views. This is like the most common example ever. :) Queries are executed almost for any user action, from every UI control the plug-in provides. Most likely the DB Query API will have some specific to the DB SomeDBGeneralException declared as being thrown by it. That's OK, you can handle those according to whatever your software design is. But how about unchecked exceptions which are likely to occur, e.g. , when communication with DB suddenly breaks for some network related reason? What if in such case one would like to catch those exceptions in a central place and for example provide user friendly message to the user (rather than the low level communication protocol api messages) and even some possible actions the user could execute in order to deal with the specific problem? Thinking in Eclipse platform context, the question may be rephrased as "Is there an extension point like "org.eclipse.ExceptionHandler" which allows to declare exception handlers for specific (some kind of filtering support) exceptions giving a lot of flexibility with the actual handling?"

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  • Using `<List>` when dealing with pointers in C#.

    - by Gorchestopher H
    How can I add an item to a list if that item is essentially a pointer and avoid changing every item in my list to the newest instance of that item? Here's what I mean: I am doing image processing, and there is a chance that I will need to deal with images that come in faster than I can process (for a short period of time). After this "burst" of images I will rely on the fact that I can process faster than the average image rate, and will "catch-up" eventually. So, what I want to do is put my images into a <List> when I acquire them, then if my processing thread isn't busy, I can take an image from that list and hand it over. My issue is that I am worried that since I am adding the image "Image1" to the list, then filling "Image1" with a new image (during the next image acquisition) I will be replacing the image stored in the list with the new image as well (as the image variable is actually just a pointer). So, my code looks a little like this: while (!exitcondition) { if(ImageAvailabe()) { Image1 = AcquireImage(); ImgList.Add(Image1); } if(ImgList.Count 0) { ProcessEngine.NewImage(ImgList[0]); ImgList.RemoveAt(0); } } Given the above, how can I ensure that: - I don't replace all items in the list every time Image1 is modified. - I don't need to pre-declare a number of images in order to do this kind of processing. - I don't create a memory devouring monster. Any advice is greatly appreciated.

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

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  • iTextSharp Overlay Image

    - by pennylane
    Hi guys I have an instance where I have a logo image as part of some artwork.. If a user uploads a new logo I have a form field which is larger than the default logo. I then use that form field to position the new image. The problem is I need to set the background colour of that form field to white so that it covers the old logo in the event that the new image is smaller than the old logo.. what I have done is: foreach (var imageField in imageReplacements) { fields.SetFieldProperty(imageField.Key, "bgcolor", iTextSharp.text.Color.WHITE, null); fields.RegenerateField(imageField.Key); PdfContentByte overContent = stamper.GetOverContent(imageField.Value.PageNumber); float[] logoArea = fields.GetFieldPositions(imageField.Key); if (logoArea != null) { iTextSharp.text.Rectangle logoRect = new iTextSharp.text.Rectangle(logoArea[1], logoArea[2], logoArea[3], logoArea[4]); var logo = iTextSharp.text.Image.GetInstance(imageField.Value.Location); if (logo.Width >= logoRect.Width || logo.Height >= logoRect.Height) { logo.ScaleToFit(logoRect.Width, logoRect.Height); } logo.Alignment = iTextSharp.text.Image.ALIGN_LEFT; logo.SetAbsolutePosition(logoRect.Left, logoArea[2] + (logoRect.Height - logo.ScaledHeight) / 2); // left: logoArea[3] - logo.ScaledWidth + (logoRect.Width - logo.ScaledWidth) / 2 overContent.AddImage(logo); } } The problem with this is that the background colour of the field is set to white and the image then doesn't appear.. i remove the SetFieldProperty and RegenerateField commands and the image replacement works fine.. is there a way to set a stacking order on layers?

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  • How does mercurial's bisect work when the range includes branching?

    - by Joshua Goldberg
    If the bisect range includes multiple branches, how does hg bisect's search work. Does it effectively bisect each sub-branch (I would think that would be inefficient)? For instance, borrowing, with gratitude, a diagram from an answer to this related question, what if the bisect got to changeset 7 on the "good" right-side branch first. @ 12:8ae1fff407c8:bad6 | o 11:27edd4ba0a78:bad5 | o 10:312ba3d6eb29:bad4 |\ | o 9:68ae20ea0c02:good33 | | | o 8:916e977fa594:good32 | | | o 7:b9d00094223f:good31 | | o | 6:a7cab1800465:bad3 | | o | 5:a84e45045a29:bad2 | | o | 4:d0a381a67072:bad1 | | o | 3:54349a6276cc:good4 |/ o 2:4588e394e325:good3 | o 1:de79725cb39a:good2 | o 0:2641cc78ce7a:good1 Will it then look only between 7 and 12, missing the real first-bad that we care about? (thus using "dumb" numerical order) or is it smart enough to use the full topography and to know that the first bad could be below 7 on the right-side branch, or could still be anywhere on the left-side branch. The purpose of my question is both (a) just to understand the algorithm better, and (b) to understand whether I can liberally extend my initial bisect range without thinking hard about what branch I go to. I've been in high-branching bisect situations where it kept asking me after every test to extend beyond the next merge, so that the whole procedure was essentially O(n). I'm wondering if I can just throw the first "good" marker way back past some nest of merges without thinking about it much, and whether that would save time and give correct results.

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  • LINQ : How to query how to sort result by most similarity/equality

    - by aNui
    I want to do a search for Music instruments which has its informations Name, Category and Origin as I asked in my post. But now I want to sort/group the result by similarity/equality to the keyword such as. If I have the list { Harp, Piano, Drum, Guitar, Guitarrón } and if I queried "p" the result should be { Piano, Harp } but it shows Harp first because of the list's sequence and if I add {Grand Piano} to the list and query "piano" the result shoud be like { Piano, Grand Piano } here's my code static IEnumerable<MInstrument> InstrumentsSearch(IEnumerable<MInstrument> InstrumentsList, string query, MInstrument.Category[] SelectedCategories, MInstrument.Origin[] SelectedOrigins) { var result = InstrumentsList .Where(item => SelectedCategories.Contains(item.category)) .Where(item => SelectedOrigins.Contains(item.origin)) .Where(item => { if ( (" " + item.Name.ToLower()).Contains(" " + query.ToLower()) || item.Name.IndexOf(query) != -1 ) { return true; } return false; } ) .Take(30); return result.ToList<MInstrument>(); } Or the result may be like my old self-invented algorithm that I called "by order of occurence", that is just OK to me. Is there any way to do that, please tell me. Thanks in advance.

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  • barebones sort algorithm

    - by user309322
    i have been asked to make a simple sort aglorithm to sort a random series of 6 numbers into numerical order. However i have been asked to do this using "Barebones" a theoretical language put forward in the Book Computer Science an overview. Some information on the language can be found here http://www.brouhaha.com/~eric/software/barebones/ Just to clarify i am a student teacher and have been doing anaysis on "mini-programing languages" and their uses in a teaching environment, i suggested to my tutor that i look at barebones and asked what sort of exmaple program i should write . He suggested a simple sort algorithm. Now since looking at the language i cant understand how i can do this without using arrays and if statements. The code to swap the value of variables would be while a not 0 do; incr Aux1; decr a; end; while b not 0 do; incr Aux2 decr b end; while Aux1 not 0 do; incr a; decr Aux1; end; while Aux2 not 0 do; incr b; decr Aux2; end; however the language does not provide < or operators

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

    - by Savanni D'Gerinel
    In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

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  • How to eliminate duplicate rows?

    - by Odette
    hi guys im back with my original query and i just have one question please (ps: I know i have to vote and regsiter and I promise I will do that today) With the following query (t-sql) I am getting the correct results, except that there are duplicates now. I have been reading up and think I can use the PARTITION BY syntax - can you please show me how to incorporate the PARTITION BY syntax? WITH CALC1 AS (SELECT OTQUOT, OTIT01 AS ITEMS, ROUND(OQCQ01 * OVRC01,2) AS COST FROM @[email protected] WHERE OTIT01 < '' UNION ALL ... SELECT OTQUOT, OTIT10 AS ITEMS, ROUND(OQCQ10 * OVRC10,2) AS COST FROM @[email protected] WHERE OTIT10 < '' ) SELECT OTQUOT, DESC, ITEMS, RN FROM ( SELECT OTQUOT, ITEMS, B.IXRPGP AS GROUP, C.OTRDSC AS DESC, COST, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OTQUOT ORDER BY COST DESC) AS RN FROM CALC1 AS A INNER JOIN @[email protected] AS B ON (A.ITEMS = B.IKITMC) INNER JOIN DATAGRP.GDSGRP AS C ON (B.IXRPGP = C.OKRPGP) ) T RESULTS: 60408169 FENCING GNCPDCTP18BGBG 1 60408169 FENCING CGIFESHPD1795BG 2 60408169 FENCING GTTCGIBG 3 60408169 FENCING GBTCGIBG 4 How do I get rid of the duplicates? thanks Bill and all the others for your help (I am still learning!)

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  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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  • Storing date/times as UTC in database

    - by James
    I am storing date/times in the database as UTC and computing them inside my application back to local time based on the specific timezone. Say for example I have the following date/time: 01/04/2010 00:00 Say it is for a country e.g. UK which observes DST (Daylight Savings Time) and at this particular time we are in daylight savings. When I convert this date to UTC and store it in the database it is actually stored as: 31/03/2010 23:00 As the date would be adjusted -1 hours for DST. This works fine when your observing DST at time of submission. However, what happens when the clock is adjusted back? When I pull that date from the database and convert it to local time that particular datetime would be seen as 31/03/2009 23:00 when in reality it was processed as 01/04/2010 00:00. Correct me if I am wrong but isn't this a bit of a flaw when storing times as UTC? Example of Timezone conversion Basically what I am doing is storing the date/times of when information is being submitted to my system in order to allow users to do a range report. Here is how I am storing the date/times: public DateTime LocalDateTime(string timeZoneId) { var tzi = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(timeZoneId); return TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTimeFromUtc(DateTime.UtcNow, tzi).ToLocalTime(); } Storing as UTC: var localDateTime = LocalDateTime("AUS Eastern Standard Time"); WriteToDB(localDateTime.ToUniversalTime());

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • Bootstrap - Typehead on multiple inputs

    - by Clem
    I have two text intputs, both have to run an autocompletion. The site is using Bootstrap, and the « typeahead » component. I have this HTML : <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="artist" /> <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="location" /> I'm using the « data-role » attribute (that is sent to the Ajax controller as a $_POST index), in order to determine what kind of data has to be retrieved from the database. The Javascript goes this way : var myTypeahead = $('input.js_typeahead').typeahead({ source: function(query, process){ var data_role; data_role = myTypeahead.attr('data-role'); return $.post('/ajax/typeahead', { query:query,data_role:data_role },function(data){ return process(data.options); }); } }); With PHP, I check what $_POST['data-role'] contains, an run the MySQL query (in this case, a query either on a list of Artists, or a list of Locations). But the problem is the second "typeahead" returns the same values than the first one (list of Artists). I assume it's because the listener is attached to the object « myTypeahead », and this way the "data-role" attribute which is used, will always be the same. I think I could fix it by using something like : data_role = $(this).attr('data-role'); But of course this doesn't work, as it's a different scope. Maybe I'm doing it all wrong, but at least maybe you people could give me a hint. Sorry if this has already been discussed, I actually searched but without success. Thanks in advance, Clem (from France, sorry for my english)

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